ELOs Flashcards

0
Q

Identify the purpose of the Forces Fires Coordination Center

A

When the responsibility for fire support planning and coordination is passed ashore, the FFCC is the senior fire support coordination agency and is responsible for planning, execution, and coordination of all organic and non-organic fires within the operational area

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1
Q

Identify the three functional sections of the Supporting Arms Coordination Center (SACC).

A

The SACC consists of three functional sections: Naval Surface Fire Support Section, Air Support Section and Target Information Center. (Force Fire Coordination Center)

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2
Q

Identify the personnel of the Infantry BN Fire Support Coordination Center

A

BN Fire Support Coordinator, LNO Section, TACP, Shore Fire Control Party (SFCP), 81mm Mortar PLT Rep

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3
Q

Identify the supporting arms coordination process, afloat and ashore, required to conduct fires

A

Control Afloat: Control of all supporting arms rests with the supported commander designed in the initiating order or establishing directive. Normally that would be the CATF or the supported commander for air, NSFS, and artillery used to support the initial landing to the CLF after the required control agencies are established ashore
Transfer of Control Ashore: As coordination agencies go ashore and communication are established between the Direct Air Support Center (DASC) ashore and Navy Tactical Air Control Center (TACC) and the FSCC ashore and the SACC, the process of passing control of supporting arms ashore begins

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4
Q

Identify the parts of a Call for Fire mission

A

3 parts of the Call For Fire: Warning Order, Method of Engagement, Method of Control

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5
Q

List the types of mission that can be used for call for fire

A

Adjust Fire, Fire for Effect, Suppress, Immediate Suppression, SEAD

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6
Q

Identify the six elements in the field artillery/mortar call for fire

A

Observer Identification, Warning Order, Target Location, Target Description, Method of Engagement, Method of Fire Control

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7
Q

Identify the minimum required items that are included in the message to observer

A

Unit to fire, changes to the call for fire, number of rounds in effect, target number

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8
Q

Identify the effects of munitions employed by surface to surface fire support assets

A
Projectile:
Artillery – HE, WP, ILLUM, ICM, SMOKE (M825 – Felt Wedge Smoke) and Excalibur.
Mortars – HE, WP/RP and ILLUM
Fuze :
Artillery – Q/PD, MT, VT, and Delay. 
Mortars – Q, VT and Delay
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9
Q

Identify the elements that are included in the first transmission of the artillery/ mortar call for fire

A

Observer Identification and Warning Order (Type of Mission, Size of Element to FFE, Method of Location)

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10
Q

Identify the elements that are included in the second transmission of the artillery/ mortar call for fire

A
Target Location (Grid, Polar Plot, Shift from Known Point)
Identify
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11
Q

Identify the elements that are included in the third transmission of the artillery/mortar call for fire

A

Target Description, Method of Engagement (Methods of Adjustment, Danger Close, Mark, Trajectory, Ammunition, Volume of Fire, Distribution) and Method of Fire and Control

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12
Q

State the danger close distance for artillery and mortar fire support

A

When the target is within 600m of friendly troops

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13
Q

Determine the criteria for entering the Fire For Effect (FFE) phase of an artillery/ mortar adjust fire mission

A

The observer should always strive for first-round FFE. The accuracy required to fire for effect depends on the accuracy of target location and the ammunition being used.
When the observer is certain that the target location is accurate and desired effect on the target requires little or no adjustment, he announces “Fire for Effect”.
Fire for Effect is entered when the deviation, range, and HOB (if applicable) are correct or if effective fire will result when the range bracket is split
Adjusting round has effects on target
Splitting 100m bracket for a point target
Splitting 200m bracket for an area target

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14
Q

Describe the purpose of a Suppression of Enemy Air Defense (SEAD) mission

A

Used when suppressing enemy air defense for CAS missions
SEAD is that activity that neutralizes, destroys, or temporarily degrades enemy air defenses in a specific area by physical attack and/or electronic warfare. SEAD should be considered when friendly aircraft or unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) cannot complete their missions without critically exposing themselves to enemy air defenses.”

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15
Q

Identify artificial illumination ordnance burn times

A

105mm: 2 minutes
81mm: 1 minute
120mm: 50 seconds

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16
Q

Identify the indirect fire illumination patterns

A

One Gun illumination
Two-gun illumination: simultaneously in the same place
Two gun illumination range spread: illuminated has greater depth when width as seen along the OTL
Two gun illumination lateral spread: illuminated has greater width than depth as seen along the OTL
Four gun illumination pattern: founds burst simultaneously, two rounds parallel and two rounds perpendicular

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17
Q

Identify the elements of the call for fire in which illumination is requested

A

The standard elements of the call for fire will be utilized to request Illumination except: Target description will state suspected and ammunition will be illumination.

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18
Q

State minimum adjustment that can be made with illumination

A

Range: 200m
Deviation: 200m
Height of Burst: 50m

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19
Q

Identify considerations for employing surface to surface illumination

A

Illumination should be used with Caution to avoid the accidental comprise of or interference with a friendly unit by premature or inappropriate fires. Therefore fires must be coordinated before delivery if it is suspected that the effects of these fires will cross the boundary of an adjacent unit.

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20
Q

Identify the six elements in a Naval Surface Fire Support (NSFS) call for fire

A

Observer Identification, Warning Order, Target Location, Target Description, Method of Engagement, Method of Control

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21
Q

State the Danger Close distances for Naval Surface Fire Support

A

750m

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22
Q

Identify the munition capabilities employed by Naval Surface Fire Support ships

A

Projectiles: High Explosive and Illumination
Fuze: Quick, VT, CVT, Time, Delay

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23
Q

Identify the elements that may be included in the first transmission of naval surface call for fire

A

Observer Identification, Warning Order

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24
Q

Identify the elements that may be included in the second transmission of naval surface call for fire

A

Target Location, Target Description, Method of Engagement, Method of Control

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25
Q

Identify the information included in the ship pre-firing report

A

Gun-Target Line, Summit (Altitude) First Salvo Intention, Changes, Ready, and Time of flight

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26
Q

List the sequence in which corrections are transmitted

A

Deviation, Range and HOB

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27
Q

Identify the minimum range corrections

A

Range: Range corrections are sent in multiples of 100m with the smallest being 100m. However a 50m correction may be given when entering the fire-for-effect phase.

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28
Q

Identify the minimum adjustment for height of burst correction

A

HOB: 5m

29
Q

Identify the minimum deviation corrections for an artillery or mortar adjust fire mission

A

Deviation: The smallest deviation you can make when you can make when adjusting on a point target during a precision or destruction mission is 10 meters, for all other missions 30 meters is considers the smallest deviation correction that the observer can make.

30
Q

Define the WERM formula

A

Relationship between OT Range and HOB spotting of burst
Correction= OT Factor X spotting HOB
OT Factor= Range/ 1000

31
Q

Identify the characteristics of a Thermal Laser Spot Imager

A

Power Sources
Disposable battery, Rechargeable battery, External DC power source
Physical Description
Weight: 7.5 lbs. including disposable battery, 6.8 lbs. excluding battery
Fields of View
Narrow: 1.5° x 1.1°, Wide: 5° x 3.75°, E-Zoom: x2 to x4

32
Q

Identify Video Down Link (VDL) characteristics

A

Rover is a lightweight radio receiver, suitable for packing that supports video data downlinks from surveillance aircraft using a variety of communications protocols. The system receives video and telemetry data on a laptop PC or TV monitor. The video stream or still frames can be recorded to the hard drive.

33
Q

Determine the need for SEAD

A

SEAD may be required when a located enemy system on the battlefield poses a potential threat to an aircraft during ingress, terminal attack, and/or egress. This requirement must be weighed against the added complications and risk associated with de-conflicting airborne assets from SEAD operations. For examples, aircraft working in an area of operations with potential, un-located small arms and MANPADS may not require a SEAD mission. However SEAD mission might be necessary in an AO in which a JTAC has observed a ZSU-23-4 in close proximity to the target; despite the addition time and coordination required.

34
Q

Request close air support using DD Form 1972 Joint Tactical Airstrike Request

A

Who should a pre-planned JTAR be submitted to?
Next higher echelon
Who should an immediate JTAR be submitted?
ASOC/DASC

35
Q

List the Offensive Air Support aircraft associated with Close Air Support operations and their capabilities

A

F-18 carries a wide variety of ordnance, include general purpose, cluster munitions, rockets, laser and GPS guided weapons. USMC F-18 carry the Litening sensor and Super Hornets carry the ATFLIR
F-15 carries a large payload of multiple weapons including the AGM130 and J-weapons (JSOW and JDAM). They carry Litening and SniperXR without which they lack an LST capability.
F-16 can carry a wide variety of weapons depending on the theater and the mission. Many pilots in Block 30/40 units are FAC(A) qualified. Depending on the block of aircraft, they may be using any of the following targeting assets: Sniper, Litening, LANTIRN, A-G Radar.
B-1B primarily flies strategic attack and interdiction missions with secondary missions in CAS and counter sea. The B-1’s long loiter time and massive payload make it’s very flexible for combat planners. The B-1 can carry up to 84 x Mk-82 (500-lb bombs), 30 x cluster bomb units or 24 x joint direct attack munitions (JDAM).
B-52H primarily flies strategic attack and air interdiction missions with secondary missions in CAS, SEAD, counter sea, and nuclear missions. The B-52H can carry a maximum of 45 or 51 munitions depending on external pylon configurations and weapons type. The B-52H needs a lot of turning room, and bombing passes must be planned as straight and level. The B-52 will perform most of its missions from higher altitude or in a standoff role. B-52 currently carry Litening pods and can also use their radar for targeting. B-52 itself cannot use MGRS coordinates
A-10 can carry a large and diverse payload of weapons. From GP, LGB, JDAMs, rockets, and has a 30mm cannon. They have Laser Spot Tracker (LST) capability with Pave Penny sensor and also carry the Litening and Sniper sensor.

36
Q

Identify the weaponeering principles

A
Blast
Fragmentation 
Armor Penetration 
Cratering 
Incendiary
37
Q

Identify the characteristics of guns (ranges)

A
M-137 105 mm 
L60 40mm Bofors cannon 
GAU-8 30mm cannon
M230 30mm cannon
GAU-12 25mm Gun
M61A1/2 20mm gun
M197 20mm gun
GAU-18 .50Cal
GAU-21 .50Cal
GAU-17 7.62mm
M240D 7.62mm
38
Q

Identify the characteristics of 2.75 inch Rockets

A

Available warheads are HE, HEAT, RP, Flechette, and Flare. Rockets can be carried and employed by most fighter/attack aircraft

39
Q

Identify the characteristics of 5.00 inch Rockets

A

Available warheads are HE, HEAT, WP, RP, Flechette, and Flare. Rockets can be carried and employed by most fighter/attack aircraft.

40
Q

Identify the characteristics of fixed wing GP ordnance

A

Typical general purpose bomb design: Aerodynamic, case steel case with nose and tail fize wells and explosive fill
MK-80 (Dumb Bombs)
MK-82 is a 500lb class general purpose weapon that has good blast and fragmentation capabilities but poor penetration, incendiary and armor penetration capabilities.
MK-82, GBU-12(LGB), GBU-38(JDAM), BLU-111, BLU-126(LCDB)
MK-83 is a 100lb class general purpose weapon that has good blast and fragmentation capabilities but poor penetration, incendiary and armor penetration capabilities.
Mk-83, GBU-16(LGB), GBU-32(JDAM), BLU-110
Mk-84 is a 2000lb class general purpose weapon that is the best general purpose penetrator, blast, and cratering weapon. It has fairly good fragmentation but poor incendiary and armor penetration capabilities.
Mk-84, GBU-10(LGB), GBU-15 (EO/IR), AGM-130, GBU-24 (LGB), GBU-27 (LGB), GBU-31 (JDAM), BLU-109
M-117 is a 750lb general purpose bomb designed and utilized by the B-52 for carpet bombing.

41
Q

Identify the characteristics of fixed wings CBU ordnance

A

CBU-87has improved efforts in incendiary, fragmentation, and armor piercing capabilities. It consists of 202 bomblets in each container. The CEM can be delivered from most Air Force tactical jets.
CBU-78 consists of a combination of antitank and antipersonnel mines. It provides a means for rapidly laying a minefield. The mines are extremely effective against armored vehicles and personnel for area denial. The 500lb CBU-78 contains 45 antitank and 15 antipersonnel mines.
CBU-89 consists of a combination of antitank and antipersonnel mines. It provides a means for rapidly laying a minefield. The mines are extremely effective against armored vehicles and personnel for area denial. The 700lb CBU-89 contains 94 mines (72 BLU-91 antitank and 22 BLU-92 antipersonnel.
CBU-97 is an anti-armor weapon designed to achieve multiple kills per pass. The canister contains 10 launchers with 4 skeet projectiles each. Each skeet projectiles has an IR sensor that scans a 1200ft x 700ft area in order to lock onto hot spots.

42
Q

Identify the characteristics of fixed wings Laser guided bombs (LGB)

A

Modular, terminally guided ballistic weapon
Target is designed with a laser
LGB three phase of flight: Ballistic Phase, Transition Phase, Terminal Phase

43
Q

Identify the characteristics of fixed wings AGM-65 (Maverick)

A

Used against armor and high value point targets. There are LASER, IR, and EO guided variants. Ranges for this missile can exceed 12nm. It has a 125lb shaped charged warhead designed to kill armor or a 300lb blast warhead for other point targets. Meaning, once launched, it is completely autonomous. The Maverick is used by the F-18, AV-8 and F-16 and is one of the primary CAS weapon used by the A-10.

44
Q

Identify the characteristics for the AGM-114 Hellfire

A

Hellfire is a solid propellant, LASER-guided anti-armor missile that provides pinpoint accuracy from a safe standoff distance. Primarily the AH-1 and the AH-64 can carry the Hellfire. Hellfire has also been employed from the OH-58, H-60, KC-130, MQ-1 and MQ-9. Hellfires have shaped charges that re good against armor, while the M is blast frag and the N is thermo baric both having good effects against small structures and buildings. The L an Army only missile is used in conjunction with the Apache .

45
Q

Identify the characteristics of Griffin ordnance

A

A converted Javelin missile that weights 33lbs with a 13lbs warhead with a Selectable Point Detonate or HOB option; nominal burst height of 7.5 ft. GPS aided with terminal laser guidance that is capable of greater than 90 degree off-bore sight launches with 15-50 time of flight. GPS aided SAL terminal guidance.

46
Q

Identify the characteristics of fixed wing GPS/INS ordnance

A

The JDAM uses an onboard GPS aided INS guidance set. The guidance set when combined with a warhead forms a JDAM Guided Bomb Unit GBU. Other components of the guidance set are a tail assembly and a set of mid body r forward body aero-surface or strakes. Add guidance kit with GPS updated. All weather.
Mk-84(GBU-31 V1), BLU-109 (GBU-31 V3), Mk-83(GBU-32), Mk-82 (GBU-38 and 54)

47
Q

Identify the characteristics of fixed wings HYBRID ordnance

A

The GBU-54 LJDAM was developed adding a laser seeker to the 500lb GBU-38 JDAM GPS guided bomb. It allows engaging both stationary and moving targets on the ground with reduced collateral damage thanks to the combination of the 500lb Mk-82 warhead and the precision strike capability delivered by its dual mode guidance system.

48
Q

Develop an Army CCA

A

1) Observer ID/ Warning Order
2) Friendly Location/Mark
3) Target Location
4) Target Description/Mark
5) Remarks

49
Q

Develop a rotary wing holding plan

A
Battle Position (BP) are maneuver areas which contains firing position laterally and in depth, for attack helicopters.  
Forward Arming and Refueling Point (FARP) is a temporary facility organized, equipped and deployed by an aviation commander and normally located in the main battle area closer to the area of operation than the aviation unit combat service area to provide fuel and ammunition necessary for the employment of aviation maneuver units in combat.  
Holding Area (HA) may be established throughout the battlefield to be used for helicopters awaiting targets or missions.  These HAs serve as informal ACAs while they are in use.  
Firing Point (FP) is a specific point within the BP that is occupied by a single attack helicopter while actually engaging targets.  FP selected by attack helicopter aircrew.
50
Q

Communicate a 5 line attack brief

A

1) A/C call sign, JTAC call sign, 5-line, type control (1,2,3), (BOC or BOT), Ordnance Request
2) My Pos_____________ Marked by___________________
3) Tgt Location (Dir/Dist)
4) Target Description/Marked by____________________
5) Remarks/Additional Information (FAH/LASER Codes/DC/Other Friendlies/Threat locations)

51
Q

List the USMC MAWTS-1 twelve step CAS process

A

0) Air Officer Coordination
1) Routing/Safety of Flight
2) CAS Aircraft Check-In
3) Situation Update
4) Game Plan
5) CAS Brief
6) Remarks/Restrictions
7) Readbacks
8) Correlation
9) Attack
10) Assess effects- execute re-attack or issue Game Plan/ CAS briefs as necessary
11) BDA/BHA
12) routing SOF

52
Q

Select the appropriate method of attack

A

Bomb on Target or Bomb on Coordinate will be identified.
Bomb on Target is any self-derived targeting. Aircraft has to be tally/contact/capture the intended target or aim point.
Bomb on Coordinate attack is used when the JTAC/FAC determine that he can create the desired effects against that target with CAS aircraft and ordnance employing on a specified set of coordinates.

53
Q

Choose the appropriate type of terminal attack control

A

Type 1 control is used when the JTAC must visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target for each attack.
Type 2 control will be used when the JTAC requires control of individual attacks and any or all of the following conditions exist: JTAC is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release; JTAC is unable to visually acquire the target and/or attacking aircraft is unable to acquire the mark/target prior to weapons release.
Type 3 control is used when JTAC requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement, subject to specific attack restrictions.

54
Q

Choose the aircraft interval in order to achieve the desired effect

A

Typical spacing that works well between attacking FW aircraft within a section can be simultaneous, 30 seconds, 1 minute or more.
For RW aircraft interval might/ might not apply, depending on the situation; recommendation to use interval as “simultaneous” or “sequential” when the tactical situation dictates, but not restrict aircraft sections tactics

55
Q

Identify characteristics of the situation update

A

The Situation Update on any critical changes to the battlefield that may have occurred from launch to contact may also be in order. There are multiple things that are going on in the aircraft at all times.

56
Q

Identity the purpose of the attack phase

A

This event does not have a standard written format. What tactics, techinques and procedures will be employed during this critical phase of the attack to ensure that our briefed mission will have predictable results?
To facilitate the execution of these tasks, the terminal controller may request aircrews make advisory calls during the execution of the attack. While none of these calls is mandated by doctrine, the terminal controller may request the following calls from the aircrew in the Remarks portion of the CAS brief: “pushing”, “IP inbound”, “In (with a heading)”, and “Popping”. The JTAC may also request “10 sec and Laser On calls” as a reminder to the aircrew to provide LASER comm when appropriate. These calls will facilitate situational awareness and aid the terminal controller in successfully conducting the CAS mission.

57
Q

Identify when weapons release criteria has been satisfied

A

Weapon release approval is based on assessing aircraft nose position and restrictions established by the JTAC. In the endgame of the CAS mission, there are two things that need to be accomplished: provide final corrections from the mark to assist in target acquisition and to authorize the release of weapons.

58
Q

Identify the characteristics of BDA/BHA report

A

BDA is used to update the enemy order of battle. Accurate BDA is critical for determining if a target should be re-attacked. When able, the terminal controller provides flights with the BDA of their attack as they egress. The terminal controller gives BDA for the flight, not for individual aircraft in the flight. At times, it may not be possible to pass all BDA information. At a minimum, the terminal controller should pass an assessment accomplishment.

59
Q

Identify characteristics of a FAC (A)

A

The FAC A is “A specifically trained and qualified aviation officer who execrises control from the air aircraft engaged in close air support of ground troops. The forward air controller (airborne) is normally an airborne extension of the tactical air control party. A qualified and current forward air controller (airborne) will be recognized across the DOD as capable and authorized to perform terminal attack controller.”

60
Q

Identify characteristics of UAS control measures

A

Restricted Operations Zone (ROZ): The purpose of the ROZ is to deconflict UAS from friendly aircraft A ROZ is airspace set aside as a sanctuary for UAS operations. UAS can operate freely within the confines of ROZ, as long as it is active. A ROZ can be further broken down into three types: Lateral, Altitude, Time.
Airspace Coordination Area (ACA): The purpose of an ACA is to deconflict UAS from indirect fire assets. ACA can be Formal or Informal. Similar to a ROZ, an ACA can also be broken down into three types” Lateral, Altitude, and Time.

61
Q

Identify the characteristics of AC-130 25mm ordnance

A

One GAU-12 five barrel cannon chambered in 25 x 137mm is mounted on the AC-130. It fires at a nominal cyclic rate if 1,800 rounds per minutes and is used primarily for personnel suppression and soft material targets. Burst lengths of 50 to 100 rounds are suitable for most tactical applications.

62
Q

Identify the characteristics of AC-130 30mm ordnance

A

One GAU-23 five cannon chambered in 30 x 173mm is mounted on the AC-130W and AC-130J with a dual-feed system and is integrated on the Palletized Weapon System Roll On/ Off pallet. It fires at a nominal cyclic rate of 200 salvos per minutes and is used primarily for personnel suppression and soft material targets.

63
Q

Identify the characteristics of AC-130 40mm ordnance

A

The M2A1 “Bofors” Cannon fires a variety of 2 pound projectiles. The primarily War Reserve Material stocks are the PGU-9B and PGU9c HEI cartridges. Other cartridge includes PGU-9B HEI-P, the MK-2 series HE-P and HEI-P cartridge and the M-81 series Armor Piercing cartridge, some of which contain a 12 second burn-time racers element. The 40mm may be preferred for CAS in very close proximity to friendlies because of its small frag pattern.

64
Q

Identify the characteristics of AC-130 105mm ordnance

A

The 105mm HE MI is primarily used for personnel incapacitation and material damage against soft targets. The round is available in several configurations based upon fuzing and desired frag. The basic round consists of a brass cartridge filled with M67 propelling charges and projectiles weighting approximately 32.4lb. The round can be fuzed with a variety of point detonating, delay, or proximity fuzes. The rounds does not have any incendiary capabilities but can start unintentional fires if shrapnel lodges in flammable objects. 105mm rounds have a relatively large lethal area. Unlike smaller ordnances lateral or short misses within 50 ft of the target may result in acceptable damage levels to material targets, provided they are in the parameters of the frag spray fan. Obviously, direct hits will yield better damage levels

65
Q

Develop an AC-130 Call For Fire (CFF)

A

1) Observer/Warning Order
2) Friendly Location/Position Marking
3) Target Location
4) Target Description and Target Marking
5) Remarks

66
Q

Identify the members of Marine Corp Company Fire Support Team (FiST)

A

FiST Leader, Artillery Forward Observer, Forward Air Controller/ JTAC, and Mortar Forward Observer

67
Q

Select from a list the duties of each member of the FiST

A

FiST Leader is usually the company executive officer or the weapons platoon commander. Supervises other members of the FiST. Know the Company Commander’s intent for Fire Support. Makes sure that FiST members know which targets are to be attacked with a particular assets before request for fire and 9-lines are created and sent. Plots the following on his map or battle board (indirect fires agencies, Fire Support Coordination Measures, Subordinate and adjacent units, all preplanned targets and targets of opportunity, current request for fire, Current CAS 9-lines to include targets and aircraft routing). If used, updates FiST battle board so that all members have situational awareness during all mission.
Artillery Forward Observer is a Marine Lieutenant that comes from the artillery battery liaison section. The primary responsibility of the Artillery FO is to locate targets, call for and adjust fire, and report the results of fire to the battalion FSCC. Be familiar with the fire support standing operating procedures of the supported and supporting units. Know the tactical situation to include the scheme of maneuver or plan of defense and the enemy situation. Plan artillery fires for the company. Assist the FiST leader and the Company Commander on employment of artillery. Maintain continuous observations of zones of action. Determine target locations, engagement criteria, and trigger points as required, make terrain sketch of area when possible. Report all target and intelligence information n SALUTE format. Maintain FO team location within 100m at all times. Observe and direct other types of fire support when qualifies and authorized.
Forward Air Controller is a Marine aviator or a ground combat arms officer or staff NCO that has been formally trained to be a FAC/JTAC. He supervises a FAC party that consists of him and four radio operators. Control aircraft during terminal phase of CAS missions to assist in target identification and minimize danger to friendly troops. Operate with the assault units of the battalion. Observe and locate targets of opportunity. Direct air strikes against targets. Advise supported company commander on the proper employment of aircraft assets. Gather and report all information of an intelligence nature, including target damage assessment. Stay abreast of the supported units plans, position, and needs. Stay abreast of the enemy situation, location of friendly units and current target list. Request and control aircraft in accordance with the MAGTF air employment plan. Monitor and use the TAR net.
Mortar Forward Observer is an enlisted Marine that comes from the battalion 81mm mortar platoon. Be familiar with the fire support standing operating procedure of the supported and supported unit. Know the tactical situation, to include the scheme of maneuver of plan of defense and the enemy situation. Plan mortar fires for the company. Assist the FiST leader and Company Commander is overall fire support planning and coordination matters. Advise the FiST leader and Company Commander on employment of mortars. Maintain continuous observations of zones of actions. Keep FSCC and the mortar platoon informed of the tactical situation and plans and the location of the supported units. Observe and direct other types of fire support when qualified and authorized

68
Q

Choose the appropriate type of SEAD

A

Continuous SEAD, Interrupted SEAD, and Nonstandard SEAD
Continuous SEAD lasts for two minutes–from one minute prior to the target time to one minute after target time. Rounds impact the SEAD target throughout this period, at the sustained rate of fire, and the period is often expressed as TOT-1 to TOT+1. Minutes are understand
Interrupted SEAD only lasts for thirty seconds—from one minute prior to the target time to 30 seconds prior to the target time. Again, rounds will impact the SEAD target throughout this period at the sustained rate of fire. You will see his standard expressed as TOT-1 to TOT-30 seconds.
Nonstandard SEAD missions allow the observer to set the timing of the fires in plain language. As with the two previous timing options, the CAS target time is the “zero” on a planning timeline. Any timeline required for success of the CAS mission may be requested in the call for fire. When developing a nonstandard plan, bear in mind the rate of ammunition consumption mentioned above. A nonstandard schedule that runs from TOT-7 to TOT +5.

69
Q

Identify the types of control measures to de-conflict friendly fires

A

An Airspace Coordination Area (ACA) is used to ensure aircrew safety and effective use of indirect supporting fires. There are two types of ACAs: formal and informal.
Formal ACA: the formal ACA requires detailed planning. Though not always necessary, formal ACAs should be considered. The vertical and lateral limits of the ACA are designed to allow freedom of action for air and surface fire support for the greatest number of foreseeable targets. Since only the FDC can determine the trajectory for a specific battery firing at a specific target, each target must be evaluated in the FDC to ensure the trajectories of the artillery rounds do not penetrate the ACA.
Informal ACA: Informal ACA can be established using separation plans and may be established by any maneuver commander. This responsibility is usually delegated to the FSC. Aircraft and surface fires may be separated by distance (lateral, altitude, and combination of lateral and altitude) and by time. Distance separation requires less detailed coordination between aircraft and firing units, but can be the most restrictive for aircraft routing.

70
Q

Select attack routing airspace coordinating measures (ACM)

A

Airspace Coordinating Measures are measures employed to facilitate the efficient use of airspace to accomplish missions and simultaneously provide safeguards for friendly forces. The JFC uses the airspace control authority to establish formal ACM. Each component within a joint force maintains an airspace control organization within the senior command facility linked to the airspace control authority. The airspace control authority coordinates the airspace C2 system, assigns responsibilities and develops procedures for planning, implementing and executing airspace control using the airspace control plan and ACO.

71
Q

Identify the types of Airspace Coordination Areas (ACAs)

A

An Airspace Coordination Area (ACA) is used to ensure aircrew safety and effective use of indirect supporting fires. There are two types of ACAs: formal and informal.
Formal ACA: the formal ACA requires detailed planning. Though not always necessary, formal ACAs should be considered. The vertical and lateral limits of the ACA are designed to allow freedom of action for air and surface fire support for the greatest number of foreseeable targets. Since only the FDC can determine the trajectory for a specific battery firing at a specific target, each target must be evaluated in the FDC to ensure the trajectories of the artillery rounds do not penetrate the ACA.
Informal ACA: Informal ACA can be established using separation plans and may be established by any maneuver commander. This responsibility is usually delegated to the FSC. Aircraft and surface fires may be separated by distance (lateral, altitude, and combination of lateral and altitude) and by time. Distance separation requires less detailed coordination between aircraft and firing units, but can be the most restrictive for aircraft routing.