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EMC Cloud Infrastructure & Services > EMC Cloud Quizzes > Flashcards

EMC Cloud Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

What is a key benefit of virtualization technology?

A. Capacity planning

B. Flexible metering

C. Policy compliance

D. Rapid Elasticity

A

D. Rapid Elasticity

(Module 1 Quiz)

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2
Q

Which tool helps to create Cloud services?

A. Service management tool

B. Service creation tool

C. Service monitoring tool

D. Service planning tool

A

A. Service management tool

(Module 1 Quiz)

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3
Q

Which technique enables making physical resources appear as logical resources?

A. Grid computing

B. Utility computing

C. Virtualization

D. Self-provisioning

A

C. Virtualization

(Module 1 Quiz)

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4
Q

Which is an essential characteristic of the Cloud?

A. Resource utilization

B. Resource pooling

C. Resource planning

D. Resource reservation

A

B. Resource pooling

(Module 1 Quiz)

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5
Q

Which is a key step in building a Cloud infrastructure?

A. Centralize services and resources

B. Automate resource classification

C. Automate service provisioning

D. Customize services and resources

A

C. Automate service provisioning

(Module 1 Quiz)

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6
Q

Which is a benefit of RAID?

A. Ensures data integrity in a RAID set.

B. Prevents disk failure in a RAID set.

C. Improves storage system performance.

D. Simplifies distribution of parity

A

C. Improves storage system performance.

(Module 2 Quiz)

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7
Q

Which statement is true about FC SAN?a. Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS.b. Has limited ability to share resources.c. Enables object level access to data.d. Supports a maximum of 256 nodes.

A. Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS.

B. Has limited ability to share resources.

C. Enables object level access to data.

D. Supports a maximum of 256 nodes.

A

A. Provides higher scalability as compared to DAS.

(Module 2 Quiz)

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8
Q

Which key requirement of a data center refers to the ability of IT to support new business initiatives dynamically?

A. Manageability

B. Availability

C. Capacity

D. Flexibility

A

D. Flexibility

(Module 2 Quiz)

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9
Q

Which are the key parameters that determine the performance and availability of a RAID set?

A. Number of drives in a RAID set and RAID level

B. Number of drives in a RAID set and the capacity of each drive

C. Number of RAID controllers and type of RAID implementation

D. Number of drives in a RAID set and type of RAID implementation

A

A. Number of drives in a RAID set and RAID level

(Module 2 Quiz)

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10
Q

Which key requirement of a data center is violated when an authorized storage administrator is not able to remotely login to a server in the data center?

A. Scalability

B. Flexibility

C. Security

D. Availability

A

D. Availability

(Module 2 Quiz)

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11
Q

What is stored in a VM log file?

A. Information of the VM’s activities

B. VM’s RAM contents

C. VM’s BIOS information

D. Information of the VM’s configuration

A

A. Information of the VM’s activities

(Module 3 Quiz)

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12
Q

Which parameter determines the maximum amount of resource that a VM can consume?

A. Share

B. Limit

C. Reservation

D. Priority

A

B. Limit

(Module 3 Quiz)

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13
Q

Which technology enables a physical CPU to appear as two or more logical CPUs?

A. Hyper-threading

B. Multi-core

C. Load balancing

D. Ballooning

A

A. Hyper-threading

(Module 3 Quiz)

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14
Q

Which VMFS feature ensures that a VM is not powered on by multiple compute systems at the same time?

A. On-power lock

B. On-VM lock

C. On-disk lock

D. On-compute lock

A

C. On-disk lock

(Module 3 Quiz)

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15
Q

Which is the primary function of a hypervisor?

A. Allows multiple OSs to run concurrently on a physical machine.

B. Allows multiple OSs to run concurrently on a VM.

C. Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently on a VM.

D. Allows authorization to VM resources to users.

A

A. Allows multiple OSs to run concurrently on a physical machine.

(Module 3 Quiz)

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16
Q

Which method enables a VM to directly access a LUN on a storage array?

A. File system locking

B. VM clustering

C. Raw device mapping

D. Virtual storage mapping

A

C. Raw device mappingModule 4 Quiz

(Module 4 Quiz)

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17
Q

What are the three major building blocks of automated storage tiering?

A. RAID type, storage type, policies

B. Storage type, storage group, policies

C. Storage group, RAID group, storage type

D. Storage group, RAID group, group policy

A

B. Storage type, storage group, policies

(Module 4 Quiz)

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18
Q

What is used to create secondary cache in a cache tiering mechanism?

A. DRAM

B. FC drive

C. Solid state drive

D. SATA drive

A

C. Solid state drive

(Module 4 Quiz)

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19
Q

When is a thin LUN preferred over a traditional LUN?

A. Performance is predominant

B. Security is more important

C. Storage space efficiency is paramount

D. High availability is predominant

A

C. Storage space efficiency is paramount

(Module 4 Quiz)

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20
Q

What defines the minimum amount of physical storage allocated at a time to a thin LUN from a thin pool?

A. Thin LUN extent

B. Thin LUN capacity

C. Thin LUN factor

D. Thin LUN set size

A

A. Thin LUN extent

(Module 4 Quiz)

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21
Q

Which is a benefit of network virtualization?

A. Enhanced storm control

B. Increased resource acquisition

C. Improved manageability

D. Better policy control

A

C. Improved manageability

(Module 5 Quiz)

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22
Q

Which network parameter sets maximum data transfer rate across a VM port group without queuing or dropping frames?

A. Burst size

B. Peak bandwidth

C. Share

D. Limit

A

B. Peak bandwidth

(Module 5 Quiz)

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23
Q

Which technique allows traffic from multiple VLANs to traverse over a single network connection?

A. NIC teaming

B. Multipathing

C. Port Group

D. Trunking

A

D. Trunking

(Module 5 Quiz)

24
Q

What is enabled by using NIC teaming?

A. Balance traffic across physical servers.

B. Allocate bandwidth to traffic based on priority.

C. Failover to another available physical NIC in the event of a physical NIC failure.

D. Transfer data to a LUN on a FC storage system using multiple network links.

A

C. Failover to another available physical NIC in the event of a physical NIC failure.

(Module 5 Quiz)

25
Q

Which correctly describes N_Port ID Virtualization technology?

A. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual N_ports

B. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual E_ports

C. Single virtual FC HBA port functions as multiple physical N_ports

D. Single virtual FC HBA port functions as multiple physical E_ports

A

A. Single physical FC HBA port functions as multiple virtual N_ports

(Module 5 Quiz)

26
Q

What correctly describes application virtualization?

A. Encapsulates OS resources and the application.

B. Increases application and CPU utilization.

C. Provides interoperability between different application versions.

D. Breaks dependencies between application interface and processing logic.

A

A. Encapsulates OS resources and the application.

(Module 6 Quiz)

27
Q

What is true about application encapsulation?

A. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine.

B. Requires a built-in agent at the remote server.

C. Does not rely on software installation or underlying OS.

D. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine and a built-in agent.

A

C. Does not rely on software installation or underlying OS.

(Module 6 Quiz)

28
Q

What is true about application streaming?

A. Requires no agent at client machine.

B. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine and a built-in agent on the application.

C. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine.

D. All the data is delivered to the client after application starts.

A

C. Requires a locally installed agent on the client machine.

(Module 6 Quiz)

29
Q

When is a connection broker a mandatory component of VDI architecture?

A. When desktop VMs are assigned from VM pool.

B. When high-end graphic applications are used

C. When additional security is required.

D. When a dedicated desktop VM is assigned to each user.

A

A. When desktop VMs are assigned from VM pool.Generally speaking, a connection broker would be needed with VM pools.

(Module 6 Quiz)

30
Q

What is true about virtual desktop Infrastructure (VDI)?

A. Involves hosting desktop which runs as hypervisor on the server.

B. Requires hypervisor based VDI agent support.

C. Each desktop has its own OS and applications in a VM on server.

D. Each desktop has its own OS and applications installed on a client machine

A

D. Each desktop has its own OS and applications installed on a client machine (trick question - the “client machine” is the VM)

(Module 6 Quiz)

31
Q

What is an advantage of an image based backup approach?

A. Single pass information collection

B. Reduced RPO

C. Eliminate site failures

D. Reduced VM failures

A

A. Single pass information collection

(Module 7 Quiz)

32
Q

Which is true about VM fault tolerance mechanism?

A. Both primary and secondary VMs share the same virtual disks.

B. Both primary and secondary VMs have separate virtual disks.

C. Only primary VM can access the shared virtual disk.

D. Only secondary VM can access the shared virtual disk

A

A. Both primary and secondary VMs share the same virtual disks.

(Module 7 Quiz)

33
Q

What occurs to the guest OS configuration when a VM is reverted from it snapshot?

A. Guest OS configurations are reverted to the point-in-time of snapshot creation.

B. Current guest OS configurations are preserved.

C. Reference VM settings are used to configure guest OS.

D. Settings are lost and need manual configuration.

A

A. Guest OS configurations are reverted to the point-in-time of snapshot creation.

(Module 7 Quiz)

34
Q

What correctly describes the state of virtual disks of a VM after an array to array migration is performed.

A. Virtual disks are maintained at both primary and secondary sites.

B. Virtual disks are only maintained at the primary site.

C. Virtual disks are deleted from the primary site after they are copied to the secondary site.

D. Virtual disks are deleted from both primary and secondary sites.

A

C. Virtual disks are deleted from the primary site after they are copied to the secondary site.

(Module 7 Quiz)

35
Q

Which is used as a master copy to create and provision a new VM?

A. VM template

B. VM snapshot

C. VM clone

D. VM backup

A

A. VM Template

(Module 7 Quiz)

36
Q

Which resource may be hired in infrastructure-as-a-service model?

A. OS

B. Storage Space

C. Middleware

D. Database

A

B. Storage space

(Module 8 Quiz)

37
Q

Which is an example of platform-as-a-service?

A. EMC Atmos online

B. Salesforce.com

C. Google App engine

D. EMC Mozy

A

C. Google App engine

(Module 8 Quiz)

38
Q

Which is an example of infrastructure-as-a-service offering?

A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud

B. Google App Engine

C. Salesforce.com

D. EMC Mozy

A

A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud

(Module 8 Quiz)

39
Q

Which is an example of software-as-a-service offering?

A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud

B. Google App Engine

C. Microsoft Azure

D. EMC Mozy

A

D. EMC Mozy

(Module 8 Quiz)

40
Q

Which is the Cloud deployment model that will be a suitable choice for a group of organizations with shared concerns?

A. Private Cloud

B. Hybrid Cloud

C. Public Cloud

D. Community Cloud

A

D. Community Cloud

(Module 8 Quiz)

41
Q

Which is a component of virtual infrastructure in a Cloud?

A. Management software

B. Storage array

C. Network identity pool

D. Service catalog

A

C. Network identity pool

(Module 9 Quiz)

42
Q

Which option best describes ‘resource bundling’ in Cloud service creation procedures?

A. Bundling application, platform software, and migration tools.

B. Integrating VM, virtual network and virtual volume.

C. Bundling graded compute, network, and application services.

D. Integrating graded compute, network, and storage pools.

A

D. Integrating graded compute, network, and storage pools.

(Module 9 Quiz)

43
Q

Which is a key activity in problem management?

A. Rectifying error to return Cloud services as quickly as possible.

B. Analyzing incident history to identify impending service failures.

C. Checking veracity of problem records in CMDB.

D. Transferring problem history to incident management.

A

B. Analyzing incident history to identify impending service failures.

(Module 9 Quiz)

44
Q

Which Cloud service management process is responsible for optimizing utilization of IT resources?

A. Service asset and configuration management

B. Financial management

C. Compliance management

D. Capacity management

A

D. Capacity management

(Module 9 Quiz)

45
Q

Which functionality is offered by unified management software in the Cloud?

A. Provides consolidated view of existing physical and virtual infrastructure across data centers.

B. Create VMs and allocate them CPU, memory and storage capacity.

C. Create zone sets and include nodes into zones.

D. Create VMs and allocate them specified resources.

A

A. Provides consolidated view of existing physical and virtual infrastructure across data centers.

(Module 9 Quiz)

46
Q

Which security mechanism provides an effective control for data confidentiality and integrity?

A. Copy and move restrictions

B. Authorization

C. Trusted computing base

D. Encryption

A

D. Encryption

(Module 10 Quiz)

47
Q

What is the primary goal of a security audit?

A. Evaluate effectiveness of security enforcement.

B. Evaluate effectiveness of data confidentiality.

C. Evaluate effectiveness of data integrity.

D. Evaluate effectiveness of data availability.

A

A. Evaluate effectiveness of security enforcement.

(Module 10 Quiz)

48
Q

Which security goal is achieved by data shredding techniques?

A. Preventing data loss

B. Preventing data manipulation

C. Ensuring data confidentiality

D. Enabling data encryption

A

C. Ensuring data confidentiality

(Module 10 Quiz)

49
Q

Which GRC process determines scope of adoption of Cloud services?

A. Anti-virus protection measures in Cloud

B. Business continuity

C. Risk assessment

D. Disaster management

A

C. Risk assessment

(Module 10 Quiz)

50
Q

How is intrusion detection implemented under software-as-a-service model?

A. Implemented by the Cloud Consumer

B. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider

C. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider and Consumer together

D. Implemented by a 3rd party provider

A

B. Implemented by the Cloud Service Provider

(Module 10 Quiz)

51
Q

Which Cloud model is best suited for small and medium businesses?

A. Public

B. Private

C. Hybrid

D. Community

A

C. Hybrid

(Module 11 Quiz)

52
Q

Which Cloud adoption phase enables the consumer to explore the geographic location to store their data?

A. Assessment

B. Proof of concept

C. Migration

D. Optimization

A

A. Assessment

(Module 11 Quiz)

53
Q

Which Cloud migration strategy is recommended for tightly coupled applications?

A. Hybrid

B. Forklift

C. Private

D. Public

A

B. Forklift

(Module 11 Quiz)

54
Q

Which application is perceived as a good candidate for migrating to the public Cloud?

A. Proprietary and mission-critical application

B. Non-proprietary and non-mission critical application

C. Mission critical and I/O intensive application

D. Mission critical and security sensitive application

A

B. Non-proprietary and non-mission critical application

(Module 11 Quiz)

55
Q

What factor could lead to Cloud vendor lock-in for consumers?

A. Lack of open standards in Cloud operations

B. Lack of security compliance

C. Mission critical nature of the applications

D. Performance sensitivity of the business operations

A

A. Lack of open standards in Cloud operations

(Module 11 Quiz)

EMC Cloud Infrastructure & Services (8 decks)

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