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Embryology Exam 2- ADP > Embryo Review > Flashcards

Embryo Review Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The sclerotome arises from cells that were located in the:
    a. Notochord
    b. Paraxial mesoderm
    c. Intermediate mesoderm
    d. Lateral plate mesoderm
    e. None of the above
A

b. Paraxial mesoderm

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2
Q
  1. The cardiogenic plate arises from:
    a. Embryonic endoderm
    b. Somatic mesoderm
    c. Splanchnic mesoderm
    d. Intermediate mesoderm
    e. Neural crest
A

c. Splanchnic mesoderm

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3
Q
  1. An inductive stimulus from which structure stimulates the transformation of the epithelial sclerotome into secondary mesenchyme?
    a. Neural crest
    b. Somite
    c. Ectodermal placodes
    d. Embryonic endoderm
    e. Notochord
A

e. Notochord

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4
Q
  1. Which of these structures in the embryo is unsegmented?
    a. Somitomeres
    b. Neuromeres
    c. Notochord
    d. Somites
A

c. Notochord

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5
Q
  1. The intermediate mesoderm is the precursor of the:
    a. Urogenital system
    b. Heart
    c. Somites
    d. Body wall
    e. Vertebral bodies
A

a. Urogenital system

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6
Q
  1. In the mature placenta, which fetal tissue directly interfaces with the maternal uterine connective tissue?
    a. Cytotrophoblast
    b. Syncytiotrophoblast
    c. Extraembryonic mesoderm
    d. Decidual cells
    e. None of the Above
A

a. Cytotrophoblast

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7
Q
  1. Which condition is related to paternal imprinting?
    a. Accessory placental lobes
    b. Placenta previa
    c. Oligohydramnios
    d. Single umbilical artery
    e. Hydatidiform mole
A

e. Hydatidiform mole

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8
Q

Blood vessels associated with which structure enter the fetal component of the placenta?

a. Decidua basalis
b. Allantois
c. Amnion
d. Yolk sac
e. Decidua parietalis

A

b. Allantois

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9
Q
  1. What type of cells invades the maternal spiral arteries and reduces the flow of blood from their open ends?
    a. Hobauer cells
    b. Syncytiotrophoblast
    c. Fetal erythrocytes
    d. Cytotrophoblast
    e. Amniotic epithelium
A

d. Cytotrophoblast

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10
Q
  1. Which condition of the extraembryonic membranes can be found in uteri containing identical twins?
    a. Common placenta and amniotic membrane
    b. Common placenta and chorion, separate amnions
    c. Separate placentas and extraembryonic membranes
    d. Common placenta, partial fuse chornions
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

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11
Q
  1. A 28-year old Rh-negative woman’s second son is born severely jaundiced. Which characteristic most likely describes her first child?
    a. Male
    b. Female
    c. Rh positive
    d. Rh negative
    e. Hydramnios
A

c. Rh positive

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12
Q 
What condition does the obstetrician suspect and why?
A.	Esophageal atresia
B.	Renal agenesis
C.	Triplets
D.	Anencephaly 
E.	Placenta previa
A

D. Anencephaly

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13
Q
  1. Phocomelia is most likely to be seen after maternal exposure to which teratogenic agent during the first trimester of pregnancy?
    a. Alcohol
    b. Aminopterin
    c. Androgens
    d. Ionizing agents
    e. Thalidomide
A

e. Thalidomide

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14
Q
  1. Which of these anomalies can be attributed to a disturbance in tissue resorption?
    a. Pelvic kidney
    b. Cleft lip
    c. Anal atresia
    d. Renal agenesis
    e. Amputated digit
A

c. Anal atresia

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is responsible for the largest percentage of congenital malformations?
    a. Maternal infections
    b. Chemical teratogens
    c. Genetically based conditions
    d. Ionizing radiations
    e. Unknown factors
A

e. Unknown factors

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16
Q
  1. Folic acid deficiency is now believed to be a major cause of what class of malformations?
    a. Trisomies
    b. Neural tube defects
    c. Ambiguous genitalia
    d. Polyploidy
    e. Duplications
A

b. Neural tube defects

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17
Q
  1. Cleft palate is the result of a defect in what development mechanism?
    a. Failure to fuse
    b. Failure to merge
    c. Faulty inductive tissue interaction
    d. Disturbance in tissue resorption
    e. Absence of normal cell death
A

a. Failure to fuse

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18
Q
  1. An increased incidence of what condition is strongly associated with increasing maternal age?
    a. Trisomy 18
    b. Trisomy 19
    c. Trisomy 13
    d. Anencephaly
    e. Ambiguous external genitalia
A

b. Trisomy 19

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19
Q
  1. Satellite cells of muscle are activated under which of these conditions?
    a. Normal muscle fiber growth
    b. Muscle fiber regeneration
    c. Muscle fiber hypertrophy
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

d. All of the above

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20
Q
  1. Which cellular component of the epidermis is a peripheral outpost of the immune system and functions to present antigens to other immune cells?
    a. Merkel cells
    b. Keratinocytes
    c. Basal cells
    d. Melanocytes
    e. Langerhans’ cells
A

e. Langerhans’ cells

21
Q
  1. Which structure is mesodermal in origin?
    a. Hair shaft
    b. Mammary duct
    c. Sebaceous gland
    d. Arrector pili muscle
    e. None of the above
A

d. Arrector pili muscle

22
Q
  1. Craniosynostosis is caused by an abnormal developmental course of the:
    a. Foramen magnum
    b. Cranial sutures
    c. Basicranium
    d. Jaws
    e. None of the above
A

b. Cranial sutures

23
Q
  1. Which myogenic regulatory factor is expressed latest in the development of a muscle fiber?
    a. Myogenin
    b. MyoD
    c. MRF-4
    d. Myf-5
    e. Pax-3 6
A

c. MRF-4

24
Q
  1. In the let-down of milk during lactation, the myoepithelial cells contract in response to:
    a. Progesterone
    b. Oxytocin
    c. Estrogens
    d. Lactalbumin
    e. Casein
A

b. Oxytocin

25
Q 
1.	Which of the following does the pediatrician suspect as possibly being related to the boy’s condition?
A.	Folic acid 
B.	Retinoic acid 
C.	Cocaine 
D.	Thalidomide 
E.	Alcohol
A

B. Retinoic acid

26
Q 
1.	A disturbance in what class of molecules is suspected to underlie this condition?
A.	Hox genes 
B.	Pax genes 
C.	Myogenic regulatory factors 
D.	Fibroblast growth factor 
E.	Hedgehog proteins
A

A. Hox genes

27
Q
  1. Which of the following molecules plays an important role in the determination of the dorsoventral axis of the developing limb?
    a. Msx-1
    b. Wnt-7a
    c. Hoxd-13
    d. Pax-1
    e. FGF-8
A

b. Wnt-7a

28
Q
  1. What molecule is associated with myogenic cells migrating into the limb bud from the somites?
    a. Shh
    b. BMP-7
    c. FGF-4
    d. Pax-3
    e. En-1
A

d. Pax-3

29
Q
  1. What is the principal function of the AER?
    a. Stimulating outgrowth of the limb bud
    b. Setting up the anteroposterior axis of the limb bud
    c. Determining the specific characteristics of the ectodermal appendages of the limb
    d. Determining the pattern of neural ingrowth into the limb
    e. Attracting the subcutaneous plexus of capillaries in the limb bud
A

a. Stimulating outgrowth of the limb bud

30
Q
  1. In the developing limb the sonic hedgehog (shh) gene product is produced in the:
    a. Progress zone
    b. Region of interdigital cell death
    c. ZPA
    d. AER
    e. Common muscle mass
A

c. ZPA (zone of polarizing area)

31
Q
  1. The connective tissue of the limb arises from the:
    a. Paraxial mesoderm
    b. Neural crest
    c. Intermediate mesoderm
    d. Somitic mesoderm
    e. Lateral mesoderm
A

e. Lateral mesoderm

32
Q
  1. The formation of clubfoot (talipes equinovarus) is associated with:
    a. A misplaced ZPA
    b. Defective cellular migration from somites
    c. Thalidomide
    d. Oligohydramnios
    A neural crest defect
A

d. Oligohydramnios

33
Q
  1. What molecule produced by the notochord is instrumental in inducing the floor plate of the neural tube?
    a. Hoxa-5
    b. Retinoic acid
    c. Pax-3
    d. Msx-1
    e. Shh 2
A

e. Shh 2

34
Q
  1. The cell bodies of the motoneurons of a spinal nerve arise from the:
    a. Basal plate
    b. Marginal zone
    c. Floor plate
    d. Roof plate
    e. Alar plate
A

a. Basal plate

35
Q
  1. An infant with a tuft of hair over the lumbar region of the vertebral column undergoes surgery for a congenital anomaly in that region. During surgery, it was found that the dura and arachnoid layers over the spinal cord were complete, but that the neural arches of several vertebrae were missing. What condition did the infant have?
    a. Meningocele
    b. Meningomyelocele
    c. Encephalocele
    d. Spina bifida occulta
    e. Rachischisis
A

d. Spina bifida occulta

36
Q
  1. Growth cones adhere strongly to a substrate containing:
    a. Acetylcholine
    b. Laminin
    c. Epinephrine
    d. Norepinephrine
    e. Sonic hedgehog
A

b. Laminin

37
Q
  1. Complete failure of the neural tube to close in the region of the spinal cord is:
    a. Spina bifida occulta
    b. Meningocele
    c. Cranioschisis
    d. Rachischisis
    e. Myelomeningocele
A

d. Rachischisis

38
Q
  1. Rhombomeres are segmental divisions of the:
    a. Forebrain
    b. Midbrain
    c. Hindbrain
    d. Spinal cord
    e. None of the above
A

c. Hindbrain

39
Q
  1. Pregnant women typically first become aware of fetal movements during what month of pregnancy?
    a. Second
    b. Third
    c. Fourth
    d. Sixth
    e. Eighth
A

c. Fourth

40
Q
  1. Rathke’s pouch arises from the:
    a. Diencephalon
    b. Stomodeal ectoderm
    c. Mesencephalon
    d. Pharyngeal endoderm
    e. Infundibulum
A

b. Stomodeal ectoderm

41
Q
  1. Which of these cell and tissue types arises from cranial, but not trunk, neural crest cells?
    a. Sensory ganglia
    b. Adrenal medulla
    c. Melanocytes
    d. Schwann cells
    e. None of the above
A

e. None of the above

42
Q
  1. Which molecule is a poor substrate for migrating neural crest cells?
    a. Laminin
    b. Chondroitin sulfate
    c. Fibronectin
    d. Type IV collagen
    e. Hyaluronic acid
A

b. Chondroitin sulfate

43
Q
  1. Neural crest cells arise from the:
    a. Somite
    b. Dorsal non-neural ectoderm
    c. Neural tube
    d. Splanchnic mesoderm
    e. Yolk sac endoderm
A

c. Neural tube

44
Q
  1. A 6-month-old infant exhibits multiple congenital defects, including a cleft palate, deafness, ocular hypertelorism, and a white forelock but otherwise dark hair on his head. The probable diagnosis is:
    a. CHARGE association
    b. von Recklinghausen’s disease
    c. Hirschsprung’s disease
    d. Waardenburg’s syndrome
    e. None of the above
A

d. Waardenburg’s syndrome

45
Q
  1. What molecule is involved in the migration of neural crest cells from the neural tube?
    a. Slug
    b. BMP-2
    c. Mash 1
    d. Norepinephrine
    e. Glial growth factor
A

a. Slug

46
Q
  1. Which is not a derivative of the neural crest?
    a. Sensory neurons
    b. Motoneurons
    c. Schwann cells
    d. Adrenal medulla
    e. Dental papilla
A

b. Motoneurons

47
Q
  1. What maintains the competence of neural crest cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons?
    a. A. Sonic hedgehog
    b. Acetylcholine
    c. Mash 1
    d. Glial growth factor
    e. Transforming growth factor-β
A

c. Mash 1

48
Q
  1. If trunk neural crest cells are transplanted into the cranial region, they can form all of the following types of cells except:
    a. Pigment cells
    b. Schwann cells
    c. Sensory neurons
    d. Cartilage
    e. Autonomic neurons
A

d. Cartilage

Embryology Exam 2- ADP (9 decks)

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