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Emergency learn Flashcards

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1
Q

What’s the oxidation number of O in OF₂?

A

+2

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2
Q

What’s the oxidation number of O in H₂O₂?

A

-1 (as it’s a peroxide)

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3
Q

What’s the oxidation number of H in NaH?

A

-1

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4
Q

Defn oxidation number

A

The oxidation number of an element is the charge an element has or appears to have when it is in a compound when certain rules are applied.

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5
Q

What’s the oxidation number of Group 7 elements?

A

-1 (but more electronegative +1)

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6
Q

What’s the oxidation number of H?

A

+1

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7
Q

How does the oxidation number of a reducing agent change during a redox reaction?

A

Is oxidised so the oxidation number will increase.

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8
Q

How do strong acids differ from weak acids in their behaviour in water according to the Arrhenius theory?

A

S: Fully dissociates to give hydrogen ions in solution.
W: Only slightly dissociates to give hydrogen ions in solution.

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9
Q

How do strong acids differ from weak acids in their behaviour in water according to the Bronsted-Lowry theory?

A

S: Good proton donor
W: Poor proton donor

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10
Q

Is the conjugate base of a strong acid or weak acid stronger?

A

Weak acid

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11
Q

What is an alkali?

A

A base that is soluble in water.

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12
Q

Give a problem with Arrhenius’ theory.

A

Excluded common bases such as NH₃.

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13
Q

Defn salt

A

A salt is formed when the H+ of the acid is replaced by a metal ion or ammonium ion.

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14
Q

Acid + Metal →

A

Salt + H₂

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15
Q

Acid + Metal oxide/hydroxide →

A

Salt + H₂O

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16
Q

Acid + Metal carbonate/hydrogen carbonate →

A

Salt + H₂O + CO₂

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17
Q

Metal + oxygen gas →

A

Metal oxide

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18
Q

Reactive metal + water →

A

Metal hydroxide + hydrogen gas

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19
Q

If Cl-, is there more or less electrons than Cl?

A

More

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20
Q

Name an instrument used to detect radiography.

A

Geiger-Muller tube

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21
Q

Give 3 uses of radioisotopes.

A
  • Nuclear power
  • Cancer treatment (using cobalt-60)
  • Sterilisation (by radiation)
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22
Q

Give an example of alpha, beta and gamma emitters.

A

A: Americium-241
B: Carbon-14
G: Cobalt-60

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23
Q

Phosphate ion

A

PO₄³⁻

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24
Q

Manganate ion

A

MnO₄⁻

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25
Q

Hypochlorite ion

A

ClO⁻

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26
Q

Hydrogencarbonate ion

A

HCO₃⁻

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27
Q

Nitrate ion

A

NO₃⁻

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28
Q

Carbonate ion

A

CO₃²⁻

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29
Q

Why do metals generally have high electronegativity values?

A

As they are electropositive

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30
Q

Defn ionic bond

A

Formed due to the electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions caused by the complete transfer of electrons from one atom to another.

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31
Q

Why are ionic compounds crystalline?

A

Because they are made up of an orderly arrangement of oppositely charged ions which give rise to a lattice structure.

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32
Q

Why are ionic compounds solid?

A

There are extremely strong attractions between the oppositely charged ions which hold the ions tightly together giving a solid structure.

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33
Q

Why do ionic compounds have high boiling points/melting points.

A

The extremely strong attractions between the oppositely charged ions require large amounts of energy to break, hence ionic compounds have high b.p/m.p.

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34
Q

Give a sample of a flocculating agent.

A

Aluminium sulphate

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35
Q

Are ionic compounds soluble in polar compounds such as H₂O?

A

Yes

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36
Q

Why are ionic compounds soluble in polar solvents?

A

As the attraction between the ions in the compound and polar water are strong enough to pull the crystalline lattice apart.

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37
Q

Inert =

A

Unreactive

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38
Q

Defn pure covalent bonding

A

Occurs when electrons are shared equally between atoms.

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39
Q

Defn polar covalent bonding

A

Occurs when electrons are shared unequally between atoms.

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40
Q

Give 4 properties of covalent compounds.

A
  • Usually gases or liquids
  • Do not conduct electricity
  • Insoluble in polar water
  • Low melting and boiling points
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41
Q

Ionic bonding (table)

A
  • Permanent dipole

- Ionic attractions

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42
Q

Pure covalent (table)

A
  • Temporary dipole

- Van der Waals forces

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43
Q

Polar covalent (table)

A
  • Permanent dipole

- Dipole-dipole attractions

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44
Q

Water, ammonia and hydrogen fluoride (table)

A
  • Permanent dipole

- Hydrogen bonding

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45
Q

Defn polar molecule

A

The slight positive and slight negative poles of a molecule do not coincide.

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46
Q

Give two examples of molecules with polar bonds that are non-polar molecules.

A
  • BH₃

- CH₄

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47
Q

Is the bonding in BF₃ ionic as expected?

A

No, sharing occurs

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48
Q

Why do ionic substances conduct electricity when molten or dissolved in water but not in the solid state?

A

Molten: ions are free to move
Solid: Ions not free to move

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49
Q

The diagram shows a thin stream of liquid flowing from a burette. A stream of water is deflected towards a positively charged rod whereas a stream of cyclohexane is undeflected. Account for these observation.

A

Polarity of water causes attraction to charged tod and non-polarity of cyclohexane means it is not affected by charged rod.

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50
Q

The diagram shows a thin stream of liquid flowing from a burette. A stream of water is deflected towards a positively charged rod whereas a stream of cyclohexane is undeflected. Explain what would happen in the case of the stream of water if the positively charged rod were replaced by a negatively charged rod.

A

Stream of water still attracted to rod as molecules arrange themselves with positive pole towards rod.

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51
Q

Defn hydrogen bonding (inter force of attraction)

A

A force of attraction thar occurs between molecules when hydrogen is bonded to a smaller more electronegative element such as O, F or N.

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52
Q

2 b.p, 2 l.p

A

V-shaped

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53
Q

4 b.p, 0 l.p

A

Tetrahedral

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54
Q

3 b.p, 0 l.p

A

Triangular planar

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55
Q

3 b.p, 1 l.p

A

Pyramidal

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56
Q

2 b.p, 0 l.p

A

Linear

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57
Q

Linear bond angle

A

180°

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58
Q

V-shaped bond angle

A

104.5°

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59
Q

Triangular planar bond angle

A

120°

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60
Q

Pyramidal bond angle

A

107°

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61
Q

Tetrahedral bond angle

A

109°

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62
Q

What is Kc dependent on?

A

Temperature

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63
Q

Which word, reaction ‘shifts’ to or ‘moves’ to?

A

SHIFTS!

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64
Q

Write an equation for the manufacture of ammonia.

A

N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃

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65
Q

What name to the process of the manufacture of ammonia?

A

Haber process

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66
Q

What are the ideal conditions for the Haber process?

A

Low temp, high pressure

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67
Q

Catalyst used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid.

A

Vanadium pentoxide

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68
Q

What is the effect of a catalyst on a reversible reaction?

A

Increases rate for both - reaches equilibrium faster

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69
Q

Colour flame of sodium

A

Amber/yellow

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70
Q

Colour flame of potassium

A

Lilac

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71
Q

Colour flame of copper

A

Blue/green

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72
Q

Colour flame of lithium

A

Crimson

73
Q

Colour flame of strontium

A

Red

74
Q

Colour flame of barium

A

Yellow/green

75
Q

Give 3 limitations of Bohr’s theory.

A
  • Does not take wave-particle duality into account.
  • Does not allow for uncertainty
  • Does not explain the discovery of sublevels
76
Q

Absorption spectrum

A

Series of dark lines against a coloured background.

77
Q

Emission spectrum

A

Series of coloured lines against a dark background.

78
Q

Energy sublevel

A

A group of atomic orbitals within an atom, all of which have the same energy.

79
Q

Aufbau principle

A

Electrons occupy the lowest available energy level.

80
Q

Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity

A

When two or more orbitals of equal energy are available, electrons fill them singly before filling them in pairs.

81
Q

Pauli exclusion principle

A

No more than two electrons can occupy an orbital and this they can only do if they have opposite spin.

82
Q

Exceptions to electronic configurations

A

Cr (4s1,3d5) and Cu (4s1, 3d10)

83
Q

d-block element

A

An element whose highest energy electron enters a d orbital.

84
Q

Transition metal

A

One that forms at least one ion with a partially filléid d sublevel.

85
Q

Transition elements characteristics

A
  • Variable valency
  • Act as catalysts in many reactions
  • Form coloured ions/compounds
86
Q

Explain how the line emission spectrum of hydrogen arises and provides evidence for the existence of energy levels.

A
  • In the ground state hydrogen occupies the lowest available energy level
  • The electron can jump to a higher energy level if it receives heat
  • Excited state is unstable so electron falls back to lower level and energy is emitted as photon
87
Q

Explain how the expression E2 - E1 = hf links the occurrence of the visible lines in the hydrogen spectrum to energy levels in a hydrogen atom.

A
  • E2 - E1: Energy difference between higher and lower level
  • f = frequency of line in spectrum
  • h is Plank’s constant, hf is a photon
  • Each line is produced due to electrons falling from a particular higher level to particular lower level
88
Q

Charle’s law

A

The volume of a fixed mass of gas, kept at constant pressure, is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.

89
Q

Charle’s law math eqn

A

V1/T1 = V2/T2

90
Q

Gay-Lussac’s Law

A

Gases always react with each other in simple whole number ratios when the volumes are measured at the same temperature and pressure.

91
Q

Avogadro’s Law

A

Equal volumes of gases measured under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules.

92
Q

The combined/general gas law

A

P₁V₁/T₁ = P₂V₂/T₂

93
Q

Eqn of state for an ideal gas

A

PV = nRT (R = 8.31)

94
Q

Give 3 assumptions of the kinetic theory of gases.

A
  • Collisions are elastic - no overall loss of energy
  • No attractive forces between the gas particles
  • Average kinetic energy is proportional to the absolute temperature
95
Q

Saturated

A

Contains only single bonds around carbon atoms.

96
Q

Unsaturated

A

Contains a multiple bond between two carbon atoms.

97
Q

Hydrocarbon

A

A compound that consists of the elements carbon and hydrogen.

98
Q

Aliphatic hydrocarbons

A

Straight or branched-chained hydrocarbon molecules.

99
Q

Aromatic hydrocarbons

A

Hydrocarbons that contain a benzene ‘ring’ in their structure.

100
Q

Homologous series

A

A group of compounds, all members of the group contain the same functional group and successive members differ by CH₂.

101
Q

Functional group

A

A group of atoms upon which the characteristic properties of a homologous series depends.

102
Q

Common name for ethyne

A

Acetylene

103
Q

Use of ethyne/acetylene

A

Cutting and welding metals

104
Q

Alkanes reaction type

A

Free radical substitutions

105
Q

Alkenes reaction type

A

Ionic addition reactions

106
Q

Alkynes reaction type

A

Addition reactions

107
Q

What is used in preference to benzene in the lab?

A

Methylbenzene

108
Q

Why is ethene a gas at r.t?

A

As it has 2 carbon atoms and C2-C4 are gases.

109
Q

Aromatic hydrocarbons uses - carcinogenic

A
  • Solvents in the paints industry

- Basis of pharmaceuticals, detergents, dyes and herbicides

110
Q

Chloroform IUPAC name

A

Trichlorometane

111
Q

Are tertiary alcohols easily oxidised?

A

NO

112
Q

Ethanol uses

A
  • Solvent
  • Sterilise
  • As an oxygenate
113
Q

What alcohols are soluble in water and why?

A

With smaller carbon chains as there is hydrogen bonding between the alcohol molecules.

114
Q

Aldehydes general formula

A

RCHO

115
Q

Ketones general formula

A

R₁COR₂

116
Q

Name the aromatic aldehyde that is found in almond oil of almond kernals

A

Benzaldehyde - C7H6O

117
Q

Propanone common name

A

Acetone

118
Q

Carboxylic acid general formula

A

RCOOH (carbonyl group C = O)

hydroxyl group C - OH

119
Q

Name the acid found in nettle stings**

A

Methanoic/formic acid

120
Q

Ethanoic acid uses

A

Used in varnishes and found in vinegar

121
Q

What’s used as a food preservative?

A
  • Propanoic acid

- Benzoic acid

122
Q

Esters general formula

A

R₁COOR₂ (R₂ cannot be hydrogen)

123
Q

Condensation reaction

A

Occurs when two different molecules combine to form a more complex molecule with the production of a smaller such as H₂O.

124
Q

Perfumes made from

A

Esters

125
Q

First ionisation energy

A

The minimum amount of energy required to remove the first most loosely bound electron from a mole of isolated atoms of an element in its neutral gaseous ground state.

126
Q

Ionisation down a group

A

Decrease

127
Q

Ionisation up a group

A

Increase

128
Q

The smaller the radius (distance from the nucleus)

A

The greater the energy

129
Q

Noble gases (ionisation energy)

A

Highest

130
Q

Alkali metals (ionisation energy)

A

Lowest

131
Q

Stability of sublevels

A
  • Full sublevel is most stable

- Half filled is the next most stable

132
Q

Equation for first ionisation energy

A

X(g) → X+(g) + e-

133
Q

Explain why there is an increase in ionisation energy values for the first eight ionisation energies in magnesium.

A
  • Increasing positive charge

- Decreasing radius

134
Q

Second ionisation energy

A

X+ → X²+(g) + e-

135
Q

Would it take more or less energy to remove the most loosely bound electron from an atom if that electron were not in its ground state? Explain

A

Less as it had already gained energy - further from nucleus.

136
Q

An element has a low ionisation energy value and a low electronegativity value. What does this information tell you about how reactive the element is likely to be, and what is likely to happen to the atoms of the element when they react?

A

Very reactive

- Would be oxidised

137
Q

What other experimental evidence do we have for the existence of energy levels in atoms?

A

The line emission spectrum

138
Q

Reforming

A

Involves changing straight chained hydrocarbons into branched chained hydrocarbons or cyclic hydrocarbons.

139
Q

Catalytic cracking

A

Involves changing long chained hydrocarbons for which there is low demand, into short chained hydrocarbons for which there is high demand.

140
Q

Auto-ignition

A

The early explosion of a petrol-air mixture caused by increasing pressure in the engine.

141
Q

Residue uses

A
  • Bitumen for road surfacing
  • Heavy industrial fuel
  • Used in catalytic cracking
142
Q

Kerosene uses

A

Fuel for planes and paraffin lamps/stoves

143
Q

Naptha uses

A

Petrol and feedstock for petrochemical industry

144
Q

Light gasoline uses

A

Motor fuel / petrol

145
Q

Gas uses

A
  • Refinery fuel

- Liquefied to form propane or butane gas (LPG)

146
Q

Gas oil and heavy gas oil

A
  • Diesel oil

- Lubricating oil for engines

147
Q

C1-C4

A

Gas

148
Q

C5-C10

A

Light gasoline

149
Q

C7-C10

A

Naptha

150
Q

C10-C14

A

Kerosene

151
Q

C14-C40

A

Gas oil and heavy gas oil

152
Q

C35 +

A

Residue

153
Q

Why are mercaptans added?

A

To give a smell to be able to detect leaks

154
Q

LPG makeup

A

Propane and butane

155
Q

2 reference hydrocarbons in organic chem, petrol

A

2,2,3 trimethylpentane and heptane

156
Q

Dehyrdrocyclisation

A

Involves the conversion of straight-chained hydrocarbons to form ring compounds.

157
Q

Isomerisation

A

Involves changing straight-chained hydrocarbons into branched-chained hydrocarbons.

158
Q

Why is lead in the form of tetraethyl lead added to petrol?

A

To allow the petrol to run smoothly.

159
Q

What is collected in the separating funnel (clove oil exp.)

A

Mixture of clove oil and water

160
Q

What is an emulsion?

A

Two immiscible liquids mixed without a boundary.

161
Q

Name a suitable organic solvent for use in the liquid-liquid extraction of clove oil?

A

Cyclohexane

162
Q

Identify the hydrocarbon gas produced by anaerobic bacterial decomposition of either waste or vegetation.

A

Methane

163
Q

Give a major use of methane.

A

Fuel

164
Q

What is the advantage of adding tetraethyllead to petrol?

A

To increase the octane number of the fuel

165
Q

Give one major use of ethene gas.

A

The manufacture of PVC

166
Q

How do the molecules of the naphtha fraction differ from the molecules of the gas oil fraction?

A

Naphtha has a shorter carbon chain.

167
Q

What two changes to the hydrocarbon molecules occur during dehydrocyclisation?

A
  • Removal of hydrogen

- Ring formation

168
Q

Give two reasons why oxygenates are added to petrol.

A
  • Raise octane number

- Less pollution

169
Q

Equation for the production of ethyne.

A

CAC₂ + 2H₂O → C₂H₂ + Ca(OH)₂

170
Q

Two impurities of calcium dicarbide

A

CaS and Ca3P₂

171
Q

Impurities in ethene gas collected

A

PH3 and H₂S

172
Q

LEARN DIAGRAM IN ORG 4! FRACTIONATION OF CRUDE OIL

A

DONEEE

173
Q

Ionic addition reaction

A

Occurs when two substances react together to form one main product.

174
Q

Chloroethene produces

A

PVC

175
Q

Ethene + water →

A

Ethanol

176
Q

Polymerisation reaction

A

A polymer is a very long chained molecule that is made when many thousands of small-chained molecules, called monomers, join together.

177
Q

Free radical substitution

A

Occurs when an atom or a group of atoms are replaced by another atom or group of atoms. There are two products.

178
Q

Mechanism of free radical substitution stages.

A
  1. Initiation
  2. Propagation
  3. Termination
179
Q

State one safety protection when separating the funnel. (Clove oil exp.)

A

Work in fume-cupboard

Chemistry exam questions (29 decks)

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