EM Flashcards
1
Q
Management is:
A
AN ART
2
Q
Engineering is:
A
A SCIENCE
3
Q
Engineers can become good managers only through __________.
A
EFFECTIVE CAREER PLANNING
4
Q
If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what will you do?
A
ALL OF THE ABOVE
5
Q
When an engineer enters management, what is the most likely problem he finds difficult to acquire?
A
ALL OF THE ABOVE
6
Q
What management function refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing them, estimating their likely impact, and determining actions that will lead to the desired outcomes and goals?
A
PLANNING
7
Q
What refers to establishing interrelationships between people and things in such a way that human and material resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the company?
A
ORGANIZING
8
Q
What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?
A
STAFFING
9
Q
What management function involves orienting personnel in the most effective way and channeling resources?
A
DIRECTING
10
Q
Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is necessary to check for deviation and to take corrective action. This action refers to what management function?
A
CONTROLLING
11
Q
What refers to the management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set for them, with great commitment and conviction?
A
LEADING
12
Q
What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in the workforce a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
A
MOTIVATING
13
Q
What refers to the collection of the tools and techniques that are used on a predefined set of inputs to produce a predefined set of outputs?
A
PROJECT MANAGEMENT
14
Q
Which is NOT an element of the project management process?
A
RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT
15
Q
What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?
A
LEADERSHIP
16
Q
In project management, what provides a simple yet effective means of monitoring and controlling a project at each stage of its development?
A
LIFE CYCLE MODEL
17
Q
What project life cycle model is the most relevant for an information technology project?
A
WATERFALL MODEL
18
Q
In project management, “R & D” stands for:
A
RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT
19
Q
In project management, “O & M” stands for:
A
OPERATION AND MAINTENANCE
20
Q
A project manager must be very good in which of the following skills?
A
ALL OF THE ABOVE
21
Q
Project integration management involves which of the following processes?
A
QUALITY PLANNING
22
Q
Project quality management involves all of the following processes except:
A
QUALITY FEATURE
23
Q
What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present, and projected information on internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision making?
A
MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM
24
Q
Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?
A
INTERMEDIATE PLANNING
25
Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level?
TOP MANAGEMENT LEVEL
26
What is the advantage of free-rein style of leadership?
LITTLE MANAGERIAL CONTROL AND HIGH DEGREE OF RISK
27
If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to:
SET GOALS
28
What is defined as the process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently and effectively?
OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT
29
For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he must have a good __________.
INTERPERSONAL SKILLS
30
What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues of territorial power or hidden agenda?
POLITICS
31
The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as __________.
DEPARTMENTALIZATION
32
By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes __________?
AUTHORITY, RESPONSIBILITY, ALL OF THE ABOVE
33
What type of committee do companies or corporations create for a short-term purpose only?
AD HOC COMMITTEE
34
What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished?
EFFECTIVENESS
35
An engineer is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be __________ if he finishes the job within the required period of 20 days.
EFFECTIVE
36
If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his project and still comes out with the same output, he is said to be more __________.
EFFICIENT
37
To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test that is used to measure a person’s current knowledge of a subject?
PERFORMANCE TEST
38
What type of training is a combination of on-the-job training and experience with classroom instruction in a particular subject?
APPRENTICESHIP PROGRAM
39
What type of authority refers to a specialist’s right to oversee lower-level personnel involved in the project regardless of the personnel’s assignment in the organization?
FUNCTIONAL AUTHORITY
40
When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of authority?
STAFF AUTHORITY
41
When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with determining the scope of work and how it is combined in a job. This refers to __________.
DIVISION OF LABOR
42
When structuring an organization, the engineer must be concerned with the grouping of related jobs, activities, or processes into major organizational subunits. This refers to:
DEPARTMENTALIZATION
43
Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternatives using qualitative evaluation?
INTUITION AND SUBJECTIVE JUDGEMENT
44
Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternatives using quantitative evaluation?
RATIONAL AND ANALYTICAL TECHNIQUES
45
What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its philosophy of management, and its purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations?
CORPORATE MISSION
46
What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work enthusiastically toward achieving objectives?
POWER
47
What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both customer’s waiting time and cost of service?
QUEUING THEORY
48
What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze, and solve problems in situations involving limited or partial information about the decision environment?
DECISION THEORY
49
What is a quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined to be used for a number of processes, such as quality control and marketing research?
SAMPLING THEORY
50
The engineer manager must be concerned with the needs of his human resources. What refers to the need of the employees for food, drinks, and rest?
PHYSIOLOGICAL NEED
51
What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job?
TRAINING
52
What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard activities?
BENCHMARK JOB TECHNIQUE
53
What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in a specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise?
FUNCTIONAL ORGANIZATION
54
What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single organizational unit and the various functions are performed by personnel within the unit?
PRODUCT ORGANIZATION
55
What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and skills?
MATRIX ORGANIZATION
56
In which type of organization where the structure can lead to a “dual boss” phenomenon?
MATRIX ORGANIZATION
57
Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization?
RAPID REACTION ORGANIZATION
58
Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization?
INEFFICIENT USE OF SPECIALIST
59
Which one is an advantage of a projectized organization?
EFFICIENT USE OF TECHNICAL PERSONNEL
60
Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization?
SLOWER WORK FLOW
61
Which one is an advantage of a functional organization?
RAPID REACTION TIME POSSIBLE
62
Which one is a disadvantage of a functional organization?
INEFFICIENT USE OF SPECIALIST
63
In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for completion of the project and is often assigned a budget?
MATRIX ORGANIZATION
64
In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion?
LOCATION
65
What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational structure for managing projects?
LOCATION OF THE PORJECT
66
If a project has multidimensional goals, the project manager often uses his __________ to reach a compromise solution.
TRADEOFF ANALYSIS SKILL
67
Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by time, cost, performance, and stakeholder satisfaction?
PROJECT MANAGER
68
Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently and effectively?
FUNCTIONAL MANAGER
69
What is the major activity of the project support office?
ADMINISTRATIVE SUPPORT FOR PROJECTS
70
What is the major activity of the project office?
OVERALL PROJECT MANAGEMENT SUPPORT
71
What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the project’s work content?
LINEAR RESPONSIBILITY CHART
72
What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their responsibilities in each project element?
LINEAR, MATRIX, RESPONSIBILITY INTERFACE
73
What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by using only one-time factor per activity?
CRITICAL PATH METHOD
74
What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by employing three-time estimates for each activity?
PROGRAM EVALUATION REVIEW TECHNIQUE
75
For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stand for?
CRITICAL PATH METHOD
76
For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as PERT. What does PERT stand for?
PROGRAM EVALUATION REVIEW TECHNIQUE
77
What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as an integral component of project management?
ALL OF THE ABOVE
78
The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year?
1957
79
In what year was PERT developed?
1958
80
In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in sequence?
4
81
What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using the Morris model?
FEASIBILITY
82
Risk management is:
CONTROLLING RISK
83
What technique must a manager use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project?
CREATE BUFFER IN THE FORM OF MANAGEMENT CRESERVE OR EXTRA TIME IN SCHEDULE
84
Buying insurance is a form of:
RISK SHARING
85
What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or to mitigate its consequences?
RISK MANAGEMENT
86
What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of risk, costs, and benefits of alternative projects or policies?
RISK-BENEFIT ANALYSIS
87
What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need to get approval from his or her manager?
AUTHORITY
88
What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its objectives?
STRATEGY
89
When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to clients, it is a sign that the engineer manager in charge:
HAS INADEQUATE CONTROL
90
What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the relevance of available information to the problem at hand?
TOLERANCE
91
One of the mnemonic management tools used is SMEAC. What does the acronym SMEAC stand for?
SITUATION, MISSION, EXECUTION, ADMINISTRATION, COMMUNICATION
92
In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for administration, which is the appropriate question the manager will ask?
WHAT DO WE NEED TO GET IT DONE
93
In project management, what is usually the first step underlying the process of performing a project?
IDENTIFY A NEED FOR A PRODUCT OR SERVICE
94
In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is identified, what is usually the next step?
DEFINE THE GOALS OF THE PROJECT AND THEIR RELATIVE IMPORTANCE
95
What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project?
MONITOR AND CONTROL THE PROJECT
96
To consider the consequence of uncertainty on project management, laws on project management are developed. One of which is “A carelessly planned project will take __________ times longer to complete than expected.”
3
97
In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the __________.
GENERAL MANAGER
98
What is a diagram of the organization’s official positions and formal lines of authority called?
ORGANIZATION CHART
99
What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situation?
DECISION MAKING
100
What refers to the activity of incorporating technical know-how with the ability to organize and coordinate workforce, materials, equipment, and all other resources including money?
ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT
101
Defined as the creative problem-solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling an organization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives.
MANAGEMENT
102
Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.”
ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT
103
The following are considered functions of an engineer except:
PHYSICAL EDUCATION
104
A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.
RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT
105
A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product concept into a finished physical term.
DESIGN AND DEVELOPMENT
106
A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts are tested for workability.
TESTING
107
A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.
MANUFACTURING
108
A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction process.
CONSTRUCTION
109
A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company’s customers to meet their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.
SALES
110
A function of an engineer where the engineer works as a consultant for any individual or organization requiring his services.
CONSULTING
111
A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the activities of various institutions, public or private.
GOVERNMENT
112
A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.
TEACHING
113
A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people performing specific tasks.
MANAGEMENT
114
Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.
DECISION MAKING
115
The first step in the decision-making process is to:
DIAGNOSE PROBLEM
116
The last step in the decision-making process is to:
EVAALUATE AND ADAPT DEICISON RESULTS
117
Refers to the evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.
QUALITATIVE EVALUATION
118
Refers to the evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational and analytical.
QUANTITATIVE EVALUATION
119
Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.
PLANNING
120
Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.
STRATEGIC PLANNING
121
The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.
STRATEGIC PLANNING
122
Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with allocated resources.
INTERMEDIATE PLANNING
123
This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.
INTERMEDIATE PLANNING
124
Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with available resources.
OPERATIONAL PLANNING
125
This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.
OPERATIONAL PLANNING
126
This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an organization’s marketing activities related to a particular marketing strategy.
MARKETING PLAN
127
This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in broad terms and by product family.
PRODUCTION PLAN
128
It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.
FINANCIAL PLAN
129
It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan.
HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT PLAN
130
These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are mostly concerned with these plans.
SHORT RANGE PLANS
131
These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken by middle and top management.
LONG RANGE PLANS
132
Plans that are used again and again and focus on managerial situations that recur repeatedly.
STANDING PLANS
133
These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about recurring situations or functions.
POLICIES
134
These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.
PROCEDURES
135
These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.
RULES
136
Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are unlikely to be repeated.
SINGLE USE PLANS
137
A plan that sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains where the required funds will come from.
BUDGET
138
A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.
PROGRAM EVALUATION REVIEW TECHNIQUE
139
A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to support a program.
PROJECT
140
A management function that refers to the structuring of resources and activities to accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.
ORGANIZING
141
The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.
STRUCTURE
142
This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.
FUNCTIONAL ORGANIZATION
143
This type of organization is very effective in similar firms, especially “single business firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization.”
FUNCTIONAL ORGANIZATION
144
This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those involved with a certain type of product or customer.
PRODUCT OR MARKET ORGANIZATION
145
This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries.
PRODUCT OR MARKET ORGANIZATION
146
An organizational structure in which each employee reports both to a functional or division manager and to a project or group manager.
MATRIX ORGANIZATION
147
Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.
LINE AUTHORITY
148
A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior.
STAFF AUTHORITY
149
A specialist’s right to oversee lower-level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless of where the personnel are in the organization.
FUNCTIONAL AUTHORITY
150
A committee created for a short-term purpose and has a limited life.
AD HOC COMMITTEE
151
A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.
STANDING COMMITTEE
152
Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits, selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.
STAFFING
153
An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of the organization.
FORECASTING
154
Refers to the translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and goals.
PROGRAMMING
155
This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.
EVALUATION AND CONTROL
156
Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.
RECRUITMENT
157
Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available the individuals most likely to succeed on the job.
SELECTION
158
In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-workers.
INDUCTION AND ORIENTATION
159
Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job.
TRAINING AND DEVELOPMENT
160
Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.
PROMOTION
161
The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility in the organization.
TRANSFER
162
The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee until he is offered a higher position.
DEMOTION
163
Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.
SEPARATION
164
A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and messages.
COMMUNICATION
165
Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels in the organization.
INFORMATION FUNCTION
166
A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit themselves to the organization’s objectives.
MOTIVATION FUNCTION
167
Function of communication that deals with situations where feelings are repressed in the organization, causing anxiety and affecting performance.
EMOTIVE FUNCTION
168
A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.
VERBAL
169
A means of conveying a message through body language, as well as the use of time, space, touch, clothing, appearance, and aesthetic elements.
NONVERBAL
170
Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a particular goal.
MOTIVATION
171
The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:
INFERIORITY COMPLEX
172
The following are considered theories of motivation except:
GAGARINS THEORY
173
It is a management function that involves influencing others to engage in the work behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals.
LEADING
174
A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions within the organization. This describes:
LEGITIMATE POWER
175
When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests, it is termed as:
REWARD POWER
176
When a person compels compliance with orders through threats or punishment.
COERCIVE POWER
177
When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be identified with the former.
REFERENT POWER
178
Which of the following is NOT a trait of an effective leader?
GREEDY
179
Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives better in the future.
INSPECTION
180
A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their occurrence.
FEED FORWARD CONTROL
181
A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect variances are made.
CONCURRENT CONTROL
182
A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity in order to derive evaluation and steps for improvement.
FEEDBACK CONTROL
183
Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in useful ways.
OPERATION
184
The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently and effectively.
OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT
185
A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the situation.
PRODUCT DESIGN
186
Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement of these facilities.
PRODUCT PLANNING
187
The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long each operation in the production process takes.
SCHEDULING
188
Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.
PURCHASING AND MATERIALS MANAGEMENT
189
The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.
INVENTORY CONTROL
190
The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.
WORK FLOW LAYOUT
191
Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.
QUALITY CONTROL
192
A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.
MARKETING
193
The four P’s of marketing are the following except:
PUBLICITY
194
It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.
PRODUCT
195
Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the product, idea, or service.
PRICE
196
An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached by their customers.
PLACE
197
Defined as communicating information between a seller and a potential buyer to influence attitudes and behavior.
PROMOTION
198
A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or actions.
ADVERTISING
199
The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.
PUBLICITY
200
A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.
PERSONAL SELLING
