Embryology, Fetal Development, Genetics Flashcards
What does the study of embryology primarily focus on?
A) The structure of adult human anatomy
B) The development of human beings from conception to birth
C) The process of mitosis and meiosis in adult cells
D) The function of reproductive organs in humans
Answer: B) The development of human beings from conception to birth
Which term describes the combination of an egg and sperm cell?
A) Embryo
B) Zygote
C) Fetus
D) Conceptus
Answer: B) Zygote
What is the main purpose of meiosis in human reproduction?
A) To create diploid cells that replace damaged cells
B) To divide somatic cells for body growth and repair
C) To produce haploid gametes (sperm and oocytes) with 23 chromosomes each
D) To replicate identical genetic material for growth
Answer: C) To produce haploid gametes (sperm and oocytes) with 23 chromosomes each
In spermatogenesis, what is the final result of one spermatogonium undergoing meiotic division?
A) Two secondary spermatocytes
B) Four spermatozoa (sperm cells)
C) One mature sperm cell and three polar bodies
D) Two haploid oocytes
Answer: B) Four spermatozoa (sperm cells)
Which of the following occurs only if the secondary oocyte is fertilized?
A) First meiotic division
B) Development into an ovum
C) Second meiotic division
D) Formation of oogonia
Answer: C) Second meiotic division
Oogenesis differs from spermatogenesis in that:
A) It begins in puberty and continues throughout life
B) It results in four viable egg cells per meiotic division
C) It begins during embryonic development and halts until puberty
D) It produces diploid cells instead of haploid cells
Answer: C) It begins during embryonic development and halts until puberty
What is the purpose of the zona reaction during fertilization?
A) To transport the sperm to the ovum
B) To prevent multiple sperm from entering the ovum
C) To activate the corpus luteum
D) To release mitochondria from the sperm’s tail
Answer: B) To prevent multiple sperm from entering the ovum
Where does fertilization typically occur in the female reproductive system?
A) The corpus luteum
B) The fimbria of the uterine tube
C) The ampulla (outer third) of the uterine tube
D) The zona pellucida
Answer: C) The ampulla (outer third) of the uterine tube
What stage does the developing embryo reach around Day 4, shortly before implantation?
A) Morula
B) Zygote
C) Blastocyst
D) Embryoblast
Answer: A) Morula
Where does the blastocyst typically implant in the uterus?
A) In the cervix
B) In the endometrium, usually in the fundus
C) In the fallopian tube
D) Near the ovaries
Answer: B) In the endometrium, usually in the fundus
Which layer of the blastocyst will develop into the embryo, umbilical cord, and amnion?
A) Trophoblast
B) Chorion
C) Embryoblast
D) Morula
Answer: C) Embryoblast
Chorionic villi serve what main function during early development?
A) Link to maternal blood supply and excrete waste
B) Form the amniotic membrane
C) Act as the embryo’s primary nutrient source
D) Develop into the embryo and amnion
Answer: A) Link to maternal blood supply and excrete waste
The three germ layers of the early embryo are:
A) Embryoblast, trophoblast, and chorion B) Amnion, chorion, and trophoblast C) Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm D) Blastocyst, trophoblast, and amnion
Answer: C) Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm
The placenta’s primary function is to:
A) Act as an immune barrier and endocrine organ, and facilitate waste exchange B) Produce blood for the fetus C) Form the germ layers of the embryo D) Protect the fetus from mechanical injury
Answer: A) Act as an immune barrier and endocrine organ, and facilitate waste exchange
Which statement about the placenta is true?
A) The maternal side is shiny and smooth, while the fetal side is rough. B) The fetal side is shiny and smooth, while the maternal side is rough and convoluted. C) Both sides of the placenta are red and smooth. D) The maternal side has less blood than the fetal side.
Answer: B) The fetal side is shiny and smooth, while the maternal side is rough and convoluted.
How much blood does the placenta typically contain at term?
A) 500 mL B) 1000 mL C) 1500 mL D) 2000 mL
Answer: A) 500 mL
Amniotic fluid is important for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Providing nutrients for the embryo’s growth B) Cushioning the fetus C) Maintaining constant temperature D) Supporting fetal lung development
Answer: A) Providing nutrients for the embryo’s grow
What are the two fetal membranes, and which develops from the trophoblast?
A) Chorion and amnion; amnion develops from the trophoblast B) Chorion and amnion; chorion develops from the trophoblast C) Placenta and chorion; placenta develops from the trophoblast D) Amnion and yolk sac; yolk sac develops from the trophoblast
Answer: B) Chorion and amnion; chorion develops from the trophoblast
What substance covers the umbilical cord and helps protect it?
A) Vernix B) Lanugo C) Wharton’s jelly D) Amniotic fluid
Answer: C) Wharton’s jelly
When does the fetal heart typically start beating, and at what rate?
A) Around week 3, at 110-160 BPM B) Around week 5, at 90-100 BPM C) At birth, at 120 BPM D) Around week 2, at 80 BPM
Answer: A) Around week 3, at 110-160 BPM
During which gestational period is the embryo most at risk for teratogenic effects?
A) 0-4 weeks B) 5-8 weeks C) 9-12 weeks D) After 12 weeks
Answer: B) 5-8 weeks
The umbilical cord contains which of the following?
A) Two veins and one artery B) Three veins C) Two arteries and one vein D) One artery and one vein
Answer: C) Two arteries and one vein
Which of the following statements about dizygotic (fraternal) twins is correct?
A) They are always monochorionic-monoamniotic. B) They are dichorionic-diamniotic. C) They always share a single amnion. D) They are genetically identical.
Answer: B) They are dichorionic-diamniotic.
What is the primary criterion for fetal viability?
A) The development of the renal system B) The fetus’s ability to respond to sound C) The maturity of organ systems, particularly the lungs D) The establishment of maternal IgG antibodies
Answer: C) The maturity of organ systems, particularly the lungs
What are the key features of Down Syndrome, also known as Trisomy 21?
A) Low-set ears, single palmar crease, hypotonia, and Brushfield spots in eyes B) Enlarged liver, high-set ears, increased muscle tone, and long fingers C) Three copies of chromosome 18, high-set ears, hypotonia D) Normal number of chromosomes, but with growth delays
Answer: A) Low-set ears, single palmar crease, hypotonia, and Brushfield spots in eyes
At which point in fetal development do primary surfactants become sufficient for lung function?
A) Week 20 B) Week 24 C) Week 28 D) Week 32
Answer: D) Week 32
When does insulin production typically begin in the developing fetus?
A) Around 8 weeks B) Around 12 weeks C) Around 20 weeks D) Around 28 weeks
Answer: C) Around 20 weeks
Which of the following is true regarding monozygotic (identical) twins?
A) They are always dichorionic-diamniotic. B) They are genetically different. C) They can be monochorionic-monoamniotic or monochorionic-diamniotic. D) They have different DNA from one another.
Answer: C) They can be monochorionic-monoamniotic or monochorionic-diamniotic.
What does “translocation” refer to in the context of chromosomal abnormalities?
A) A segment of a chromosome is deleted B) A segment of a chromosome is inverted C) Chromosomal material is exchanged between chromosomes D) Chromosomal material is duplicated
Answer: C) Chromosomal material is exchanged between chromosomes
In an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, how many copies of a mutant gene are needed for the trait to be expressed?
A) One B) Two C) Three D) None; it is always expressed
Answer: B) Two
Which of the following is an example of a multifactorial inheritance condition?
A) Marfan’s Syndrome B) Sickle Cell Disease C) Cleft Lip D) Hemophilia
Answer: C) Cleft Lip
Which genetic test is most effective for screening neural tube defects (NTDs)?
A) Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP) B) Fetal Nuchal Translucency (FNT) C) Cell-free DNA (NIPT) D) Chorionic Villus Sampling
Answer: A) Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP)
Which diagnostic test involves obtaining a sample from the chorionic villus to analyze fetal DNA?
A) Amniocentesis B) Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) C) Nuchal Translucency Test D) Triple Screening
Answer: B) Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)
What is the primary risk associated with chorionic villus sampling (CVS)?
A) High rate of false positives B) Miscarriage or pregnancy loss C) Inaccurate sex determination D) Delayed results
Answer: B) Miscarriage or pregnancy loss
When is the triple or quad screening typically performed?
A) 3 days after fertilization B) Between weeks 10-14 C) Between weeks 15-18 D) Between weeks 20-25
Answer: C) Between weeks 15-18
Which test measures the thickness of the fetal neck fold and is associated with genetic disorders?
A) Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) B) Amniocentesis C) Fetal Nuchal Translucency (FNT) D) Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP)
Answer: C) Fetal Nuchal Translucency (FNT)
For which of the following situations would genetic testing be recommended?
A) Maternal age under 30 B) No history of congenital conditions in the family C) Abnormal quad screening or ultrasound results D) Absence of previous pregnancy losses
Answer: C) Abnormal quad screening or ultrasound results
What is a key nursing care consideration when discussing genetic testing with families?
A) Only focus on the technical aspects of the tests B) Provide referrals only if the family requests them C) Tailor information based on the family’s culture, knowledge, and literacy level D) Avoid discussing potential outcomes of genetic tests
Answer: C) Tailor information based on the family’s culture, knowledge, and literacy level
Which type of twins result from the fertilization of two separate eggs by two separate sperm?
A) Monozygotic twins B) Conjoined twins C) Dizygotic twins D) Monochorionic twins
Answer: C) Dizygotic twins
Dizygotic (fraternal) twins are typically characterized by which of the following?
A) Sharing a single amniotic sac B) Always having separate placentas and amniotic sacs (dichorionic-diamniotic) C) Being genetically identical D) Always sharing one placenta
Answer: B) Always having separate placentas and amniotic sacs (dichorionic-diamniotic)
Monozygotic twins are formed from:
A) The fertilization of two different eggs B) The division of a single fertilized egg C) Separate fertilization events with identical outcomes D) Genetic manipulation after fertilization
Answer: B) The division of a single fertilized egg
Which type of monozygotic twin arrangement involves twins sharing both a placenta and an amniotic sac?
A) Dichorionic-diamniotic B) Monochorionic-diamniotic C) Monochorionic-monoamniotic D) Dichorionic-monoamniotic
Answer: C) Monochorionic-monoamniotic
What is the most common arrangement for monozygotic twins in terms of chorionic and amniotic structure?
A) Dichorionic-diamniotic B) Monochorionic-monoamniotic C) Monochorionic-diamniotic D) Conjoined
Answer: C) Monochorionic-diamniotic
Which statement best describes a dichorionic-diamniotic twin pregnancy?
A) It involves twins that share one placenta and two amniotic sacs. B) It involves twins that share both the placenta and the amniotic sac. C) It is possible in both monozygotic and dizygotic twin pregnancies. D) It is only possible in monozygotic twin pregnancies.
Answer: C) It is possible in both monozygotic and dizygotic twin pregnancies.
In which type of twin pregnancy do the twins share a placenta but have separate amniotic sacs?
A) Dichorionic-diamniotic B) Monochorionic-diamniotic C) Monochorionic-monoamniotic D) Dichorionic-monoamniotic
Answer: B) Monochorionic-diamniotic
What is a key difference between monozygotic and dizygotic twins in terms of their genetic makeup?
A) Monozygotic twins are genetically different, while dizygotic twins are genetically identical. B) Monozygotic twins are genetically identical, while dizygotic twins are not. C) Both monozygotic and dizygotic twins are always genetically identical. D) Monozygotic twins are not always identical in appearance.
Answer: B) Monozygotic twins are genetically identical, while dizygotic twins are not.
Which twin arrangement has the highest risk of complications due to sharing both the placenta and amniotic sac?
A) Dichorionic-diamniotic B) Monochorionic-diamniotic C) Monochorionic-monoamniotic D) Monochorionic-triamniotic
Answer: C) Monochorionic-monoamniotic
Which of the following describes the potential for conjoined twins in monozygotic twin pregnancies?
A) The twins separate completely, resulting in two identical individuals. B) A single embryo splits later in development, resulting in incomplete separation. C) Conjoined twins always result from dizygotic pregnancies. D) Conjoined twins must have separate placentas and amniotic sacs.
Answer: B) A single embryo splits later in development, resulting in incomplete separation.
