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ECS Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 types of ARMS?

A

1) Nominal 2) Fast 3) Very Fast

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2
Q

How many alert states are there? What are they?

A

AS 1 - ABT / AS 2 - TBM / AS 3 - Passive Search / AS 4 - Radiate disable / AS 5 - CDR Discretion (5-1, 5-3, 5-6) / AS 6 - MCX / AS 7 - destroyed / NMC / AS 0 - moving

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3
Q

What S/ I must be activated while inputting Data into TAB 72?

A

Masked Terrain Maps

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4
Q

What TAB do you use to set the RLRIU (routing logic radio interface unit) for the FU?

A

Tab 68

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5
Q

What is RHI?

A

Range Height Indicator

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6
Q

How many traces are there on the RHI?

A

21

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7
Q

What is the maximum left to right width for RHI?

A

42 KM

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8
Q

What is PPI?

A

Plan Position Indicator

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9
Q

How many beams are in PPI?

A

15

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10
Q

How are the beams arranged in PPI?

A

3 sets of 5

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11
Q

What is the maximum range of the EPP power cables ?

A

75 feet

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12
Q

What is the maximum usable length of the EPP power cables?

A

60 feet

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13
Q

During Initialization, the NFS alignment accuracy UTM coordinate can be no more than ____ from the actual radar location

A

40 KM / 50 M by Raytheon

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14
Q

How many pages does the ECS volumes tab have?

A

55

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15
Q

What tab is used for TBM discrimination Parameters?

A

Tab 15 ( TBM Discrimination Parameters)

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16
Q

What tab specifically displays threats to your theater of operations?

A

Tab 44 ( TBM Threat Set Control )

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17
Q

What tab would you use to configure the system to automatically engage TBM bravos?

A

Tab 78 ( launch decision Parameters )

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18
Q

How many hours of Mode 1 & 3 codes can be input into tab 73 ( KAA - 63 table ) ?

A

48 hours

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19
Q

What is the highest number of canisters that can be stacked in the MSA ?

A

4

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20
Q

What should be mapped first, the STL or the PTL?

A

STL ( secondary target line)

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21
Q

Where is FP search mode located in your tabs?

A

Tab 1 p. 2

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22
Q

Which tab allows you to create a virtual target?

A

Tab 4 ( ASOJ [ Anti Stand Off Jammer ] Virtual Target Control )

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23
Q

Brevity code TIMBER means what?

A

TADIL - J

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24
Q

What is in ECS tab 13?

A

Data Base of Initialization Selection

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25
Q

Local LS’s must be emplaced at a minimum of how far away from each other?

A

90 M

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26
Q

Which S/ I displays the situation centered relative to the cursor selected position?

A

Offset

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27
Q

What is ECS tab 68?

A

Data Communications Control

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28
Q

Which tab can display the 5 most recent faults?

A

Tab 32 ( continuous diagnostics control and review )

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29
Q

What tab and page is ADW (Air Defense Warning) programmed in?

A

Tab 1 page 1

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30
Q

Within how many degrees of the PTL must each local LS be emplaced ?

A

(+/-) 80 degrees

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31
Q

What does the second page of tab 2 allow?

A

It allows the operator to set the DLT and LS prime path modes

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32
Q

What is in ECS tab 99?

A

FP Data Transfer Control

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33
Q

Where is launch Discrimination turned on?

A

Tab 14 p. 3 (Target Display Control)

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34
Q

Where is a jammer strobe display range entered ?

A

Tab 14 p. 2 ( Target Display Control)

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35
Q

What member of the RSOP team is responsible for setting up the OE - 254 ?

A

RSOP OIC Driver

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36
Q

What are the range limits of RL-1?

A

1.3 - 10 KM

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37
Q

On what tab and page is ABT Engagement Range Bias found?

A

Tab 1 p. 1

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38
Q

When doing ISLB you should only consider Terrain between ______

A

3-10 KM

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39
Q

What are the ID Weight Sets?

A
  1. Peacetime 2. Transition 3. War Time
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40
Q

What are the range limits of RL-3?

A

6 - 30 KM

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41
Q

The RSOP evaluation has how many phases?

A

4

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42
Q

Which S/I is used to destroy a missile in flight?

A

HOLD FIRE

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43
Q

Who directs the operator to gather RTG BITE information?

A

BMO

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44
Q

Which tab allows the operator to gather RTG BITE faults detected during tactical operations?

A

Tab 30 ( TWT Select + Transmitter BITE Data)

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45
Q

Brevity code SQUAWK means?

A

Target is emitting

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46
Q

Brevity code SPADES means?

A

No response

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47
Q

What are the authorizations found in tab 1 page 1 in the ECS?

A

ECM - POP UP - Minimum Safe Velocity- Slow Target Engagement - Mode 4 Friend - SIF Friend - Assumed Friend - ARM Class

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48
Q

If you have to enter the coordinates for CRG what tab would you use?

A

Tab 72 (General Purpose Maps Entry)

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49
Q

For table 8 certification the patriot system must rejoin the air battle with in _____ minutes with minimum engagement capability.

A

45 min

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50
Q

What are the 2 types of jammers that can be identified on A-Scope?

A

Quite & Repeater

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51
Q

What are the two lines on the ACO that do not have a number value assigned to them?

A

Line O : Coordinating Altitude and Line P: IFFON / IFFOFF / IFPID / FSCL / PIDON

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52
Q

What is the speed of gale + above force winds?

A

35 NM per hour (41 statue miles)

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53
Q

What is ECS tab 7?

A

LS Control + Wind Speed

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54
Q

What is ECS tab 95?

A

Radar Mapping Train Control

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55
Q

What is ECS tab 91?

A

FP Data Acquisition Mode Select/ Control

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56
Q

What is ECS tab 31?

A

Radar Function Summaries, in percent

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57
Q

Which ACM is labeled H/550-89H /T/F?

A

SUA

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58
Q

What is ECS tab 30?

A

TWT Select & Transmitter Bite Data

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59
Q

In what tab do you compute missing data?

A

Tab 93 ( Sector Mapping Review Control )

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60
Q

If I wanted to identify my Tactical DataBase version, what tab would I use?

A

Tab 13 Data Base of Initialization Selection

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61
Q

What is ECS tab 56?

A

Tailored TBM Search Data

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62
Q

Tab 31 is updated how often?

A

Once every second

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63
Q

What are the 5 search modes ?

A
  1. ) ABT
  2. ) ABT / TBM
  3. ) ABT / CM
  4. ) ABT/ CM/ TBM-SELF
  5. ) TBM
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64
Q

Tab 95, current RS data field must be within how many degrees of the commander azimuth to allow Mapping?

A

+ - 2 degrees

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65
Q

During Data acquisition, MS 3 can begin inputting additional data in only after what tab has been entered?

A

Tab 81 ( Radar Location / Alignment Data Entry )

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66
Q

Where do you find fault data on an ELES Launcher?

A

Tab 16 ( Launcher Fault Data )

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67
Q

What does the acronym BRAA stand for?

A

Bearing, Range, Altitude, Aspect

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68
Q

The _________ Display is a horizontal plot of the ISLB and the OSLB

A

HORP

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69
Q

What type of display is used for fairly level terrain?

A

Display C

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70
Q

During Initialization, what tab appears first?

A

Tab 13 ( Data Base of Initialization Selection )

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71
Q

What is the file EDWA generates on a track as it enters the PCF ?(pre classification filter)

A

CTDR - Composite Track Data Record

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72
Q

Self Defense criteria can be found on what page of Tab 1?

A

Page 4

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73
Q

What tab would you use to define the minimum speed used for slow target engagement?

A

Tab 78 ( launch Decision Parameters)

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74
Q

________ & ________ are the primary air battle functions.

A

Weapons Control & Friendly Protect

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75
Q

H201H Is an example of what ACM?

A

JEZ (joint engagement zone)

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76
Q

The maximum allowable slope of the emplacement site for the EPP must not exceed ____ degrees.

A

10

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77
Q

What S/I shows current condition of the system as assessed by the Status Monitor Mode Control Program ?

A

Operator Asses

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78
Q

What is the maximum length of the RWCIU cable?

A

120 feet

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79
Q

What is the max usable length of the RWCIU cable?

A

100 feet

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80
Q

Radar transmitter & bite data can be found in tab _____.

A

Tab 30 (TWT Select + Transmitter Bite Data )

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81
Q

What is line 2B on the STO?

A

EA Engagement Authority

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82
Q

What S/I caused surveillance of a Target in coverage area to stop & if it continues in sector, is regenerated & new track recorded ?

A

Drop Track

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83
Q

When utilizing RL- 3 capabilities, operators should prefer the LS be at ______ elevation than the RS

A

Lower

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84
Q

Page 1 of TAB 5 is _____ status / Control

A

Asset

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85
Q

What are the 3 types of reconnaissance?

A

Air
Ground
Map

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86
Q

How many Control centers may operate in the tactical net, which may span a radius of several hundred miles?

A

62

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87
Q

How would you connect TADIL A Data / voice to the ICC ?

A

Via a 26 pair cable

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88
Q

According to the Patriot Brigade Gunnery Program an individual should train on RFA drills how often?

A

Twice weekly

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89
Q

What is ECS tab 74 ?

A

Compass Rose Tables

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90
Q

The term ADW Red means what?

A

Attack is imminent or in progress

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91
Q

If you wanted to view unscheduled track actions, you would pull up what tab?

A

Tab 31 (Radar Functions Summary)

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92
Q

The Alternate Search Sector tab page A is used for ?

A

ABT

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93
Q

What is ECS tab 14 ?

A

Target Display Control

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94
Q

What is ECS tab 81?

A

Radar Location / Alignment Data Entry

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95
Q

On what tab and page are Altitude bands found ?

A

Tab 14 p. 2 ( Target Display Control )

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96
Q

What is ECS tab 32?

A

Continuous Diagnostic Control and Review

97
Q

What tab is used to put the radar into battle short?

A

Tab 8 ( FP Control )

98
Q

What are the 6 different threats mentioned in line 2B Of the STO?

A 
FW
TBM
ARM 
CM
UAV
RW
99
Q

What is used to prevent inadvertent ground impact ?

A

Urban upturn, or URLAT

100
Q

On what tab and page would you find URLAT?

A

Tab 1 p. 3

101
Q

What is ECS tab 5?

A

Asset Status / Control

102
Q

Line 2A on the STO is what?

A

ID Authority

103
Q

What is ECS Tab 34?

A

ATM 3 Cold Fire Prevention

104
Q

What is ECS tab 0?

A

Tabular Display Index

105
Q

What is ECS tab 71?

A

Volumes

106
Q

If an ACO is numbered 13G, what does it signify?

A

7th ACO on the 13th day of that month

107
Q

If you are in Tab 1 and you see a DEFCON warning of A what does this mean?

A

ADE , Air Defense Emergency

108
Q

In what tab can you input a ballistic missile operations area (BMOA) ?

A

Tab 72 ( General Purpose Maps Entry )

109
Q

________ represent the greatest threat to the AMD, aviation, and intelligence radar community

A

ARMs

110
Q

What is ECS Tab 96?

A

ISLB

111
Q

When no previous data base is available, which type of emplacement will be selected in tab 91 ( FP Data Acquisition Mode Select / Control ) ?

A

Standard Emplacement

112
Q

Line 4 of the STO is what?

A

ADW

113
Q

Tab 5 in the ECS turns off everything in tab ________

A

70 - Defended Assets

114
Q

What is minimum engagement ?

A

The ability to fire 2 missiles from 2 different launchers

No must fix faults

All tabs are correct

115
Q

The operator can select English or metric units in page 1 of tab ________

A

14 - Target Display Control

116
Q

Does the alternate RSOP team need to meet the same requirements as the primary?

A

Yes

117
Q

What is CAL?

A

Critical Asset List - lists all the assets that the supported commander has determined required AMD protection

118
Q

What will cause the RSOP team to be decertified?

A

Loss of the OIC, NCOIC, or the loss of 4 more team members between certification

119
Q

Page 2 of Tab 5 is ________ Status / Control

A

Volume

120
Q

What function prohibits intercepts under the minimum intercept altitude?

A

URLAT

121
Q

What does the acronym TBEQ stand for?

A

To Be Engaged Que

122
Q

Describe the size and the slope of the fire control area?

A

30 meters x 35 meters and less than a 10 degree slope

123
Q

Equipment crews that score a 95% or better in all related sub areas on the first attempt are designated as what?

A

Distinguished Equipment Crews

124
Q

What is the missile heat time for a PAC - 2 interceptor?

A

25 minutes

125
Q

What is the missile heat time of a PAC - 3 interceptor?

A

10 minutes

126
Q

What is ECS tab 63?

A

Launcher Group Assignments

127
Q

What is ECS tab 44?

A

TBM Threat Set Control

128
Q

Weapons Free is defined as what?

A

Any target not positively identified as a friendly may be engaged

129
Q

What is the maximum number of radar azimuth positions that can be skipped in tab 97 ( Mapping Display/ Control Select Entry ) ?

A

7

130
Q

What is ECS tab 90?

A

Data Collection Control

131
Q

It is recommended that RSOP have ________ members.

A

15

132
Q

What is the maximum number of OCUs that the IDOCS can use?

A

8

133
Q

What is ECS tab 73?

A

KAA - 63 Table AM & PM

134
Q

RL -3 Launcher’s should be located within ________ of the PTL.

A

+ - 60 degrees

135
Q

If terrain or artificial features between the RS and LS exceed ________ (local LS) or ________ (remote LS) above the LOS, radar acquisition may not occur

A

2 degrees , 0.5 degrees

136
Q

How many tracks can as single ECS see on its scope at one time?

A

99

137
Q

Only ________ assets are used in the evaluation process.

A

Active

138
Q

The ECCM Enable S/I will command the radar to use ________ __________ if authorized in tab 54.

A

Frequency Diversity

139
Q

Which report is used to report jamming of radio frequencies ?

A

MIJI

140
Q

On what page of the FP Status Tab would you look to find information about Launcher location ?

A

Page 2

141
Q

In what tab and page are ARM classification parameters modified?

A

Tab 76 page A (Counter ARM Threat Parameters)

142
Q

Which S/I is used to prevent over engagement of a track?

A

Cease Fire

143
Q

What 2 tabs can be used to activated or deactivate assets?

A

Tab 5 & 70
Tab 5 - Asset Status Control
Tab 70 - Defended Assets

144
Q

Brevity code bandit means what?

A

Enemy: not cleared to engage

145
Q

In tab 96 what are the left and right azimuth limits ?

A

5250 - 1150 mil

146
Q

During radar Mapping, which display should be used when the terrain contour is irregular?

A

Display A

147
Q

What does TIBS stand for?

A

Tactical Information Broadcast System

148
Q

Does the local FP address have to be the same as the RLRIU?

A

Yes

149
Q

What 2 indicators on after tab 85 has been entered?

A

LS OPER & DDL

150
Q

When reorienting the RS the operator must first ________, if the is not done the system will have to be _________ for proper system operation.

A

Update the internal database, reinitialized

151
Q

Tab 5 is updated for each entry into tab ________ and ________.

A

70 and 71

152
Q

TBM Threat Set Control (Tab 44) works in conjunction with what other tab ?

A

Tab 56 ( Tailored TBM Search Data )

153
Q

What are the 6 IFF responses ?

A 
Valid 
Invalid
No Response 
Not interrogated 
Valid Ambivalent 
Invalid Ambivalent
154
Q

What is ECS Tab 92?

A

Masked Areas Drawing Control

155
Q

What is ECS tab 15?

A

TBM Discrimination Parameters

156
Q

What is the top down interactive process that covers the full spectrum of ADA operations?

A

Defense Design

157
Q

What is S/ I displays the flight path data and also starts collection and display of flight path history for a hooked track ?

A

Trails

158
Q

What is ECS tab 6?

A

IFF / SIF Control

159
Q

What houses the TADIL - A radio equipment?

A

TCS

160
Q

What is ECS tab 8?

A

FP Control

161
Q

Upon notification, the RSOP OIC has ______ minutes to brief the RSOP team.

A

5 minutes

162
Q

How many Radar frequencies are there?

A

160

163
Q

How many “W” codes are there?

A

5

164
Q

How are the radar frequencies numbered ?

A

0-31

165
Q

Brevity code GADGET means?

A

Radar or emitter equipment

166
Q

What are the 4 phases of RSOP?

A

Preparation, Movement, Survey, Emplacement

167
Q

Which RSOP member validates the PTL ?

A

OIC

168
Q

What form is used to record manual emplacement data for the radar?

A

DA Form 7916 -R

169
Q

The mission of the _________ team is to select the best terrain and equipment sites that enable the patriot battery to perform its mission.

A

RSOP

170
Q

Which tab allows you to set the missile cut off thresholds?

A

Tab 78 ( Launch Decision Parameters )

171
Q

EDWA functions to evaluate both _______ & ________ ID Data?

A

Active & Passive

172
Q

Refraction Parameters are set in which tab and page?

A

Tab 1 page 3

173
Q

When will the system automatically engage an ARM ?

A

When the ARMs GIP is within 2 KM of the patriot RS

174
Q

How many targets can have trails on each MS ?

A

4

175
Q

What tab is used to view the IFF response from and interrogated track?

A

Track Amp Data

176
Q

What is the range estimate S/I used for?

A

Used to enter an estimated ranged for a non ranged resolved jammer

177
Q

Who does the ID authority originate with?

A

AADC

178
Q

What is ECS tab 79?

A

Identification Parameters

179
Q

What S/I works in conjunction with tab 71 ?

A

ID Areas & Weapon Control Areas

180
Q

What is ECS tab 16?

A

LS Fault Data

181
Q

In what tab would you select your data acquisition mode?

A

Tab 91

182
Q

There is only one input that allows the operator input to Launcher scoring, what is it?

A

Depletion rule set in tab 78 ( Launch Decision Parameters )

183
Q

What is ECS tab 9?

A

Reorientation

184
Q

What is ECS tab 4 ?

A

ASOJ Virtual Target Control

185
Q

Once you power up the RS, how long does it take for the temperature control components to become stable?

A

20 minutes

186
Q

Brevity code ALLIGATOR means ?

A

TADIL - A

187
Q

What is ECS tab 78?

A

Launch Decision Parameters

188
Q

In what tab do you recycle the radar ?

A

Tab 30 page 2 (TWT Select + Transmitter Bite Data)

189
Q

What is ECS tab 1 ?

A

FIDOC + Operational Parameters Change

190
Q

What is ECS tab 85?

A

Launcher Location/ Alignment

191
Q

Who disseminates the STO, ACO, CAL/ DAL?

A

ADAFCO

192
Q

When entering assets for defense, if you enter an AT asset, what is the size of the TBM defense that is automatically enabled ?

A

2 KM

193
Q

What is ECS tab 94?

A

Horizon Plot Control

194
Q

How many corrals can be programmed in each sector of display E?

A

6

195
Q

Tab 85 will not be displayed until you have completed what tab ?

A

Tab 68 (Data Communications Control)

196
Q

What is ECS tab 54?

A

Radar Frequency Control

197
Q

What is ECS tab 55?

A

Alternate Search Sector Control

198
Q

An order that directs AMD units to posture their systems IAW the current enemy and friendly situations is called the ________ .

A

STO - Surface To Air Missile Tactical Order

199
Q

What tab would you use input a minimum risk route into the system ?

A

Tab 71 (Volumes)

200
Q

What is ECS tab 76?

A

Counter ARM Threat Parameters

201
Q

While preparing the ECS for power- up & operation, CM2 verifies that the lighting control panel Normal - off maintenance switch is set to ________ .

A

Normal

202
Q

In what tab can you find out how many minutes you have remaining on your recording device ?

A

Tab 90 (Data Collection Control)

203
Q

What are the 5 IFF Conditions ?

A 
Emergency 
IP
Garble 
Multi Reply
Spoof
204
Q

What are the 3 TBM Assets?

A

Point
Radial
Polygon

205
Q

What are the 2 ABT Assets ?

A

Point

Radial

206
Q

Final IFF authorization found where?

A

Tab 6

207
Q

What tab would you go to save your tabular entires during Initialization?

A

Tab 98 (Data Base Control)

208
Q

On what tab would you look toy find the 5 most recent radar faults ?

A

Tab 32 (continuous diagnostics control and review)

209
Q

The 9 most threatening targets will be found on the left side of what tab?

A

Engage Data

210
Q

What are the 4 attributes found in tab 71?

A

ORIG - origin
SPC - safe passage corridor
RVA - restricted volume attribute
PVA - prohibited volume attributed

211
Q

What are the 3 major preclassification tests that are run by the PCF ?

A

Minimum distance test
Slow speed test
False target test

212
Q

What is ECS tab 97?

A

Mapping Display / Control Select Entry

213
Q

What is ECS tab 93 ?

A

Sector Mapping Review Control

214
Q

What is line H on the ACO ?

A

F50H - F99H BDZ - Base Defense Zone

215
Q

What type of ACM is 123H ?

A

HIDAZ

216
Q

What is line C of the ACO ?

A

LOMEZ

217
Q

The WFZ is on which line of the ACO?

A

Line F

218
Q

Brevity code BOGEY means?

A

Unknown

219
Q

How many IFF conditions are there?

A

5

220
Q

Display A allows the operator to enter how many azimuth positions?

A

69

221
Q

What is the time between the 1st and 2nd shot of a modified ripple ?

A

4.8 seconds delay / unless the LNIP is less than 9KM, then it’s 3.2 second delay

222
Q

What is the distance that a track has to move from its original detected position for it to pass minimum safe distance test ?

A

3% or 1 KM

223
Q

What are the 2 states of classification ?

A

Confirmed and presumed

224
Q

Which tracks bypass the PCF ?

A

Continuous jammers
Down- told tracks from the ICC
Targets classified as a TBMS

225
Q

When must the ACO be activated or deactivated ?

A

+ - 30 seconds from the time specified on the ACO

226
Q

When is the SAMSTAT report ?

A

0001Z
After an RFA Drill
Alert State Assumptions
And any change in equipment status

227
Q

How many methods of Fire are there?

A

5 (4)

228
Q

How many methods of Fire are available to the operator?

A

3

229
Q

This tab allows you to tailor the EDWA process on classifying a track as an ARM, what is it?

A

Tab 76

230
Q

How are changes to tab 55 activated?

A

Alternate Search Sector 1
Alternate Search Sector 2
Drop long range
Drop short range (as appropriate)

231
Q

In what line of the STO would you look to find you’re directed alert state ?

A

Line 6

232
Q

The purpose of the _________ is to point out terrain features that could mask out air craft ?

A

MTM

233
Q

How far is the short shot on the AMG ?

A

10KM

234
Q

Winds are considered to be gale force at ________ NM per hour.

A

35

235
Q

In what tab are mode 1 & 3 codes programmed ?

A

Tab 73

236
Q

In which tab are pop up Parameters programmed ?

A

Tab 79

237
Q

What must the computer control program select switch must be set to load operational software?

A

Tactical

238
Q

A patriot pure fire unit is required to deploy with at least how many launchers to complete a table 8 certification?

A

5

239
Q

The ACO will tell you which volume to activate in tab _______.

A

5

PMG (9 decks)

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