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EMB-145 Limitations/ Memory Items (REV08) > EMB-145 Oral Exam Guide > Flashcards

EMB-145 Oral Exam Guide Flashcards

1
Q

[Airplane Desc, Equip, and Furnishings, Emer. Equipment] Which doors, when open, will cause an “ACCESS DOORS OPEN” EICAS message?

A

Under cockpit access hatch Forward electronic access hatch Rear Electronic access hatch

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2
Q

[Airplane Desc, Equip, and Furnishings, Emer. Equipment] What doors, if open, give a master caution or master warning?

A

Master Caution: 1. Access Panels (fwd avionics, under cockpit access hatch, rear avionics, emergency exit access panels, fuel access panel) 2. Baggage Door Master Warning: 1. Main and service door (anytime in flight or on the ground with ENG 1 running).

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3
Q

[Airplane Desc, Equip, and Furnishings, Emer. Equipment] Which doors on the MFD doors page are not pressurized?

A

FWD avionics compartment Fuel access panel

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4
Q

[Airplane Desc, Equip, and Furnishings, Emer. Equipment] How many portable halon fire extinguishers and PBE’s does the EMB-145 contain?

A

3 of each

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5
Q

[Crew Awareness] What parameters are checked with the takeoff configuration button?

A

Pitch trim between 4-8 degrees (green band) Flaps between 9-22 degrees Parking brake not set Spoilers stowed

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6
Q

[Crew Awareness] During a red wind shear warning, should the aircraft be immediately reconfigured to gear up/flaps 9 degrees?

A

No

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7
Q

[Crew Awareness] What will be heard if the aural warning unit test is successful?

A

If both aural warning unit channels are operating properly, the voice message “AURAL UNIT OK” is generated

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8
Q

[Crew Awareness] The EICAS caution message “AURAL WARN FAIL” will only be presented when?

A

The message is displayed when both channel A and channel B of the aural warning unit have failed simultaneously

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9
Q

[Crew Awareness] How many transponders are on the EMB-145 aircraft?

A

2

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10
Q

[Crew Awareness] A failure of an ADC would be indicated by ______.

A

A red X failure indication appearing on the airspeed tape, altitude tape, and the vertical speed pointer is removed and replaced by a red boxed VS

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11
Q

[Crew Awareness] What does an amber HDG comparison monitor flag on the PFD/MFD indicate?

A

A difference of 6 degrees between heading information compared by the two symbol generators

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12
Q

[Crew Awareness] When would an amber IAS comparison monitor flag be presented?

A

When the CA and FO indicated airspeeds (calibrated) differ by 5 knots or more for longer than 2 seconds

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13
Q

[Crew Awareness] When would an amber ALT comparison monitor flag be presented?

A

When the CA and FO indicated altitudes differ by 200 feet or more for longer than 2 seconds

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14
Q

[Crew Awareness] What does the message ‘CAS MSG’ indicate when presented on the PFD?

A

There is a disagreement between the IC-600s on the EICAS message displayed Ref: AOM2 3.2.3 “Warnings and Alerts” p.35

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15
Q

[Crew Awareness] When does the digital flight data recorder begin recording?

A

When the beacon is turned on or weight off wheels

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16
Q

[Crew Awareness] What indications would be displayed on the MFD and PFD immediately following an AHRS failure?

A

ATT FAIL, HDG FAIL, HDG FAIL (on MFD if in MAP mode)

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17
Q

[Crew Awareness] When your airspeed in in the amber band of the low speed awareness tape, what color is the PLI?

A

The PLI is red

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18
Q

[Crew Awareness] When is the stick pusher inhibited?

A

-On the ground (except during the test) -Below .5 G -If the quick disconnect button is kept pressed -Below 200 ft AGL (reverts to 10 seconds after takeoff if the radio altimeters have failed) -If either SPS cutout button has been pressed (released or, unlatched button position) -Above 200 KIAS -If at least one SPS channel is inoperative

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19
Q

[Crew Awareness] What does the EICAS message SPS ADVANCED indicate?

A

SPS ADVANCED indicates that stick shaker and pusher actuation is set to lower AOAs (higher speeds) due to a system component failure

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20
Q

[Crew Awareness] When does the SPS/ICE SPEEDS message clear after flying into icing conditions?

A

Only on the ground after performing a stall test

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21
Q

[Crew Awareness] When must the SPS Test be performed?

A

Captain’s Final Cockpit Scan, prior to every flight

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22
Q

[Crew Awareness] Describe the normal visual indications of a DC BUS 1 failure.

A

PFD 1 and MFD 2 are blank FMS 1 is blank

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23
Q

[Crew Awareness] Describe the normal visual indications of a DC BUS 2 failure.

A

MFD 1 and PFD 2 are blank MFD 2 has a red X FMS 2 is blank

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24
Q

[Crew Awareness] What indications would be displayed if pitot tube 1 is suddenly blocked?

A

Should the pitot tube become suddenly blocked (along with its drain hole) by ice, an insect or some other foreign material, it would probably go unnoticed in level flight. In a climb or a descent, however, an airspeed indicator relying on a blocked pitot tube would behave like an altimeter. The trapped pitot pressure is then measured against the varying static pressure and the result is displayed on the indicator. Should get an “IAS” flag on the captain’s side PFD when the two ADC data differs by more that +5 knots.

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25
Q

[Electrical] When is the ground service bus powered?

A

The ground service bus will be powered when a GPU is powered, plugged into the aircraft, but not selected, and the batteries are off.

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26
Q

[Electrical] Can the GPU be used to recharge the main aircraft batteries?

A

No, BC1 and BC2 open automatically when the GPU is selected and supplying the power.

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27
Q

[Electrical] What items are powered from the 115 vac bus?

A

E-GPWS, windshear ACARS printer

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28
Q

[Electrical] Which electrical bus supplies power to the ISIS?

A

The Essential bus

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29
Q

[Electrical] Under what conditions are shed buses powered while on the ground?

A

With GPU powering the aircraft and the shed bus switch in the auto or override position. With at least one generator online and the shed bus in the override position. With 3 or more generators online.

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30
Q

[Electrical] What criteria must be established in order to have shed bus power in flight?

A

At least 3 generators must be online for shed bus power in flight.

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31
Q

[Electrical] Is DME available when in essential power mode?

A

No, but VOR or LOC type approaches may be flown so long as DME is not required.

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32
Q

[Electrical] Define the EICAS master warning ELEC ESS XFR FAIL.

A

The electrical system has failed to properly transfer into the essential power mode following a loss of all generators.

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33
Q

[Electrical] What does the GPU AVAIL inscription on the GPU button on the overhead panel indicate?

A

The GPU AVAIL inscription indicates that the GPU is properly connected to the aircraft receptacle and some power is available (not necessarily sufficient or stable power though).

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34
Q

[Electrical] What should be the voltage range of the GPU prior to selecting it?

A

26V to 29V

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35
Q

[Electrical] What happens when the ESS PWR button is pressed?

A

It forces the electrical system into Essential Power regardless of Electrical Distribution Logic (EDL).

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36
Q

[Aircraft Lighting] How long will the emergency lighting last?

A

The batteries will provide power for approximately 15 minutes.

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37
Q

[Aircraft Lighting] Is it possible for the flight attendant to activate emergency lighting if the cockpit emergency light switch is set to off?

A

Yes, the flight attendant may override the cockpit switch and turn on emergency lighting anytime.

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38
Q

[Aircraft Lighting] Can the emergency light batteries be charged while they are in use?

A

No, the batteries are only charged when the emergency light switch is in the ARM position and the lights are not in use.

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39
Q

[Aircraft Lighting] When do the emergency lights illuminate automatically in the ARM position?

A

During an electrical emergency with power being supplied by the dedicated batteries.

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40
Q

[Aircraft Lighting] Will the nose wheel taxi and nose wheel landing light remain illuminated following gear retraction?

A

No, the lights are automatically extinguished when the nose gear isn’t down and locked.

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41
Q

[Aircraft Lighting] What is the power source of the nose wheel taxi and nose landing lights?

A

The nose wheel lights are shed bus powered.

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42
Q

[Aircraft Lighting] Why should the courtesy light switch be placed off prior to leaving the aircraft?

A

The courtesy lights are powered by hot bus 2; should the main door stay open with the courtesy light switch ON or AUTO, BAT 2 will drain.

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43
Q

[Fire Protection] How can the flight crew determine whether or not the lavatory fire extinguisher has been used?

A

No cockpit indication is available. The extinguisher is inspected by Mx personnel.

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44
Q

[Fire Protection] What occurs when the fire handle is pulled?

A

When pulled, the fuel, hydraulic, bleed air and engine lip anti-icing shutoff valves of the associated engine are closed.

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45
Q

[Fire Protection] How many halon fire extinguishers are available for the engines?

A

2 Halon fire extinguishers are installed and are usable by either engine.

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46
Q

[Fire Protection] Is engine fire protection available when the aircraft is de-powered?

A

Yes. Engine fire protection is powered by the hot battery bus.

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47
Q

[Fire Protection] Does the EICAS master warning message “LAV SMOKE” appear during a cockpit fire detection test?

A

No, the lavatory smoke detector can only be tested by the flight attendant.

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48
Q

[Fire Protection] What does the EICAS master caution “E1-2 FIRE DET FAIL” mean?

A

The fire detection system of the affected engine has failed. The integrity switch has detected a low-pressure condition in the affected fire loop.

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49
Q

[Fire Protection] What messages will be presented on the EICAS after discharging halon into engine 1?

A

E1 EXTBTLA INOP, and E1 EXTBTLB INOP due to low bottle pressure.

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50
Q

[Fire Protection] What are the indications of a successful fire detection test?

A

Master Warning and Master Caution buttons illuminated ENG 1 (2) FIRE EICAS warning message APU FIRE EICAS warning message BAGG SMOKE EICAS warning message E1 (2) FIREDET FAIL EICAS caution message APU FIREDET FAIL EICAS caution message Both fire handles illuminated BAGG EXTG Button illuminated Aural Fire Bell

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51
Q

[Fire Protection] What action are required if the BAGG EXTG Button remains illuminated after the fire detection test?

A

Repeat the fire detection test. Wait at least 6 seconds before pressing the test button again for at least 2 seconds.

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52
Q

[Fuel] What happens when the cross-feed valve is placed to LOW 1?

A

The pump turns off in tank 1 and the cross-feed valve opens.

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53
Q

[Fuel] Is a takeoff allowed with the fuel imbalance EICAS message displayed?

A

As long as the imbalance is not exceeded (800 lbs.). The EICAS message remains illuminated until the imbalance is within 100 lbs.

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54
Q

[Fuel] What does the EICAS warning “FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVEL” mean?

A

Less than approximately 30 minutes (463 lbs.) of fuel remains in the respective tank.

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55
Q

[Fuel] Tank 1 has 3500 lbs. Tank 2 has 3700 lbs. How should the cross-feed switch be positioned to balance fuel?

A

The switch should be set to LOW 1.

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56
Q

[Fuel] Is it possible to transfer fuel from between the main wing tanks?

A

No, fuel cannot be transferred between the two wing tanks.

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57
Q

[Fuel] What happens if the selected fuel pump fails?

A

The remaining wing pumps are automatically switched on and start cycling until the pilot selects one of them.

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58
Q

[Fuel] Is fuel cross feed available without DC power?

A

Yes, the valve is essentially powered.

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59
Q

[Fuel] When is cross feed operation permitted?

A

During all phases of operation except for takeoff and go-around.

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60
Q

[Fuel] Which fuel tank normally supplies fuel to the APU (assuming no cross-feed operation is taking place)?

A

The right fuel tank

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61
Q

[Fuel] When should the crew advise ATC of a minimum fuel status?

A

If any undue delay cannot be accepted due to the fuel status. Note: Anticipation of landing at your destination or farthest alternate airport with less that Reserve fuel is most often considered Minimum Fuel by most Part 121 carriers.

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62
Q

[Fuel] When the fuel gauge is MEL’d, is the FUEL LO LEVEL EICAS message valid if illuminated?

A

Yes, the FUEL LO LEVEL message illuminates based on the actual fuel in the respective fuel tank from the low-level sensor and not based on the fuel values presented on the EICAS page.

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63
Q

[APU] What controls the APU?

A

A FADEC.

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64
Q

[APU] What will the APU shutdown for automatically on the ground? In flight?

A

On the ground, essentially any malfunction (Fire, after 10 seconds), in flight, anything not heat related.

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65
Q

[APU] What is the minimum battery voltage for attempting an APU an APU start?

A

19.0V

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66
Q

[APU] What consideration must be made if the APU is started with less than 23.5 volts?

A

The Main Battery Recharge Procedure must be performed.

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67
Q

[APU] What power sources may be used to start the APU?

A

Three power sources may be used to start the APU: a GPU, battery 2 alone or battery 2 assisted by the main generators. Battery 1 cannot be used for APU starting.

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68
Q

[APU] What will occur if a fire is detected in the APU compartment while on the ground?

A

An automatic shutdown will occur 10 seconds after a fire is detected.

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69
Q

[APU] What is the procedure for stopping the APU?

A

Press the STOP button, monitor deceleration to 0 % RPM. At 0 % RPM, select the APU master knob to the OFF position.

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70
Q

[Powerplant] Explain the start sequence of the engine.

A

After selecting START, verify N2 rotation within 10 seconds and oil pressure rise. At approximately 14% N2, verify ignition on. At approximately 28.5% N2 or 12 seconds after ignition is activated, verify fuel flow and then monitor ITT for light-off (within 10 seconds of fuel flow) and verify N1 rotation. Fuel flow and ITT indications should increase at approximately 31.5% N2. Monitor ITT, N2 and oil pressure throughout the start so as not to exceed normal parameters.

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71
Q

[Powerplant] When positioning the START/STOP selector knob from STOP to START, how long should the knob be paused in the run position prior to start and why should this pause occur?

A

When positioning the START/STOP selector knob from STOP to START, pause for 2 seconds in the RUN position prior to selecting START. Quickly moving from STOP to START without pausing in the RUN position may be misinterpreted by the FADEC as a shutdown command, thereby triggering an un-commanded, on-ground engine shutdown.

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72
Q

[Powerplant] How is light-off recognized during engine starts?

A

Light-off occurs when the digital numbers on the ITT indicator increases.

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73
Q

[Powerplant] When should the ignition be placed to on?

A

If standing water, ice, slush or snow is present on the runway for takeoff During heavy precipitation Takeoff into suspected wind shear Severe (Should be “moderate or greater”) Turbulence When the temperature is below 10 degrees C (Should be 5 degrees C) and the engines have been shut down for more than 90 minutes As directed per the QRH

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74
Q

[Powerplant] What are the minimum oil quantities needed for takeoff?

A

The minimum recommended oil quantities for engine start are 8 quarts and 7 quarts after start.

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75
Q

[Powerplant] When should the engine start be aborted?

A

No light off within 10 seconds after the first fuel flow indications (on ground only) ITT approaches start limit N2 decreases or remains steady for more than 30 seconds N2 indicates no rotation up to 10 seconds after the start command Any unusual noise or vibration Engine instruments indicate abnormal conditions Flames are visible from the exhaust pipe Oil pressure does not reach at least 34 psi after the engine reaches stabilized idle

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76
Q

[Powerplant] What are some indications of severe engine damage?

A

No N1 rotation No N2 rotation High ITT High Vibration Zero Oil Pressure

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77
Q

[Powerplant] Where can engine oil be quantity be monitored?

A

MFD TO page

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78
Q

[Powerplant] What components are in the engine’s accessory drive gear box?

A

2 engine driven generators Oil pump Hydraulic pump Permanent magnet alternator Air turbine starter Fuel pump metering unit

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79
Q

[Powerplant] What alerts are not inhibited during the takeoff roll?

A

GPWS SPS 1 (2) INOP BATT 1 (2) OVTEMP ELEC ESS XFR FAIL APU FIRE ENG 1 (2) FIRE LG/LVR DISAFREE GPWS INOP WINDSHEAR INOP SPS ADVANCED STICK PUSHER FAIL BRAKE OVERHEAT LG AIR/GND FAIL LATERAL MODE OFF ICE CONDITION Note: Takeoff phase is inhibited when the airplane passes V1 minus 15 KIAS; most messages can appear prior to this speed.

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80
Q

[Powerplant] What happens when a thrust reverser deploys in flight?

A

The FADEC reduces the engine thrust to idle, however the thrust lever will not actually move.

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81
Q

[Powerplant] What happens to the engine when the FADEC in control fails?

A

The other FADEC takes over control of the engine.

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82
Q

[Powerplant] What happens when both FADECs for an engine fail?

A

An engine shutdown would occur. The engine requires at least one FADEC to operate.

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83
Q

[Powerplant] When the landing gear is lowered below 15,000’, which target thrust rating will the FADEC default to?

A

The highest thrust rating a pilot would be able to select for takeoff (TO-1 for A1 engines).

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84
Q

[Hydraulics] Which hydraulic accumulator is responsible for supplying hydraulic pressure for emergency brake applications?

A

System #2 accumulator

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85
Q

[Hydraulics] The system 2 accumulator has enough stored hydraulic pressure to supply a total of ____ applications or ____ hours of continuous emergency brake pressure?

A

6 applications or 24 hours.

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86
Q

[Hydraulics] During normal flight, the engine driven hydraulic pump supplies a total pressure output of ___ psi.

A

3000 psi

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87
Q

[Hydraulics] Can the hydraulic quantity for system 1 and system 2 be monitored?

A

Yes, MFD (HYD) Hydraulics page.

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88
Q

[Hydraulics] Can the hydraulic system temperature be monitored on the EICAS or MFD’s?

A

No

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89
Q

[Hydraulics] The ailerons are normally actuated by which hydraulic system(s)?

A

System 1 and System 2

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90
Q

[Hydraulics] In normal cruise flight conditions, the electric hydraulic pumps are producing a psi output of ____.

A

0 psi

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91
Q

[Hydraulics] Can the hydraulic quantity for system 1 and system 2 be monitored?

A

Yes, MFD (HYD) Hydraulics page.

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92
Q

[Hydraulics] The nose wheel steering is hydraulically powered by which hydraulic system?

A

Hydraulic system 1

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93
Q

[Landing Gear And Brakes] With a total loss of hydraulic system #1, will the landing gear deploy/operate normally?

A

No

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94
Q

[Landing Gear And Brakes] If the gear is not down and locked, under what conditions will the landing gear aural warning alert pilots?

A

Flaps <1200 AGL 0 Low TLA (Cannot Cancel) 9 Low TLA (Cannot Cancel) 22 Low TLA (Cannot Cancel) 45 Any TLA, Any ALT (Cannot Cancel) Flaps >1200 AGL 0 No Warning 9 No Warning 22 No Warning 45 Any TLA, Any ALT (Cannot Cancel) Flaps RA INOP 0 Low TLA (Can Cancel) 9 Low TLA (Can Cancel) 22 Low TLA (Cannot Cancel) 45 Any TLA, Any ALT (Cannot Cancel)

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95
Q

[Landing Gear And Brakes] In essential power mode, is nose wheel steering available?

A

No

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96
Q

[Landing Gear And Brakes] When operating the emergency brakes, hydraulic pressure is applied to which brakes?

A

All main gear brakes

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97
Q

[Landing Gear And Brakes] What does the Free-fall lever do?

A

It requires no electrical or hydraulic power to extend the landing gear. It extends the gear by mechanically actuating the free-fall selector valve, thus removing hydraulic pressure and unlocking the three landing gear leg uplocks via cable linkage. All three gear then gravity fall to their downlock devices.

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98
Q

[Landing Gear And Brakes] When in essential power mode would you have normal braking?

A

Yes

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99
Q

[Landing Gear And Brakes] With a total loss of hydraulic system #1, will the landing gear deploy/operate normally?

A

No

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100
Q

[Landing Gear And Brakes] Nose wheel tire rotation is stopped on retraction by a _____.

A

Mechanical snubber

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101
Q

[Landing Gear And Brakes] If the gear is not down and locked, under what conditions will the landing gear aural warning alert pilots?

A

Flaps <1200 AGL 0 Low TLA (Cannot Cancel) 9 Low TLA (Cannot Cancel) 22 Low TLA (Cannot Cancel) 45 Any TLA, Any ALT (Cannot Cancel) Flaps >1200 AGL 0 No Warning 9 No Warning 22 No Warning 45 Any TLA, Any ALT (Cannot Cancel) Flaps RA INOP 0 Low TLA (Can Cancel) 9 Low TLA (Can Cancel) 22 Low TLA (Cannot Cancel) 45 Any TLA, Any ALT (Cannot Cancel)

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102
Q

[Landing Gear And Brakes] What is the purpose of the landing gear electrical override switch?

A

The electrical override system is used to extend the landing gear should there be a normal landing gear extension failure. The system bypasses the LGEU (Landing Gear Electrical Unit) and directly actuates the landing gear electrovalve and the nose gear door solenoid valve.

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103
Q

[Flight Controls] When in manual reversion, the elevators, ailerons, and rudder can all be actuated mechanically.

A

Yes

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104
Q

[Flight Controls] True/False. The flaps are powered by DC power.

A

True, the two flap motors responsible for flap actuation are DC powered.

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105
Q

[Flight Controls] What flap settings may be used for normal landing procedures?

A

Flaps 22 degrees/ Flaps 45 degrees

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106
Q

[Flight Controls] True/ False. The ground spoilers open when the airplane is on the ground (WOW), wheel speed >25 knots and a low TLA.

A

True

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107
Q

[Flight Controls] The EICAS message “FLAP LOW SPEED” is a result of a loss of ______.

A

One of the flap motors

108
Q

[Flight Controls] True/False. The gust lock prevents the movement of the ailerons.

A

False, the gust lock restricts the elevator from moving.

109
Q

[Flight Controls] The caution “RUDDER OVER BOOST” means?

A

Rudder hydraulic system 1 is still on above 135 KIAS.

110
Q

[Flight Controls] Are the flaps powered in essential power.

A

No, the two flap motors responsible for flap actuation are DC powered.

111
Q

[Flight Controls] Will the speed brakes open if the flaps are extended to flaps 22?

A

No, speed brakes will automatically close as flaps transition through 13 degrees.

112
Q

[Flight Controls] True/False. Piedmont allows takeoffs to be made with flap 22 degrees selected.

A

True. Flaps 9, and 22 are the approved takeoff flaps settings.

113
Q

[Flight Controls] What are the requirements for the speed brakes to be open?

A

The flap lever has to be at 0 or 9 degrees, the speed brake lever has to be selected to OPEN, a low TLA (thrust lever angle).

114
Q

[Flight Controls] True/False. Pitch trim is accomplished by positioning the horizontal stabilizer.

A

True, be positioning the horizontal stabilizer.

115
Q

[Flight Controls] How should the electromechanical gust lock be unlocked?

A

To unlock the elevator proceed as follows: Release the gust lock lever to the intermediate position. The locking pins will open and the elevators will be unlocked after approximately 10 seconds. The GUST LOCK indication lights will illuminate during pin movement and extinguish when unlocked. When the lights are extinguished, pull the control column backwards to any position from neutral to full nose up. Move the gust lock lever from the intermediate position to its full forward FREE position. The FO’s hand must remain on the Gust Lock during the entire unlocking procedure (e.g. do not continue the Before Takeoff flow with the Gust Lock in the intermediate position).

116
Q

[Flight Controls] How should the flight controls be checked prior to takeoff?

A

Check full movement and freedom of the ailerons. Ten seconds after the gust lock is positioned to the full forward (FREE) position, move the control column to the full up (aft) stop, the full down (forward) stop, and back to the full up stop position. This check must be performed each time the gust lock is set to the FREE position.

117
Q

[Pneumatics] How would the bleeds and packs be configured for a takeoff using ALT-TO Thrust?

A

Engine bleeds open, APU bleed closed, Xbleed Auto, PACKS on.

118
Q

[Pneumatics] How would the bleeds and packs be configured for an icing takeoff?

A

Engine bleeds open, APU bleed closed, Xbleed Auto, PACKS on.

119
Q

[Pneumatics] When will the cross-bleed valve open automatically when the cross-bleed knob is in the auto position?

A

When an engine is being started using a pneumatic source from the other side of the system. (e.g. crossbleed start, Engine #2 start using APU bleed, Engine #1 start using external air source), and sometimes during an ICE CONDITION (Pre-mod aircraft).

120
Q

[Pneumatics] Regarding the priority logic of the available bleed sources, if the APU bleed was selected open, what would occur after opening the engine 1 bleed valve?

A

The APU bleed valve would close.

121
Q

[Pneumatics] What are the indications of a bleed leak?

A

A red “LEAK” inscription appears over the button of the affected bleed. Additionally, the EICAS BLD 1(2) LEAK master warning will be presented.

122
Q

[Pneumatics] What indications would be visible on the APU Bleed valve button if the APU is off and the APU Bleed valve is selected open?

A

A white line only. The ‘OPEN’ inscription would not be visible.

123
Q

[Pneumatics] While taxiing in icing conditions, is it possible for the APU bleed to be used on the ground for the packs while simultaneously using engine lip anti-ice protection?

A

Yes, the bleed air used for engine lip anti-ice protection does not require the engine bleed valve to be open.

124
Q

[Air Conditioning And Pressurization] How would the packs normally operate in icing conditions at 2000’ AGL in CLB thrust?

A

PACK 1 is off and PACK 2 is on.

125
Q

[Air Conditioning And Pressurization] How would the packs operate during a go-around at 1100 AGL?

A

Both PACKS would turn off.

126
Q

[Air Conditioning And Pressurization] What altitude must be set in the pressurization controller?

A

The landing elevation.

127
Q

[Air Conditioning And Pressurization] What is the maximum operational altitude with one pack inoperative?

A

FL250

128
Q

[Air Conditioning And Pressurization] During a takeoff in icing conditions, when will pressurization begin?

A

The cabin will begin to pressurize when the thrust is set for takeoff.

129
Q

[Air Conditioning And Pressurization] What is the function of the DUMP button on the automatic pressurization controller?

A

The DUMP button will de-pressurize the cabin of the aircraft to an altitude of 14,500’ MSL or the the actual altitude of the aircraft, whichever is lower.

130
Q

[Air Conditioning And Pressurization] What is the purpose of the pressurization/static ports located on the lower/rear portion of the fuselage?

A

The purpose of the pressurization/static ports is to provide over-pressure/under-pressure relief should the cabin differential exceed 8.1 psi or -0.3 psi.

131
Q

[Air Conditioning And Pressurization] What are the RAM Air doors and when would they open?

A

NACA vents on the underside of the fuselage. RAM air doors in the “emergency” position allow ambient air to flow into the cabin but will not pressurize the cabin. They open/go to emergency position anytime the aircraft is in flight with both PACKS off.

132
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] Is it allowable to use cold forced air for loose snow removal from aircraft surfaces?

A

Yes; however, this does not replace the need for deicing procedures.

133
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] What should be checked when conducting the in-flight portion of the pneumatic ice test?

A

Select the Override knob to ALL for 20 seconds and check that the OPEN inscriptions in the buttons are illuminated and the NO ICE-A/ICE ON caution message is displayed on the EICAS.

134
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] What should be checked when conducting ice test pneumatic on the ground?

A

For each side, separately, check that the OPEN inscriptions in the deice valve buttons are illuminated and that ICE DET 1 (2) FAIL and BLD 1 (2) LOW TEMP caution messages and the ICE CONDITION advisory message are displayed on the EICAS.

135
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] When is engine lip anti-ice required?

A

If icing conditions are present from the surface to 1500’ AGL. Icing conditions are defined as a temperature of 10 degrees Celsius or less and the presence of visible moisture (clouds, precipitation, Fog of 1 SM or less, standing water, ice, sluch or snow present on the runway).

136
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] Is it possible to use the APU bleed for air conditioning while taxiing in icing conditions?

A

Yes. The APU bleed may be used toprovide air conditioning. The engine lip anti-icing bleed air is tapped off prior to the engine bleed valve. For this reason, the engine bleed may be closed during a taxi in icing conditions.

137
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] What are some items to consider when taxiing in icing conditions?

A
  • Windshield heat may be selected on - Ice detection override knob should be selected to ENG - Avoid taxiing in deep snow - Taxi with flaps up - Maintain greater distance from aircraft ahead - Monitor engine vibration
138
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] How are the bleeds configured for a takeoff in icing conditions?

A

The engine bleeds should be open and the APU bleed should be closed.

139
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] During the pneumatic test on the ground, where should the override knob be positioned and how long should the test switch be held?

A

The override knob should be placed in the ALL position and the test switch must be held in each position for at least 10, no longer than 15 seconds.

140
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] During essential power with a loss of all generators, is wing and stabilizer ant-ice protection available?

A

No, wing & stabilizer anti-ice is DC powered.

141
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] What is the functionality of engine lip anti-ice protection in the essential power configuration with a loss of all generators?

A

The engine lip anti-ice system operates continuously and cannot be turned off. The engine-lip anti-ice valve is DC powered and fails open.

142
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] When is the wing and horizontal stabilizer anti-ice protection inhibited?

A

On the ground with a wheel speed < 25 knots.

143
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] What are some items to consider for takeoff in icing conditions?

A
  • Ignitors should be placed to ON if standing water, ice, slush or snow is present on the runway - If the runway condition is such that the flight crew feels the ability of the aircraft to accelerate could be degraded, select the maximum available takeoff thrust setting - Both engine bleeds must be open
144
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] What are some items to consider when taxiing in icing conditions?

A
  • Windshield heat may be selected on - Ice detection override knob ahould be selected to ENG - Avoid taxiing in deep snow - Taxi with flaps up - Maintain greater distance from aircraft ahead - Monitor engine vibration
145
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] Where should the ice detection override switch be selected after the normal after start flow while taxing in icing conditions? How should the pneumatic panel be configured while taxiing in icing?

A

ENG; the APU may supply pneumatic air for pack operation while taxiing in icing conditions; engine lip anti-ice does not rquire the EBVs to be selected open in oder to operate normally.

146
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] When must ENG REF anti-ice be selected on when storing the takeoff data?

A

If icing conditions are present from the surface to 1500’ AGL. Icing conditions are defined as a temperature of 10 degrees Celsius or less and the presence of visible moisture (clouds, precipitation, Fog of 1 SM or less, standing water, ice, slush or snow present on the runway)

147
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] What steps should be taken if te EICAS message E1(2) A/ICE FAIL is displayed while taxing in ground operations while in icing or while in cruise flight with thrust levers towards idle?

A

Advance the thrust levers to see if the EICAS message goes away and the OPEN inscriptions for the engine anti-ice valves remain open.

148
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] Where can the crew find instructions on how to configure the aircraft during de-icing/anti-icing operations?

A

AOM Volume I Chapter 2

149
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] What are some indications of anti-icing fluid failure?

A

The fluid begins to appear opaque rather than transparent and glossy; the abilit to discern structural details (screws, rivets, seams) through the fluid is no longer apparent.

150
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] True/False: Takeoff during moderate or heavy freezing rain is permitted?

A

False

151
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] Who has ultimate responsibility for determining whether the aircraft is free of contamination and complies with the clean aircraft concept?

A

The PIC

152
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] What information must the Captain collect if deicing/anti-icing occurred?

A

Fluid type, mixture ratio, time when the final deicing/anti-icing application began, and employee certifying a clean aircraft.

153
Q

[Ice & Rain Protection] What anti-ice fluid must be used when operating in conditions with ice pellets adhering to the aircraft?

A

Only undiluted Type IV flid may be used during operations in ice pellets.

154
Q

[Oxygen] Where can crews look to determine whether sufficient oxygen is onboard for 2 or 3 crewmembers on the flight deck?

A

Green Reference Card

155
Q

[Oxygen] What is the purpose of the green discharge indicator on the fuselage, adjacent to the oxygen service panel?

A

The green discharge indicator provides evidence evidence of over-servicing of the oxygen cylinder if it is missing/blown out.

156
Q

[Oxygen] How long does passenger oxygen last?

A

Approximately 12 minutes.

157
Q

[Oxygen] When will the passenger oxygen masks drop when the oxygen selector knob is set to AUTO?

A

The oxygen masks will deploy at approximately 14,000 feet cabin altitude.

158
Q

[Oxygen] What will occur if the passenger oxygen selector knob is set to manual?

A

The oxygen masks will deploy immediately, regardless of cabin altitude.

159
Q

[Oxygen] How can the crew be assured that the oxygen cylinder pressure regulating shutoff valve is open?

A

By inspecting the cylinder head located behind the FO seat in the cockpit.

160
Q

[Oxygen] What supplies oxygen to the flight crew while wearing the oxygen mask?

A

The fixed oxygen cylinder.

161
Q

[Flight Instruments] When will the low altitude awarness tape be displayed on the altimeter?

A

Below 550 feet of Radio Altitude the brown, low altitude awareness tape will be displayed on the bottom of the altitude tape.

162
Q

[Flight Instruments] While flying an approach fully configured you notice that Vref speed, as calculated by aerodata, is 2 KIAS below the top of the white range on the low speed awareness tape. What would you do in order to fly the appropriate target speed?

A

Computed reference speeds should result in speeds above the white range on the low speed awareness tape (1.13 - 1.23 Vs). If there is a discrepancy between computed reference speed and the low speed awareness tape, the low speed awareness tape shall be used to keep the aircraft at a safe flying speed for approach.

163
Q

[Flight Instruments] Approximately how many seconds of trend indication do the airspeed and altitude trend vectors provide, respectively?

A

The airspeed trend vector provides a 10 second trend indication while the altitude trend vectors provides a 6 second indication.

164
Q

[Flight Instruments] What do the different colors on the low speed awareness tape mean?

A

White indicates the speed range from 1.23Vs to 1.13Vs. Amber indicates the speed range from 1.13Vs to Vs. Red indicates Vs.

165
Q

[Flight Instruments] When does the DFDR begin recording?

A

When the red beacon is switched ON or when the airplane becomes airborne.

166
Q

[Flight Instruments] The standby instruments receive information from which aircraft pitot/static source?

A

Pitot/Static tube 3.

167
Q

[Navigation & AMP; Communication] What does and amber ATT on the PFDs indicate?

A

Simultaneous activation of both pitch and roll comparison monitors will be announced by an amber ATT label displayed in the upper left portion of the attitude sphere, in the same field of the ROL and PIT comparison monitors.

168
Q

[Navigation & AMP; Communication] What happens to the FPA scale when transitioning to APP mode?

A

FPA scale changes from 250 feet per dot to 75 feet per dot.

169
Q

[Navigation & Communication] What are the different phases of flight of the FMS lateral deviation scale?

A

There are phases of flight pertaining to the lateral scale of the FMS: - Approach - within 2 NM of FAF - Terminal - within 30 NM of departure or destination points - Enroute - beyond 30 NM of departure and destination points

170
Q

[Navigation & Communication] Where does the standby airspeed indicator receive its pitot/static information from?

A

Pitot/Static 3 provides dynamic pressure to the standby airspeed indicator.

171
Q

[Navigation & Communication] What mode can be used to display areas where all radar enery has been attenuated?

A

The REACT, or rain echo attenuation compensation techinque mode.

172
Q

[Navigation & Communication] What is the function of the gian knob?

A

The GAIN knob can be used to vary the sensitivity of the receiver. This will also result in a variance of color intensity displayed for aradar return.

173
Q

[Navigation & Communication] How can the radar be brought out of FSBY on the ground?

A

The forced standby mode may be overridden on the ground by pushing the STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds.

174
Q

[Navigation & Communication] Will the tuning backup control head (TBCH) remain powered in essential power?

A

No, it is powered by DC Bus 2.

175
Q

[Navigation & Communication] What does the emergency button (EMER) on the digital audio panel do?

A

The Captain is connected directly to COM 1 and NAV 1 and the First Officer is connected directly to COM 2 and NAV 2. Observer radio communication capability is lost. Interphone is disabled.

176
Q

[Autopilot] What happens to the active FD modes and/or autopilot as a result of pressing the couple button?

A

The couple button can be pressed with the Autopilot engaged or disengaged. However, if the FD is switched, the modes wil drop out and the Autopilot will remain engaged and revert to basic autopilot (PIT and ROL).

177
Q

[Autopilot] Describe the function of the go-around sub-mode.

A

Assuming the aircraft is below 2,500’ RA (or below 15,00’ pressure altitude if the RA signal is invalid) the go-around sub mode is activated when one of the GA buttons is pressed. ROL/GA will be the active lateral and vertical modes with a 10 degree pitch-up commanded on the flight director. Transition from go-around sub-modes to IAS vertical mode will automatically occur: - If, at any time, the speed is lower than 1.23 Vs - If, 20 seconds after go-around engagement, the speed is higher than 170 KIAS. In this case, 170 KIAS is targeted automatically. - If, 20 seconds after go-around engagement, the speed is within 5 kts of the pre-selected speed bug (the blue bug which is normally selected to Vga9), the pre-selected speed is maintained.

178
Q

[Autopilot] What is the default vertical flight guidance mode?

A

PIT (pitch).

179
Q

[Autopilot] Crews must always verify that the autopilot is coupled to the PF by looking at the ___________.

A

Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA).

180
Q

[Autopilot] What pitch attitude does the GA flight guidance mode present immediately after being armed (airspeed above the white band of the low speed awareness tape)?

A

10 degrees

181
Q

[Autopilot] The flight-guidance DES mode is programmed to function like.

A

VS mode but with preset vertical speeds.

182
Q

[Autopilot] True/False: The yaw damper is automatically turned on when the autopilot is engaged.

A

True.

183
Q

[Autopilot] During climb, FLC works just like.

A

IAS/Mach but with preset speeds.

184
Q

[Autopilot] What actions will disconnect the autopilot?

A

Pilot actuatuon of either of the pitch trim switches, the ‘AP’ or ‘YD’ button on the ‘Flight Guidance control Panel’, pressing the quick disconnect button.

185
Q

[Autopilot] The aircraft heading must be within ____ degrees of the final approach course (front course) prior to selecting the APR or NAV mode.

A

90 degrees

186
Q

[Autopilot] Which display contol panel button should be pressed to display FMS course data on the PFD?

A

FMS.

187
Q

[Autopilot] Above 12,000 in FLC, the aircraft climbs at what speed?

A

270 KIAS until mach 0.56.

188
Q

[Autopilot] When pressing the TOGA buttons on the ground while taxiing:

A

TO mode is activated on the flight director with 14-degrees pitch up (or 12-dgrees pitch up if flaps 22 selected).

189
Q

[Autopilot] What vertical speed does FLC give you in a descent above 12,000 feet?

A

2,000 FPM.

190
Q

[Aerodynamics] What are vortex generators and are any allowed to be missing?

A

Vortex generators are installed on the upper wing surface forward of the ailerons. They energize the boundary layer in order to overcome the adverse pressure associated with the shock wave. In this way, vortex generators serve to delay boundary layer separation and enhance flight control effectiveness. Some vortex generators are allowed to be missing per CDL procedures.

191
Q

[Aerodynamics] Why are the wings of the EMB-145 swept?

A

The primary reason for wing sweep is to reduce the velocity if the air flowing perpendicular to the sing, thus reducing drag when operating in the upper limits of the transonic region. The secondary effect of wing sweep is improved lateral stability. The swept wing permits higher cruise speed performance because only a portion of the wing is actually exposed to the critical Mach speed.

192
Q

[Aerodynamics] What is the purpose of vortillons?

A

Vortilons only act at high AOA. When span wise flow encounters them they creat a vortex. This vortex energizes the flow over the wing (not under) and delays separation.

193
Q

[Aerodynamics] What is mach tuck as it relates to the EMB-145?

A

Mach Tuck occurs when the center of pressure moves from its normal position on the top of the wing to a point slightly aft. As the center of pressure moves to the rear, it causes the nose of the aircraft to pitch down slightly. The EMB-145 does not present Mach Tuck tendencies until approximately .92 Mach.

194
Q

[Aerodynamics] What is a cranked wing as it relates to the EMB-145?

A

The wing on the EMB-145 is cranked meaning that the wing is twisted to provide a varying angle of incidence between the root and the tip. The wing root is set at a +3 degree angle of incidence, wile the crank/twist of the wing places the wing tip at a -1 degree angle of incidence. This design characteristic provides adequate airflow over the ailerons for roll control even when the root of the wing is stalled.

195
Q

[Aircraft Performance]

On a single engine map, what map procedure must be flown?

A

These runways have no special requirements. The published missed approach may be used for single-engine or balked landings.

196
Q

[Aircraft Performance] If at the planned cruise altitude and an engine is lost, how should the aircraft be flown (configuration, speed, etc.)?

A

Set continuous thrust, if unable to hold altitude, decelerate in level flight to VFS.

197
Q

[Aircraft Performance] A simple-special EFP must be followed until what altitude?

A

If in a radar environment, 1000’ AFE. For non-radar environments, 3000’ AFE or a safe altitude if higher.

198
Q

[Aircraft Performance] A standard EFP must be followed and no vectors may be accepted until what altitude?

A

1000’ AFE

199
Q

[Aircraft Performance] After takeoff in IMC (2 engine) and not on a SID, when may a turn be initiated?

A

1000’ AFE

200
Q

[Aircraft Performance] If a SID specifies to initiate a turn (2 engine) but an altitude is not published, what is the minimum altitude that the turn can be initiated?

A

400’ AFE

201
Q

[Aircraft Performance] After radar vector takeoff in VMC (2 engine departure), when can turn be initiated?

A

400’ AFE

202
Q

[Preflight Operation] When must a “full search” security inspection and a “Canada” security inspection be performed?

A

A full search must be performed prior to the first revenue flight of the day for domestic operations and prior to all international departures. A Canada inspection must be performed prior to all US to Canada and Canada to US departures.

203
Q

[Preflight Operation] How can the RVSM critical area be identified?

A

Four yellow corner markings surrounding the primary static sources.

204
Q

[Preflight Operation] When inspecting the RVSM area, what would preclude RVSM flight?

A

Creases, dents, deformations, bulges.

205
Q

[Preflight Operation] What requirements exists for the nose gear static discharger?

A

It must be touching the ground.

206
Q

[Preflight Operation] How many static dischargers are on the wings?

A

5 on each wing

207
Q

[Preflight Operation] Can aircraft be dispatched with missing static dischargers?

A

Yes. Must be deferred per CDL.

208
Q

[Preflight Operation] What is the minimum acceptable condition regarding tire wear?

A

Not worn past the bottom of the tire grooves.

209
Q

[Preflight Operation] How can brake wear be checked?

A

Brake wear indicators. No less than flush with the housing.

210
Q

[Preflight Operation] If gear uplock hook is locked, what must be done?

A

Maintenance action

211
Q

[Preflight Operation] What would a missing safety disc next to the oxygen service panel indicate?

A

Oxygen system has been over-pressurized.

212
Q

[Preflight Operation] How many vortex generators are installed above each wing?

A

12

213
Q

[Preflight Operation] How many vortilons does each wing have?

A

4

214
Q

[Checklist] Who calls for all checklists on the ground?

A

The captain

215
Q

[Checklist] Who may do the termination checklist?

A

FO challenge and the CA responds to all items

216
Q

[Checklist] When must an origination checklist be accomplished?

A

First flight of the day If any maintenance action was performed

217
Q

[Checklist] What items must be checked on the exterior safety inspection?

A

Wheel chocks in place Flight control surfaces clear

218
Q

[Checklist] May a CB be reset prior to power up?

A

Do not reset until contacting MX control.

219
Q

[Checklist] What emergency equipment is located in the cockpit?

A

3 life vests, oxygen masks 2 escape ropes, flashlights, smoke goggles 1 PBE, halon extinguisher, crash axe

220
Q

[Checklist] What procedure used if LED for CVR does not illuminate?

A

Plug headset in the CVR panel, press test and listen for tone.

221
Q

[Icing Conditions] What is a pre-takeoff check?

A

Check of wings or representative surfaces for contaminants within the HOT. May be made by observing representative surfaces.

222
Q

[Icing Conditions] What are considered critical surfaces?

A

Upper/lower wing surfaces Control surfaces Horizontal stabs Engine Inlets Fuselage

223
Q

[Windshear] During any windshear warning, should the aircraft be reconfigured to gear up/flaps 9?

A

No

224
Q

[Engine Starting] Explain the start sequence of the engine.

A

N2 withing 10 seconds Oil pressure rise Ignition on at 14% N2 Fuel flow at 28.5% ITT rise with light off N1 rotation Fuel flow and ITT rise at 31.5%

225
Q

[Engine Starting] How is light-off recognized during engine start?

A

ITT rise (digital numbers)

226
Q

[Engine Starting] When should ignition be placed to on for ground operations?

A

Standing water, ice, slush, snow on runway Prior to engine start for the first flight of the day when the temp is below 10 degrees or cold soaked (90 min shutdown below 10 degrees) Reported Windshear

227
Q

[Engine Starting] When should an engine start be aborted?

A

No light off within 10 secs after fuel flow ITT approaches start limit N2 decreases or remains steady for 30+ secs N2 indicates no rotation within 10 secs of start Any unusual noise or vibration Any abnormal condition Flames visible from exhaust pipe Oil pressure does not reach 34 PSI after stable

228
Q

[Flight Operation General] What are indications of severe damage?

A

No N1 rotation, high ITT, high vibration, high oil temp, low oil quantity, high oil press, abnormal noise or vibration

229
Q

[Flight Operation General] What are the different phases of flight of the FMS lateral deviation scale?

A

Approach - within 2 nm of FAF or if manually activated Terminal - within 30 nm of departure/destination Enroute - beyond 30 nm of departure/destination

230
Q

[Flight Operation General] What happens to the FPA scale when transitioning to the APP mode?

A

VPI scale changes from 250’ per dot to 75’

231
Q

[Flight Operation General] When can you turn after radar vector takeoff in VMC, 2 engines?

A

400’

232
Q

[Flight Operation General] SID says to turn (2 engine), but no altitude published. When can you turn?

A

400

233
Q

[Flight Operation General] IMC, 2 engines operating, not on a SID. When can you turn?

A

1000

234
Q

[Flight Operation General] Standard EFP should be followed and no vectors may be accepted until what altitude?

A

1000

235
Q

[Flight Operation General] A simple special must be followed until what altitude?

A

1000 in radar, 3000 or a safe altitude if higher in non-radar

236
Q

[Flight Operation General] What is method 1?

A

V1 to destination allows obstruction clearance within 5 nm by 1000’.

237
Q

[Flight Operation General] What is method 2?

A

Requires weight ensuring drift down altitude will clear obstructions within 5 nm by 2000’ to at least on suitable alternate airport.

238
Q

[Flight Operation General] If at planned cruise altitude and an engine is lost, how should the aircraft be flown?

A

Set continuous thrust. If unable to hold altitude, decelerate in level flight to Vfs.

239
Q

[Flight Operation General] What speed provides full bank protection?

A

V2+15

240
Q

[Flight Operation General] Does aerodata automatically compute tailwind penalty?

A

No

241
Q

[Flight Operation General] May a flight legally depart when RVR is 500/500/300?

A

No. All three are controlling. Min is 500 (with applicable lighting).

242
Q

[Flight Operation General] When landing, how should VAPP be adjusted?

A

Add 1/2 reported headwind component and the gust factor to Vref. Min 5 knots Max 15 knots flap 45 Max 20 knots flap 22

243
Q

[Flight Operation General] How could we determine decision fuel over flight planned waypoint?

A

Present waypoint flight planned fuel minus hold, extra. Result is burn to destination plus alternate plus reserve.

244
Q

[Flight Operation General] What must you do prior to opening the cockpit door while in flight?

A

Look through the peep hole.

245
Q

[Flight Operation General] What is the initial response to an RA?

A

Turn auto pilot off.

246
Q

[Flight Operation General] If a pilot leaves the cockpit, above what altitude does the other pilot need to put on O2 mask?

A

FL250

247
Q

[Flight Operation General] When conducting an approach, the aircraft must be in the approved landing config no lower than ____.

A

1000 above TDZE IMC and 500 VMC.

248
Q

[Flight Operation General] When should the after landing checklist be accomplished?

A

When clear of the runway and the Captain calls for it.

249
Q

[Flight Operation General] During low vis taxi (<1200 RVR), what charts should be utilized by the crew?

A

SMGS

250
Q

[Flight Operation General] What runway equipment is required for takeoff with RVR 500/500/500?

A

Runway centerline lights, and HIRL. All three RVRs are controlling. One may be inop.

251
Q

[Flight Operation General] During an approach, a pilot may not descend below 100 above TDZE unless what is visible?

A

Red terminating or red side row bars are visible and required flight visibility.

252
Q

[Flight Operation General] The aircraft must remain within how many miles of the shoreline?

A

50 nm except to the extent necessary to maintain safe operation.

253
Q

[Flight Operation General] A clearance is issued to descend below MEA/MORA. What must be checked to determine a safe point to the descent?

A

MEA/MORA/GRID MORA

254
Q

[Flight Operation General] What should be done if the incorrect names are listed on the dispatch release?

A

Print new paperwork or get an amendment to that release with correct names.

255
Q

[Flight Operation General] What considerations should be made during a tarmac delay of two hours?

A

Water, food, lav access

256
Q

[Flight Operation General] What weight to be used for musical instrument in seat?

A

Child weight

257
Q

[Flight Operation General] Emergency brief to FA acronym?

A

T- Time available E- Type of Emergency S- Brace Signal T- Take special instructions

258
Q

[Flight Operation General] When should min fuel be declared?

A

While no specific guidance exists, consider landing at destination or most distant alternate with less than planned reserve a prudent time to declare MIN FUEL.

259
Q

[Flight Operation General] ASAP should be submitted within how long?

A

24 hours of knowing of event

260
Q

[Flight Operation General] When should speed be limited to 200?

A

Within 4 miles of primary airport in class C or D unless above 2500 AGL or operating below the “shelf” of class B.

261
Q

[Flight Operation General] What determines if an alternate is required?

A

1 hour before, 1 hour after ETA destination wx is <2000 and 3 miles.

262
Q

[Flight Operation General] When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When the departure airport is below CAT1 mins.

263
Q

[Flight Operation General] When can a circle to land maneuver be accepted?

A

1000 and 3 or vis/cig mins, whichever is higher

264
Q

[Flight Operation General] The ERJ is under which approach category?

A

Category C

265
Q

[Flight Operation General] What are the maximum holding speeds?

A

MHA-6000: 200 6000-14000: 230 14000 up: 265

266
Q

[Flight Operation General] A crew can contact dispatch through ARINC if above what altitude?

A

FL200

EMB-145 Limitations/ Memory Items (REV08) (2 decks)

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