Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Maternity > Embryology, Fetal Development, Genetics > Flashcards

Embryology, Fetal Development, Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

What does the study of embryology primarily focus on?

A) The structure of adult human anatomy
B) The development of human beings from conception to birth
C) The process of mitosis and meiosis in adult cells
D) The function of reproductive organs in humans

A

Answer: B) The development of human beings from conception to birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which term describes the combination of an egg and sperm cell?

A) Embryo
B) Zygote
C) Fetus
D) Conceptus

A

Answer: B) Zygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the main purpose of meiosis in human reproduction?

A) To create diploid cells that replace damaged cells
B) To divide somatic cells for body growth and repair
C) To produce haploid gametes (sperm and oocytes) with 23 chromosomes each
D) To replicate identical genetic material for growth

A

Answer: C) To produce haploid gametes (sperm and oocytes) with 23 chromosomes each

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In spermatogenesis, what is the final result of one spermatogonium undergoing meiotic division?

A) Two secondary spermatocytes
B) Four spermatozoa (sperm cells)
C) One mature sperm cell and three polar bodies
D) Two haploid oocytes

A

Answer: B) Four spermatozoa (sperm cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following occurs only if the secondary oocyte is fertilized?

A) First meiotic division
B) Development into an ovum
C) Second meiotic division
D) Formation of oogonia

A

Answer: C) Second meiotic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis in that:

A) It begins in puberty and continues throughout life
B) It results in four viable egg cells per meiotic division
C) It begins during embryonic development and halts until puberty
D) It produces diploid cells instead of haploid cells

A

Answer: C) It begins during embryonic development and halts until puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the purpose of the zona reaction during fertilization?

A) To transport the sperm to the ovum
B) To prevent multiple sperm from entering the ovum
C) To activate the corpus luteum
D) To release mitochondria from the sperm’s tail

A

Answer: B) To prevent multiple sperm from entering the ovum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where does fertilization typically occur in the female reproductive system?

A) The corpus luteum
B) The fimbria of the uterine tube
C) The ampulla (outer third) of the uterine tube
D) The zona pellucida

A

Answer: C) The ampulla (outer third) of the uterine tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What stage does the developing embryo reach around Day 4, shortly before implantation?

A) Morula
B) Zygote
C) Blastocyst
D) Embryoblast

A

Answer: A) Morula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where does the blastocyst typically implant in the uterus?

A) In the cervix
B) In the endometrium, usually in the fundus
C) In the fallopian tube
D) Near the ovaries

A

Answer: B) In the endometrium, usually in the fundus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which layer of the blastocyst will develop into the embryo, umbilical cord, and amnion?

A) Trophoblast
B) Chorion
C) Embryoblast
D) Morula

A

Answer: C) Embryoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chorionic villi serve what main function during early development?

A) Link to maternal blood supply and excrete waste
B) Form the amniotic membrane
C) Act as the embryo’s primary nutrient source
D) Develop into the embryo and amnion

A

Answer: A) Link to maternal blood supply and excrete waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The three germ layers of the early embryo are:

A) Embryoblast, trophoblast, and chorion
B) Amnion, chorion, and trophoblast
C) Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm
D) Blastocyst, trophoblast, and amnion
A

Answer: C) Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The placenta’s primary function is to:

A) Act as an immune barrier and endocrine organ, and facilitate waste exchange
B) Produce blood for the fetus
C) Form the germ layers of the embryo
D) Protect the fetus from mechanical injury
A

Answer: A) Act as an immune barrier and endocrine organ, and facilitate waste exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which statement about the placenta is true?

A) The maternal side is shiny and smooth, while the fetal side is rough.
B) The fetal side is shiny and smooth, while the maternal side is rough and convoluted.
C) Both sides of the placenta are red and smooth.
D) The maternal side has less blood than the fetal side.
A

Answer: B) The fetal side is shiny and smooth, while the maternal side is rough and convoluted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How much blood does the placenta typically contain at term?

A) 500 mL
B) 1000 mL
C) 1500 mL
D) 2000 mL
A

Answer: A) 500 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Amniotic fluid is important for all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Providing nutrients for the embryo’s growth
B) Cushioning the fetus
C) Maintaining constant temperature
D) Supporting fetal lung development
A

Answer: A) Providing nutrients for the embryo’s grow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two fetal membranes, and which develops from the trophoblast?

A) Chorion and amnion; amnion develops from the trophoblast
B) Chorion and amnion; chorion develops from the trophoblast
C) Placenta and chorion; placenta develops from the trophoblast
D) Amnion and yolk sac; yolk sac develops from the trophoblast
A

Answer: B) Chorion and amnion; chorion develops from the trophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What substance covers the umbilical cord and helps protect it?

A) Vernix
B) Lanugo
C) Wharton’s jelly
D) Amniotic fluid
A

Answer: C) Wharton’s jelly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When does the fetal heart typically start beating, and at what rate?

A) Around week 3, at 110-160 BPM
B) Around week 5, at 90-100 BPM
C) At birth, at 120 BPM
D) Around week 2, at 80 BPM
A

Answer: A) Around week 3, at 110-160 BPM

21
Q

During which gestational period is the embryo most at risk for teratogenic effects?

A) 0-4 weeks
B) 5-8 weeks
C) 9-12 weeks
D) After 12 weeks
A

Answer: B) 5-8 weeks

22
Q

The umbilical cord contains which of the following?

A) Two veins and one artery
B) Three veins
C) Two arteries and one vein
D) One artery and one vein
A

Answer: C) Two arteries and one vein

23
Q

Which of the following statements about dizygotic (fraternal) twins is correct?

A) They are always monochorionic-monoamniotic.
B) They are dichorionic-diamniotic.
C) They always share a single amnion.
D) They are genetically identical.
A

Answer: B) They are dichorionic-diamniotic.

24
Q

What is the primary criterion for fetal viability?

A) The development of the renal system
B) The fetus’s ability to respond to sound
C) The maturity of organ systems, particularly the lungs
D) The establishment of maternal IgG antibodies
A

Answer: C) The maturity of organ systems, particularly the lungs

25
Q

What are the key features of Down Syndrome, also known as Trisomy 21?

A) Low-set ears, single palmar crease, hypotonia, and Brushfield spots in eyes
B) Enlarged liver, high-set ears, increased muscle tone, and long fingers
C) Three copies of chromosome 18, high-set ears, hypotonia
D) Normal number of chromosomes, but with growth delays
A

Answer: A) Low-set ears, single palmar crease, hypotonia, and Brushfield spots in eyes

26
Q

At which point in fetal development do primary surfactants become sufficient for lung function?

A) Week 20
B) Week 24
C) Week 28
D) Week 32
A

Answer: D) Week 32

27
Q

When does insulin production typically begin in the developing fetus?

A) Around 8 weeks
B) Around 12 weeks
C) Around 20 weeks
D) Around 28 weeks
A

Answer: C) Around 20 weeks

28
Q

Which of the following is true regarding monozygotic (identical) twins?

A) They are always dichorionic-diamniotic.
B) They are genetically different.
C) They can be monochorionic-monoamniotic or monochorionic-diamniotic.
D) They have different DNA from one another.
A

Answer: C) They can be monochorionic-monoamniotic or monochorionic-diamniotic.

29
Q

What does “translocation” refer to in the context of chromosomal abnormalities?

A) A segment of a chromosome is deleted
B) A segment of a chromosome is inverted
C) Chromosomal material is exchanged between chromosomes
D) Chromosomal material is duplicated
A

Answer: C) Chromosomal material is exchanged between chromosomes

30
Q

In an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, how many copies of a mutant gene are needed for the trait to be expressed?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) None; it is always expressed
A

Answer: B) Two

31
Q

Which of the following is an example of a multifactorial inheritance condition?

A) Marfan’s Syndrome
B) Sickle Cell Disease
C) Cleft Lip
D) Hemophilia
A

Answer: C) Cleft Lip

32
Q

Which genetic test is most effective for screening neural tube defects (NTDs)?

A) Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP)
B) Fetal Nuchal Translucency (FNT)
C) Cell-free DNA (NIPT)
D) Chorionic Villus Sampling
A

Answer: A) Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP)

33
Q

Which diagnostic test involves obtaining a sample from the chorionic villus to analyze fetal DNA?

A) Amniocentesis
B) Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)
C) Nuchal Translucency Test
D) Triple Screening
A

Answer: B) Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)

34
Q

What is the primary risk associated with chorionic villus sampling (CVS)?

A) High rate of false positives
B) Miscarriage or pregnancy loss
C) Inaccurate sex determination
D) Delayed results
A

Answer: B) Miscarriage or pregnancy loss

35
Q

When is the triple or quad screening typically performed?

A) 3 days after fertilization
B) Between weeks 10-14
C) Between weeks 15-18
D) Between weeks 20-25
A

Answer: C) Between weeks 15-18

36
Q

Which test measures the thickness of the fetal neck fold and is associated with genetic disorders?

A) Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)
B) Amniocentesis
C) Fetal Nuchal Translucency (FNT)
D) Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP)
A

Answer: C) Fetal Nuchal Translucency (FNT)

37
Q

For which of the following situations would genetic testing be recommended?

A) Maternal age under 30
B) No history of congenital conditions in the family
C) Abnormal quad screening or ultrasound results
D) Absence of previous pregnancy losses
A

Answer: C) Abnormal quad screening or ultrasound results

38
Q

What is a key nursing care consideration when discussing genetic testing with families?

A) Only focus on the technical aspects of the tests
B) Provide referrals only if the family requests them
C) Tailor information based on the family’s culture, knowledge, and literacy level
D) Avoid discussing potential outcomes of genetic tests
A

Answer: C) Tailor information based on the family’s culture, knowledge, and literacy level

39
Q

Which type of twins result from the fertilization of two separate eggs by two separate sperm?

A) Monozygotic twins
B) Conjoined twins
C) Dizygotic twins
D) Monochorionic twins
A

Answer: C) Dizygotic twins

40
Q

Dizygotic (fraternal) twins are typically characterized by which of the following?

A) Sharing a single amniotic sac
B) Always having separate placentas and amniotic sacs (dichorionic-diamniotic)
C) Being genetically identical
D) Always sharing one placenta
A

Answer: B) Always having separate placentas and amniotic sacs (dichorionic-diamniotic)

41
Q

Monozygotic twins are formed from:

A) The fertilization of two different eggs
B) The division of a single fertilized egg
C) Separate fertilization events with identical outcomes
D) Genetic manipulation after fertilization
A

Answer: B) The division of a single fertilized egg

42
Q

Which type of monozygotic twin arrangement involves twins sharing both a placenta and an amniotic sac?

A) Dichorionic-diamniotic
B) Monochorionic-diamniotic
C) Monochorionic-monoamniotic
D) Dichorionic-monoamniotic
A

Answer: C) Monochorionic-monoamniotic

43
Q

What is the most common arrangement for monozygotic twins in terms of chorionic and amniotic structure?

A) Dichorionic-diamniotic
B) Monochorionic-monoamniotic
C) Monochorionic-diamniotic
D) Conjoined
A

Answer: C) Monochorionic-diamniotic

44
Q

Which statement best describes a dichorionic-diamniotic twin pregnancy?

A) It involves twins that share one placenta and two amniotic sacs.
B) It involves twins that share both the placenta and the amniotic sac.
C) It is possible in both monozygotic and dizygotic twin pregnancies.
D) It is only possible in monozygotic twin pregnancies.
A

Answer: C) It is possible in both monozygotic and dizygotic twin pregnancies.

45
Q

In which type of twin pregnancy do the twins share a placenta but have separate amniotic sacs?

A) Dichorionic-diamniotic
B) Monochorionic-diamniotic
C) Monochorionic-monoamniotic
D) Dichorionic-monoamniotic
A

Answer: B) Monochorionic-diamniotic

46
Q

What is a key difference between monozygotic and dizygotic twins in terms of their genetic makeup?

A) Monozygotic twins are genetically different, while dizygotic twins are genetically identical.
B) Monozygotic twins are genetically identical, while dizygotic twins are not.
C) Both monozygotic and dizygotic twins are always genetically identical.
D) Monozygotic twins are not always identical in appearance.
A

Answer: B) Monozygotic twins are genetically identical, while dizygotic twins are not.

47
Q

Which twin arrangement has the highest risk of complications due to sharing both the placenta and amniotic sac?

A) Dichorionic-diamniotic
B) Monochorionic-diamniotic
C) Monochorionic-monoamniotic
D) Monochorionic-triamniotic
A

Answer: C) Monochorionic-monoamniotic

48
Q

Which of the following describes the potential for conjoined twins in monozygotic twin pregnancies?

A) The twins separate completely, resulting in two identical individuals.
B) A single embryo splits later in development, resulting in incomplete separation.
C) Conjoined twins always result from dizygotic pregnancies.
D) Conjoined twins must have separate placentas and amniotic sacs.
A

Answer: B) A single embryo splits later in development, resulting in incomplete separation.

Maternity (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions