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ECOSI > ECOS Midterm Review > Flashcards

ECOS Midterm Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 osteopathic principles?

A

1) The body is a unit; the person is a unit of body, mind, and spirit
2) The body is capable of self regulation, self healing, and health maintenance.
3) Structure and function are reciprocally interrelated.
4) Rational treatment is based on an understanding of the basic principles of body unity, self regulation, and the interrelationship of structure and function.

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2
Q

Who was the first African American president of the OA?

A

William G. Anderson

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3
Q

Who was the first woman to receive a D.O. degree?

A

Jeanette Bolles

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4
Q

What are the 5-models in diagnosis?

A

1) Biomechanical
2) Respiratory-Circulatory Model
3) Neurological Model
4) Metabolic-Energy Model
5) Behavioral Model

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5
Q

What system(s) are in the Biomechanical Model?

A

Musculoskeletal System

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6
Q

What system(s) are in the Respiratory-Circulatory Model?

A

HEENT (NT part), Cardiac, and Respiratory

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7
Q

What system(s) are in the Neurological Model?

A

HEENT (HEE part), Neurologic, Endocrine, and Immune System

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8
Q

What system(s) are in the Metabolic-Energy Model?

A

Genitourinary and Gastrointestinal Systems

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9
Q

What system(s) are in the Behavioral Model?

A

Psychosocial System

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10
Q

What is the acronym for the ways of expressing empathy? What does this acronym stand for?

A

NURSE

Name, Understand, Respect, Support, Explore

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11
Q

What can cause the BP to read falsely high?

A

The cuff being too large on a large arm.
The cuff being too small.
The brachial artery BELOW the heart.

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12
Q

What can cause the BP to read falsely low?

A

Brachial artery ABOVE the heart.

Cuff too large on a small arm.

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13
Q

Which way do you pull an adult’s ear to look into their ear canal?

A

Pull outer ear up and back

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14
Q

Which way do you pull a child’s ear to look into their ear canal?

A

Pull outer ear down and back

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15
Q

What are the landmarks of “ideal posture”

A

External auditory meatus, greater tubercle of humerus, third lumbar vertebrae, sacrum, greater trochanter of the femur, lateral femoral condyle, lateral malleolus

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16
Q

What are the steps of the stance phase?

A

Heel strike, loading response, mid-stance, terminal stance, pre-swing

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17
Q

What are the steps of the swing phase?

A

Toe-off, mid swing, terminal swing

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18
Q

What gait pathologies are of neurologic etiology?

A

Ataxic, Hemiparesis, Scissor, Steppage/Foot drop, Parkinsonian

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19
Q

What gait pathologies are of musculoskeletal etiology?

A

Waddle/Trendelenburg, Antalgic

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20
Q

What are the end feels during range of motion and what are they associated with?

A 
Elastic - Like a rubber band
Empty - Stops due to guarding
Crisp - Involuntary muscle guarding - as in pinched nerve
Hard - Somatic Dysfunction
Abrupt - Hinge joint or osteoarthritis
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21
Q

What is linkage?

A

The relationship of joint mechanics with surrounding structures.

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22
Q

What is coupled motion?

A

A motion along one axis is associated with another motion about a second axis.

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23
Q

What are pertinent findings of Menkes disease?

A

Kinky hair, growth failure, CNS deterioration

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24
Q

What are pertinent findings of Ehler-Danlos Syndrome?

A

Drooping eyelids, myopia, antimongoloid slant

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25
Q

What are pertinent findings of Osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Blue sclera, multiple fractures

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26
Q

What are pertinent findings of Alport syndrome?

A

Deafness, kidney dysfunction

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27
Q

What are pertinent findings of Scurvy?

A

Vitamin C deficiency

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28
Q

What does CAGE stand and when should it be used when interviewing a patient?

A

C - Cut back
A - Annoyed
G - Guilty
E - Eye opener

Potential alcohol abuse

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29
Q

What does SAFE stand for and when should it be used when interviewing a patient?

A

S - Stress/Safety
A - Afraid/Abused
F - Friends/Family
E - Emergency Plan

Potential domestic violence

30
Q

What are the CDC recommended daily activities and exercise amount for adults and kids?

A

Adults - 150 minutes per week of moderate activity and 2 days of strength training that focuses on all major muscle groups.

Kids (>6) - 1 hour or more of physical activity.

31
Q

What is the Centor score?

A

It tests the likelihood of Strep

32
Q

What are the ways to get points in the Centor score?

A 
Temp over 38 degrees Celsius
Absence of cough
Swollen lymph nodes
Tonsillar swelling or exudates
Age 3-14
33
Q

What foods are high in Vitamin A?

A

Dark green and yellow vegetables and tomatoes.

34
Q

What foods are high in Vitamin D?

A

Mushrooms

35
Q

What foods are high in Vitamin E?

A

Wheat germ and avocado

36
Q

What foods are high in Vitamin K?

A

Green leafy vegetables, fruits, and dairy

37
Q

What foods are high in Vitamin B1 (Thiamin)?

A

Legumes

38
Q

What foods are high in Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)?

A

Wheat germ and leafy vegetables

39
Q

What foods are high in Vitamin B3 (Niacin)?

A

Legumes and wheat

40
Q

What foods are high in Vitamin B6?

A

Animal products, vegetables, whole grains

41
Q

What foods are high in Vitamin B9 (folate)?

A

Leafy vegetables, fruits

42
Q

What foods are high in Vitamin 12 (Cobalamin)?

A

Eggs, dairy products, meats (NONE in plants)

43
Q

What foods are high in Vitamin C?

A

Fruits and vegetables

44
Q

What foods are high in Calcium?

A

Dark leafy vegetables, tofu, broccoli, cauliflower

45
Q

What foods are high in iron?

A

Dark leafy vegetables, broccoli, cauliflower, lentils, tofu

46
Q

What vitamins are fat soluble?

A

Vitamin A, D, E, K

47
Q

What vitamins are water-soluble?

A

Vitamin B1, B2, B3, B6, B9, B12, C, Calcium, and Iron

48
Q

How to calculate BMI?

A

Weight (kg)/height (m)^2

49
Q

What are the ranges for BMI?

A

18-25 is healthy
25-29.9 is overweight
> 30 is obese

50
Q

What is “stoic” with reference to TART findings?

A

Distinct palpable TTA without tenderness.

51
Q

What is “maverick” with reference to TART findings?

A

TP with treatment position opposite to region.

52
Q

What is “washout” with reference to counterstrain?

A

Metabolic “washout phase” is a process that occurs 1-15 seconds after optimal position is achieved when performing counterstrain.

53
Q

What muscles are responsible for a type 1 SD in the thoracic area?

A

Multifidus and semispinalis muscles

54
Q

What muscles are responsible for a type 2 SD in the thoracic area?

A

Rotatores brevis

55
Q

What muscle does hip flexion affect?

A

Iliopsoas

56
Q

What muscle does hip extension affect?

A

Gluteus maximus

57
Q

What muscle does hip abduction affect?

A

Gluteus medius and minimus

58
Q

What muscle does hip adduction affect?

A

Adductor longus, brevis, magnus, pectinius, an gracilis

59
Q

What muscle does hip external rotation affect?

A

Internal and external obturators, quadratus femoris, superior and inferior gamelli

60
Q

What muscle does hip internal rotation affect?

A

Iliopsoas

61
Q

What is the condition characterized by tingling, numbness and burning pain in the outer part of your thigh? What causes this?

A

Meralgia Paresthetica. Compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, which supplies sensation to your upper leg. Examples: gun on hip, wallet in pocket, etc.

62
Q

What do positive Ortolani and Barlow signs usually result in?

A

Hip Dysplasia

63
Q

What are the ottawa knee rules? (Do not need to know for this test but good information to know for the future).

A

1) Patient is aged 55 years or older
2) Isolated tenderness of the patella
3) Inability to flex the knee to 90 degrees
4) Inability to bear weight both immediately and in the emergency department

64
Q

What test is used to check for IT Band syndrome?

A

Noble test

65
Q

What are the Ottawa ankle rules?

A

Option 1: Patient has pain over the malleolar zone

  • Must have at least one of the following:
    • Bone tenderness at the posterior tip of the medial or lateral malleolus
    • Unable to bear weight immediately after injury AND unable to walk 4 steps in the doctor’s office/ER

Option 2: Patient has pain in the midfoot region

  • Must have at least one of the following:
    • Bone tenderness at the FIFTH metatarsal or the NAVICULAR
    • Unable to bear weight immediately after injury AND unable to walk 4 steps in the doctor’s office/ER
66
Q

Compared to the general population, what are survivors of childhood trauma likely to experience?

A
  • Attempted suicide
  • Eating disorder
  • IV drug use
67
Q

Study Counterstrain

A

Study Counterstrain

68
Q

What are typical of Type 1 somatic dysfunctions?

A

Neutral, grouped segments, opposite sidebending and rotation

69
Q

What are typical of Type 2 somatic dysfunctions?

A

Flexion or extension, single segments, same sidebending and rotation

70
Q

What specialty tests are good for piriformis syndrome?

A

Log roll and FAIR

71
Q

What specialty tests are good for psoas sydrone?

A

Thomas test and FABER

72
Q

What is the Thomas test?

A

Pt lays on the table with lower half of their legs hanging off the table. Ask the pt to bring both of their knees to their chest. Then have the pt drop one of their legs. The test is positive if the pt’s leg does not return fully to the table.

ECOSI (5 decks)

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