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Year 4 > Emergency Medicine > Flashcards

Emergency Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What species commonly causes Acute Epiglottitis

A

Haemophilus Influenzae

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2
Q

Management of Acute Epiglottitis

A

Emergency intubation and treatment with IV antibiotics

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3
Q

What is the GOLD standard for diganosing epiglottitis

A

Fibre-optic paryngoscopy

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4
Q

If a laryngoscopy is contraindictaed for epiglottitis, what should be done

A

Lateral neck X Ray for thumbprint sign

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5
Q

Causes of Acute Pancreatitis

A

GET SMASHED:

Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmume disease
Scorpion Bite
Hypercalcaemia, hypertriglyceridaemia, hypothermia
ERCP
Drigs

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6
Q

What drugs can cause pancreatitis

A

FATSHEEP

Furosemide
Azathioprine
Thiazines/Tetracyclines
Statines/Sodium Valproate/Sulfonamides
Hydrocholrothiazide
Oestrogens
Ethanol
NRTIs

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7
Q

Symptoms of Acute Pancreatitis

A

Stabbing-like, epigastric pain which radiates to the back

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8
Q

How is pancreatitis pain relieved

A

Sitting forwards or lying hunched over

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9
Q

WHat other conditions can elevate amylase

A

Duodenal ulcer
Cholecystitis
Mesenteric infarction

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10
Q

What imaging is preferred and why

A

ERCP over MRCP as it is more therapeutic

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11
Q

What criteria can be used to predict the severity of pancreatitis

A

GLasgow criteria

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12
Q

When is the glasgow criteria used for pancreatitis

A

At admission and 48 hours after

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13
Q

What score on the glasgow criteria indictaed transfer to ITU or HDU

A

over 3

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14
Q

Outline the glasgow criteria for pancreatitis

A

PaO2 < 8kPa
Age > 55
Neutrophils > 15 x 10^9
Calcium < 2mmol/L
Renal Function > 16mmol/L
Enzymes (AST/ALT > 200 or LDH > 600)
Albumin <32
Sugar > 10 mmol/L

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15
Q

Management of pancreatitis

A

1 L Fluid at a rate of 3-5 ml/kg/hour

Analgesia (co-codamol)

Antiemetics

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16
Q

What is Pulseless Electrical Activity

A

ECG shows electrical activity that should produce a pulse but a pulse cannot be felt

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17
Q

Management of PEA and Asystole

A

CPR:

Adrenaline 1mg IV in first cycle and then every other cycle tehreafter.

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18
Q

Management of Ventricular Fibrilation and Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia

A

Defibrillation and CPR

Seconnd Line: Amiodarone 300mg IV + Adrenaline 1mg IV (1:10,000) after third shock

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19
Q

WHen is suction indictaed for airway management

A

If foreign body, blood or vomit is visible

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20
Q

Contraindications to suction management

A

C-spine injury

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21
Q

Name two other simple airway manouevres other than suction that can improve airway management

A

Head tilt
Jaw Thrust

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22
Q

How does a Guedel work

A

Inserted upside down and rotated 180 degrees to hold tongue from posterior pharynx

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23
Q

WHat is the need for nasopharyngeal airway adjuncts

A

Used to keep tongue forward in patients with gag reflexes

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24
Q

When is NPA contraindicated

A

Basilar skull fracture

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25
Q

Indicatino of a supraglottic airway

A

Can be used with ventilation machine

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26
Q

Presentation of alcohol withdrawal (6-12 hours)

A

INsomnia
Tremour
Anxiety
Agitation
Nausea and vomiting
Sweating and palpitationa

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27
Q

Onnset of alcohol hallucinations

A

12-24 hours post drink

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28
Q

Presentation of delirium Tremens

A

Delusions
COnfusion
Seizures
Hypertension
Hyperthermia
Seizures

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29
Q

Indications for inpatient withdrawal management

A

> 30 units a day
30_ on SADQ score
COncurrent withdrawal from BDZs
Vulnerable patients
<18
Previous seizures, deleirium tremens or epilsepsy

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30
Q

Indications for assisted withdrawal management in alcoholics

A

> 15 units or >20 on AUDIT

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31
Q

Managemebt of Alcohol Withdrawal

A

Chlordiazepocide
IV Pabrinex to stop wernicke’s

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32
Q

First line management of delirium tremens

A

Oral Lorzapeam

If denied, offer IV

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33
Q

Management of a conscious choking patient

A

5 back blows centrally

5 abdo thrusts from behind

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34
Q

Managemnet of choking in adults who are unconscious

A

ABCDE

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35
Q

First line managemnet of compartment syndrome

A

Urgent Fasciotomy
Analgesia
Fluids

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36
Q

What aggravates pain in compartment syndrome

A

Flexing toes

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37
Q

Define moderate asthma

A

PEF: 50-75%

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38
Q

Define severe asthma

A

PEF: 33-50%
RR > 25
HR > 110
Can’tr complete sentences

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39
Q

Define life threatening asthma

A

33,92 CHEST

PEF < 33
SO2 < 92
Cyanosis
Hypotrension
Exhaustion
SIlent Chest
Tachycarrythmias

NORMAL PCO2

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40
Q

FIrst line managemnet of life trheateing asthma

A

Admission to hospital

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41
Q

Criteria in asthmatics to intensive care

A

Requires ventialtory support
PEF getting worse
Worsening Hypoxia
Hypercapnia
Exhaustion
Respiratory arrest

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42
Q

Immediate management of all asthma attacks

A

Sit UP
100% O2 non rebreatheable mask
Nebulised salbutamol 5mg + Ipratropium 0.5mg
IV Hydrocortisone IV or prednisolone 50mg pO

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43
Q

Management of life trheatning asthma

A

Immediate PLUS;
Refer to ICU
Magnesium Sulfate 2g IV over 20 minutes
Nebulised salbutamol every 15 mins

If no improvement: ITU transfer for invasive ventilation

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44
Q

What shoul dbe monitored at A and E during an asthm attack

A

PEF

SpO2: keep > 92%

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45
Q

How is troponin level affecte din unstable angina

A

NO rise in troponin

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46
Q

Name two features of a STEMI on an ECG

A

ST-Elevation

LBBB

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47
Q

Management of Anaphylaxis

A

Oxygen

Then lie patient flat and rise legs

THEN;
Administer 500mg Im adrenaline + Chlorphenamine + Hydrocortisone after ABCDE

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48
Q

What diagnoses carbon monoxide poisoning

A

VBG/ABG: Carboxyhaemoglobin >20% concentration

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49
Q

Management of Carbon Monoxide poisoning

A

100% oxygen via face mask

Second Line: Hyperbaric Oxygen

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50
Q

Clinical Features of Cardiac Tamponade

A

Beck’s Triad: Raised JVP, hypotension and muffled heart sounds

Kussmaul’s sign: JVP rise on inspiration)

Pulsus paradoxus

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51
Q

ECG finding in cardiac tamponade

A

Electric alternans (QRS height changes)

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52
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus

A

Drop in systoic BP on inspiration

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53
Q

Management of cardiac tamponade

A

Pericardiocentesis

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54
Q

Where is ethylene glycol found

A

Anti-freeze

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55
Q

Management of ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Gastric lavage if <1 hour

> 1 hour: Fomepizole or Ethanol if unavilable

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56
Q

If Ethylene glycol poisoning can’t be treated with fomepizole or alcohol, what should be done

A

Haemofiltration

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57
Q

Management of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic state

A

1L of 0.9% saline

Then 1L of saline PLUS KCL

+ Insluin 0.05 units/lg.hour if ketones are over 1mmol/L

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58
Q

Management of pericarditis

A

Analgesia and bed rest

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59
Q

What is a parimary spontaneous pneumothorax

A

No underlying pathology caused this (tall young men)

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60
Q

What is a secondary sponatneous pneumothorax

A

Issues:

Marfan’s
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
COPD and Asthma
TB and pneumonia
CF
Bronchial carcnioma

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61
Q

Name an iatrogenic cause of traumatic pneumothorax

A

Insertion of a central line
Positive pressure ventilation

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62
Q

What is a non-iatrogenic traumatic cause of a pneumothorax

A

Blunt trauma

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63
Q

What is pleuritic chest pain

A

Chest pain on inspiration

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64
Q

Management of a tension pneumothorax

A

ABCDE:

Ocygen through a non-rebreather mask

immediate needle decompression

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65
Q

Where is the needle decompression given in a tension pneumothorax

A

Second intercostal space, mid clavicular line on the affected side

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66
Q

Following needle decompression, what should be done

A

Insertion of an intercostal chest drain

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67
Q

Management of a primary pneumothorax depends on what two factors

A

If the patient is short of breath or has a pneumothorax > 2cm on an X-Ray

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68
Q

If a patient with simple primary pneumothorax is not sob and has a pneumothorax < 2cm, what should be done

A

COnservative management and review in 2-4 weeks

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69
Q

If a patient with primary pneumothorax presents with sob or has a pneumothorax > 2cm, what should be done

A

16-18g cannula aspiration

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70
Q

If a needle decompression fails, what should be done

A

Intercostal drain

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71
Q

Management of a simple secondary pneumothorax if the patient has no sob and the pneumothorax is under 1cm

A

Admit for observation for 24 hours and. oxygen

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72
Q

If a patinet has a simple secondary penumothorax but is not sob and has a pneumothorax 1-2cm large, what should be done

A

Aspiration THEN admit for 24 hours

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73
Q

If a patinet has a simple secondary pneumothorax and IS sob or has a pneumothorax >2cm, what should be done

A

INTERCOSTAL drain

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74
Q

When is thrombolysis with alteplase indicated for a PE

A

Features of haemodynamic instability

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75
Q

First line management of a PE

A

DOAC

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76
Q

What are the indications to refer to SDEC

A

Ambulant
Acute medical complaint
NEWS <4
No frailty needs/falls
No new Ocygen Requirements
Likely to be discharged on the same day

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77
Q

What physiological change in the heart causes Torsades de Pointes

A

Long QT Interval

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78
Q

What are the causes of TOrsades de Pointes (long QT intervals)

A

TIMMES:

Toxins
Inherited
Ischaemia
Myocardities
Mitral Valve Prolapse
Electrolyte Abnormalities (hyperkalaemia, hypomagnesemia)
SAH

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79
Q

Management of Torsades de Pointes

A

IV Magnesium Sulphate over 1-2 minutes

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80
Q

Under what circumstances is the Glasgow-Blatchford score used

A

Prior to endoscopy

81
Q

What Glasgow-Blatchford score indicates the need for medical intervention before endosocpy

A

Over. 0

82
Q

What is the Rockall score

A

Used in patients AFTER endosocpy to estimate the risk of rebleeding and mortality

83
Q

What is the treatment for any upper GI bleed

A

ABCDE
Insert 2 large bore IV cannulaes to take bloods for cross matching and FBC etc
IV FLuids if hypotensive
Catheterise
Urgent Endoscopy

84
Q

Management of a peptic ulcer

A

Endosocopic clipping or thermal coagulation

85
Q

IF a patient is haemodynamically unstable following endosocpy, what should be done

A

Interventional radiology/precutaneous angiography to find point of bleeding

Then ebolise bleeding artery

86
Q

Under what circumstances should a PPI not be offered to a patient prior to endoscopy

A

If a non-variceal bleed is suspected - only given after evidence of bleeding is elsewhere

87
Q

Management of acute variceal bleeding

A

ABCDE
2 IV cannulas
IV Flluids
Catheterise
Urgent Endoscopy

88
Q

Medical Management of variceal bleeding

A

Terlipressin for 5 days

89
Q

What prophylaxis is given for variceal bleeding

A

Tazocin (antibiotic)

90
Q

Surgical management of variceal bleeding after terlipressin management fails

A

N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate or band ligation

TIPS if all else fails (final line)

91
Q

Management of ventricular tachycardia

A

IV Amiodarone

92
Q

Management of Myxoedema coma

A
  1. ITU referral
  2. IV T3/T4
  3. 50-100mg Hydrocortisone
  4. Correct hypothermia/hypoglycaemia
  5. Treat HF
93
Q

Management of an addisonian crisis

A
  1. FLUID RESUS first

THEN
IV Hydrocortisone 100mg
IV GLucose if hypoglycaemic
Swap back to oral steroids after 3 days
COnsider fludrocortsione

94
Q

SIgns of Aspirin Overdose

A

Tinnitus
Initial respiratory alkalosis THEN metabolic acidosis

95
Q

Diagnosis of aspirin overdose

A

VBG: Looking for acid-base imbalance
Slicylate levels

96
Q

Management of Aspirin Overdose

A

Activated charcoal if <1 hour ingestion
IV Fluid, Sodium Bicarbonate and KCL

We need to alkalise the urine to increase salicylate excretion

97
Q

Management of Digoxin tocicity

A

Digibind

98
Q

Management of Phaeochromocytoma

A

Phentolamine iV to contorl BP (short acting alpha blocker)

Phenoxybenzamine to control BP before surgery can be arranged (llonger acting)

Labetolol if there is tachyarrthmia after alpha blockers given

Then
Adrenalectomy

99
Q

Management of a Thyroid Storm

A

IV Propranolol
Iv Digoxin
Propulthiouracil followed by Lugol’s iodine 6 hours later.
Prednisolone/Hydrocortisone

100
Q

Sins of hypothermia on an ECG

A

Sinus bardycardia
J Waves (osbourne waves)
Prolongued PR, QRS and QT intervals

101
Q

Criteria for performing a CT head within 1 hour

A

GCS <13 in initial assessment
GCS <15 up to 2 hours after injury
Suspected skull fracture
Signs of basilar skull fracture
Post-Tarumatic seizure
Focal deficits
More than 1 episode of vomiting

102
Q

Signs of basilar skull fractures

A

Pana eyes
Bleeding behind ear
Battle sign
Leakeage of fluid from nose

103
Q

Criteria for performing a CT head within 8 hours of head injury

A

> 65 years
History of bleeding or clotting
Dangerous mechanism of injury
30 minutes of retrograde amnesia

104
Q

What non cardiac conditions can raise troponin leels

A

CKD
PE
Sepsis

105
Q

What is the first line management of head trauma

A

ABCDE
Stabilise C spine and airways

106
Q

Management of Paracetamol overdose

A

Within 1 hour ingetsion AND dose >150mg/kg: Activated charcoal

If staggered overdose or >15 hours = N-Acetylcysteine immediately

If >4 hours: take blood levels THEN N-Acetylcysteine

If between 4-15 hours ago: Take immediate level and treat based on levels

107
Q

What is the criteria for sepsis

A

2 of:
>38 degrees or <36 degrees
HR > 90
RR ? 20
WBC > 12 or <4

108
Q

WHat lactate level defines septic shock

A

> 4 mmol/L

109
Q

Management of sepsis

A

Take BLoods
Take cultures
Oxygen
I Antibiotics
IV Fluids
Monitor fluid output

110
Q

What urinary output indicates stage 1 shock

A

> 30

111
Q

WHat urinary output indicates stage 2 shock

A

20-30

112
Q

What urinary output indicates stage 3 shock

A

5-15

113
Q

What urinary output indicates stage 4 shock

A

<5

114
Q

What is the management for sepsis

A

SEPSIS 6:

  1. Blood (VBG for lactate)
  2. Oxyegn sats if <94%
  3. IV ANtibiiotics IMMEDIATELY
  4. Fluid challenge (crystalloid) if BP <90 or lactate >4
  5. Blood cultures
  6. Catheterisation
115
Q

First line management of hypovalaemic shock in trauma

A

1.5-2 L warmed IV Crystalloid

Then cross-match blood for O-negative infusion

116
Q

SIgns of retinal detachment

A

FLoaters and flashes followed by CURTAIN falling vision loss (like amaurosis fugax)

117
Q

Fundoscopy findings for retinal detachment

A

Pale grey area of retina ballooning forward

118
Q

Define an anastamtoic leak

A

Most fatal complications of surgery: when contents of hollow organ leak between the gaps of two junctions joined together

119
Q

Management of an anastamotic leak

A

IV FLuids, antibiotics and bed rest

120
Q

What blood test should be used to check for an anastamotic leak

A

Lactate levels

121
Q

What is a rapid sequence induction

A

Endotracheal intubation and ventilation in people who are at high risk of pulmonary aspiration

122
Q

What is an arterial line used for

A

TO directly measure BP and obtain ABGs

123
Q

What is a FAST scan

A

Rapid USS scan at the time of presentation for a patient

124
Q

Indications for a FAST scan

A

Any traumatic events to check for intenral trumatic injuries (e.g., chest stabbings)

125
Q

What type of blood is given in trauma patients

A

O negative

126
Q

FAST scan vs Whole Body CT Scan

A

WBCT is more accurate, and usually gold standard

FAST scan is only chosen as first line if they’re very unstable and likely to go to theatre imminently.

127
Q

What is an adjunct to the primary survey (what should be done following ABCDE)

A

WHole body CT

Then do a secondary survey

128
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of Transexemic acid

A

Anti-fibrinolytic

129
Q

What is a haemothorax

A

A pleural effusion that is caused by the presence of blood

130
Q

Management of a haemothorax

A

Thoracostomy

131
Q

How does a tension pneumothorax cause shock

A

It increases intrathoracic pressure, reducing venous return to the heart

132
Q

What is the first line management of an axial loading injury (kick or blow to the head)

A

C-spine CT

133
Q

Management of life-threatening Asthma

A

OSHIT!

Oxyegn
Salbutamol
Hydrocortisone
Ipratropium
Theophylline
Mg

134
Q

Main management of a rib fracture or flail chest

A

NSAIDs

135
Q

What is a flail chest

A

When two or more consecutive ribs on the same side of the chest fracture in two or more places.

136
Q

If a patient has had a haemorrhagic shock, should fluids be given?

A

NO crystalloid fluids should be given - only for hypovolaemic shock. Should be like for like, give blood transfusions not fluids.

Fluids will just dilute the clotting factors.

137
Q

Indications for a whole body CT

A

Injury to multiple body regions
High speed motor vehicle collisions
Low GCS
Big Falls (>2m)

138
Q

What splint is used for a shaft of femur fracture

A

Thomas splint

139
Q

What type of nailing is used for neck of femur fractures

A

Intramedullary nails

140
Q

When is adrenaline indicated for anaphylaxis

A

Only when severely ill. If BP is normal and there is just mild cyanosis, leave alone.

141
Q

Anaphylaxis vs anaphylactoid reactions

A

Anaphylaxis is IgE mediated

Anaphylactoid is not IgE mediated

142
Q

If IM adrenaline does not work in anaphylaxis, what is done next

A

Repeat IM adrenaline

Third line: IV Adrenaline refer to resus team.

143
Q

What serum levels are used to diagnose anaphylaxis

A

Mast cell triptase levels (repeat later on as if it increases = anaphylaxis)

144
Q

What species is often associated with IV drug abuse people who have pneumonia

A

Staph aureus

145
Q

What gram organism is associated with HAP

A

Gram-negative

146
Q

Why does klebseilla often colonise in the upper lobes in pneumonia

A

Usually cause by aspiration

147
Q

At what CRB-65 score is hospital admission required or considered at

A

2

148
Q

If someone originally presents to the hospital with a CURB-65 of 1, is sent home, but does not recover after 72 hours, what should be done

A

Consider hospital admission

149
Q

Treatment of low-severity CAP

A

5 day course of amoxicillin

Erythromycin in pregnancy

150
Q

Management of moderate to severe CAP

A

5 days co-amoxiclav + Clarithromycin (or erythromycin in pregnancy)

151
Q

If a patient is allergic to penecillin, what should be given for low severity CAP

A

Doxycycline

152
Q

If an atypical penumonia is suspected, what should be given

A

Doxycycline

153
Q

For severe CAP, what can be given to someone who is allergic to penecillin

A

Oral levofloxacin

154
Q

Name three types of atypical pneumonias

A

M.pneumonia
C.pneumoniae
Legionella pneumoniae

155
Q

Signs distinctive of legionella pneumophila

A

Hyponatraemia (SIADH)

Typically gone to cheap hotel holidays

156
Q

Sigsn distinctive of mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Target lesions (erythema multiforme)

157
Q

What type of people get a pneumonia known as q fever

A

Farmers with a flu like illness

158
Q

What species causes pneumonia from parrots or other birds

A

Chlamydia psittaci

159
Q

What is the main cause of HAP

A

Strep pneumoniae (in first 5 days)

H.influenzae after 5 days

160
Q

At what respiratory rate should the emergency care team be called

A

<5 or >36

161
Q

At what pulse rate should the emergency team be called

A

<40 or >140

162
Q

Sepsis vs septic shock

A

Sepsis is organ dysfunction from a dysregulated response to infection vs metabolic and circulatory disorder caused from this organ dysfunction

163
Q

Most common sign of sepsis in the elderly

A

Confusion (mild) and unexplained hypotension

164
Q

First line management of haemorrhage shock

A

Blood transfusion NOT fluids

165
Q

What medication can be given for hypotension in sepsis

A

Noradrenaline

166
Q

What is the role of Dobutamine in septic shock

A

Increases cardiac output

167
Q

What causes Type I respiratory failure

A

Damage to lung tissue causing V/Q mismatch:

Pneumonia, lung injury or fibrosis

168
Q

What causes Type II respiratory failure

A

Occurs due to failure of ventilation:

COPD< chest-wall deformities, GBS, drug overdoses

There is a great resistance to ventilation

169
Q

What is the criteria for mechanical ventilation in Type I respiratory failure

A

Paco2 > 8Kpa (rising) + signs of respiratory distress

170
Q

What is the criteria for mechanical ventilation in type II respiratory failure

A

Vital Capacity < 10mL/kg

171
Q

Indication for a tracheostomy

A

Long-term use: control bronchial secretions + chronic respiratory depression that is refractory to treatment

172
Q

Indication for a cricothyroidotomy

A

Life-threatening obstruction of the upper respiratory tract

173
Q

Common causes of acute respiratory distress syndrome

A

Pneumonia
Sepsis
Aspiration of gastric contents

174
Q

Signs of ARDS

A

Pulmonary oedema and hypertension

175
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for brainstem death

A
  • Ocular reflexes
  • Corneal reflexes
  • Pupilary reflex
  • Vestibulo-ocular reflex
  • Gag reflex
  • no response to pain
  • Spontaneous respiration gone
176
Q

What cause exudative Pleural Effusion

A

Increased permeability of capillaries

177
Q

Causes of exudative pleural effusion

A

Pneumonia
TB
PE
Lung cancer

178
Q

Cause of transudate pleural effusions

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure and reduced oncotic pressure

179
Q

Causes of transudative Pleural effusions

A

HF
Hypoalbuminaemia
Cirrhosis
Nephrotic sytndrome

180
Q

What is the LIght’s criteria for exudative pleural effusions

A

POsitive

181
Q

What is the LIght’s criteria for transdative pleural effusion

A

Negative

182
Q

What CPR ratio is given for PEA and Asystole

A

30:2

183
Q

In an anaphylactic shock, what is given first

A

Adrenaline IM + FLuids

Do not give chlorhenamine and hydrocortsone at first line

184
Q

Management of a ventricular tachycardia if systolic BP <90

A

DC Cardioversion

185
Q

First line treatment for supraventricular tachyardias

A

Vagal manoeuvres

186
Q

If vagal manoeuvres fail to treat the Supraventricular tachycardia, what should be done

A

IV Adenosine

187
Q

In what type of tachycarythmias is IV amiodarone the first line treatment

A

Broad complex tachycardias (first line) if there are no BP upset AND there is a pulse

188
Q

If a patient has a ventricular tachycardia and no pulse what should be done

A

Immediate defibrilation

189
Q

What electrolyte imbalance is a common cause of ventricular tachycardias

A

Hypokalaemia

Hypomagnesemia

190
Q

What two things are needed to diagnose COPD

A

SYmptoms of COPD: E.g., sputum production, sob and winter bronchitis

+

FEV1/FVC <0.7

191
Q

First line management of COPD

A

Ipratropium bromide or Salbutamol

192
Q

Second line mnGWMWNT OD COPD

A

LABA + LAMA

Only if not asthmatic symptoms

If asthmatic: LABA + ICS

193
Q

Managing COPD exacerbation

A

Prednisolone or hydrocortisone 30mg for 7 days

+ Nebulised Salbutamol 5mg + Ipratropium bromide 500mcg

194
Q

First line investigation of Asthma

A

Fractional exhaled NO or Spirometry with bronchodilator reversibility

Second line: Peak flow variability

195
Q

Management of asthma (stepwise approach)

A
  1. Salbutamol
  2. Salbutamol + ICS
  3. Salbutamol + ICS + montelukast
  4. Salbutamol + ICS + Montelukast + LABA
  5. MART
196
Q

What lung functions indicate obstructive lung disease

A

FEV!:FVC ratio < 75%

197
Q

What lung function indicates restrictive disease

A

FEV1 and FVC are reduced + FEV1:FVC >75%

198
Q

Management of superficial corneal injuries

A
  1. Irrigate eye with normal saline to wash out foreign body
  2. Swab to check for infection

Year 4 (16 decks)

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