Economic Concepts Missed MCQ's 6.15.23 Flashcards

1
Q

Sago Co. uses regression analysis to develop a model for predicting overhead costs. Two different cost drivers (machine hours and direct materials weight) are under consideration as the independent variable. Relevant data were run on a computer using one of the standard regression programs, with the following results:

Which regression equation should be used?

A. y = 4,600 + 1.3x
B. y = 2,500 + 5.0x
C. y = 2,500 + 3.5x
D. y = 4,600 + 2.6x

A

B. y = 2,500 + 5.0x

The simple regression equation is y = a + bx, given that y is the dependent variable, a is the y-axis intercept, b is the slope of the regression line, and x is the independent variable. The coefficient of determination (r²) is the appropriate tool for determining which cost driver to use because the value of r² indicates the proportion of the total variation in y that is explained by the regression equation. Since machine hours has a higher r² than direct materials weight, the coefficients for machine hours are the better choice to predict costs. Consequently, the regression equation is y = 2,500 + 5.0x.

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2
Q

A measure that describes the risk of an investment project relative to other investments in general is the

A. Coefficient of variation.
B. Beta coefficient.
C. Expected return.
D. Standard deviation.

A

B. Beta coefficient.

The required rate of return on equity capital in the capital asset pricing model is the risk-free rate (determined by government securities), plus the product of the market risk premium times the beta coefficient (beta measures the firm’s risk). The market risk premium is the amount above the risk-free rate that will induce investment in the market. The beta coefficient of an individual stock is the correlation between the volatility (price variation) of the stock market and that of the price of the individual stock.

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3
Q

A normal profit is

A. The same as an economic profit.
B. An explicit or out-of-pocket cost.
C. A cost of resources from an economic perspective.
D. The same as the accountant’s bottom line.

A

C. A cost of resources from an economic perspective.

Normal profit is the level of profit necessary to induce entrepreneurs to enter and remain in the market. Economists view this profit as an implicit cost of economic activity.

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4
Q

What is the amount needed to close the recessionary gap if the economy’s full-employment real gross domestic product (GDP) is $1.2 trillion and its equilibrium real GDP is $1.0 trillion?

A. $200 billion divided by the multiplier.
B. $200 billion times the reciprocal of the marginal propensity to consume (MPC).
C. $200 billion multiplied by the multiplier.
D. $200 billion.

A

A. $200 billion divided by the multiplier.

The $200 billion difference between full-employment GDP and equilibrium GDP can be eliminated by additional consumption, government spending, or exports. Because of the multiplier effect, the amount of the increase can be less than $200 billion. The amount of additional activity necessary to close the gap is ($200 billion ÷ Multiplier).

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5
Q

The monopoly firm has a patent that is about to expire. A new start-up firm has entered the market with a new method and has applied for patent protection. Which of the strategies below make the most economic sense for the monopoly firm?

A. I only.
B. II only.
C. III only.
D. I and II only.

A

D. I and II only.

Given adequate demand and sufficiently low costs, a monopoly firm earns a profit in the long-run and will continue production. A monopoly that succeeds in preventing the entry of new firms capable of producing its product will sooner or later find its barriers circumvented by innovations, which is why it is important that a monopoly firm shifts its business model to keep up with changes in the industry. Therefore, it would make economic sense for the monopoly firm to acquire the start-up firm.

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6
Q

The Waymand family typically ate hamburger as a staple in their diet. In the last few years, the family’s income has doubled, and they have now replaced hamburger with steak as a staple in their diet. This is an example in which the demand for hamburger

A. Responds as an inferior good.
B. Is relatively inelastic.
C. Is relatively elastic.
D. Is perfectly elastic.

A

A. Responds as an inferior good.

Consumers purchase more (less) of a normal good (such as steak) at every price when income levels increase (decrease). The opposite is true of inferior goods (such as hamburger). These effects result because normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand and inferior goods have a negative income elasticity. Income elasticity of demand equals the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in income.

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7
Q

The coefficient of determination, r squared, in a multiple regression equation is the

A. Coefficient of the independent variable divided by the standard error of the regression coefficient.
B. Percentage of variation in the dependent variable explained by the variation in the independent variables.
C. Measure of the proximity of actual data points to the estimated data points.
D. Percentage of variation in the independent variables explained by the variation in the dependent variable.

A

B. Percentage of variation in the dependent variable explained by the variation in the independent variables.

The coefficient of determination, or the coefficient of correlation squared, measures the fit between the independent and dependent variables. In a multiple regression equation, it is the proportion of the total variation in one dependent variable that is accounted for by two or more independent variables.

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8
Q

As the price for a particular product changes, the quantity of the product demanded changes according to the following schedule.

Using the arc method, the price elasticity of demand for this product when the price decreases from $50 to $45 is

A. 10.00
B. 0.20
C. 0.10
D. 3.80

A

D. 3.80

A product’s price elasticity of demand is measured as the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price. When price falls from $50 to $45, the coefficient is 3.8, calculated as follows:

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9
Q

Many assumptions and factors may be considered to determine the fair value except

A. Market value.
B. Historical cost.
C. Net realizable value.
D. Expected costs.

A

B. Historical cost.

Fair value is generally current market value which is independent of historical costs.

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10
Q

If Wilkens Company uses the high-low method of analysis, the equation for the relationship between hours of activity and maintenance cost would be

A. y = 570 + 7.5x
B. y = 570 + 9.0x
C. y = 3,600 + 400x
D. y = 400 + 9.0x

A

A. y = 570 + 7.5x

First, determine the months with the highest (520 hours in August) and lowest (300 hours in April) levels of activity.

As the hours increased by 220, cost increased by $1,650, which is $7.50 ($1,650 ÷ 220) per hour. Thus, at 300 hours of activity, the total variable costs are $2,250 ($7.50 × 300 hours). Since the total cost was $2,820, the $570 ($2,820 – $2,250) above the variable costs must be fixed costs. Substituting into the standard regression equation of y = a + bx gives y = $570 + $7.50x.

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11
Q

When risk is evaluated, which of the following risk responses is generally considered a sharing response?

A. Diversifying product offerings.
B. Entering into syndication agreements.
C. Reallocating capital among operating units.
D. Rebalancing the asset portfolio to reduce exposure to certain types of losses.

A

B. Entering into syndication agreements.

Risk sharing is action taken to reduce the severity of the risk by transferring a portion of the risk to another party. Examples include insurance, hedging, joint ventures, and outsourcing. A syndication agreement is a contract between the arranger and the other participants that shares risk among all parties.

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12
Q

Which of the following describes the most effective preventive control to ensure proper handling of cash receipt transactions?

A. Use predetermined totals (hash totals) of cash receipts to control posting routines.
B. The employee who receives customer mail receipts prepares the daily bank deposit, which is then deposited by another employee.
C. One employee issues a prenumbered receipt for all cash collections; another employee reconciles the daily total of prenumbered receipts to the bank deposits.
D. Have bank reconciliations prepared by an employee not involved with cash collections and then have them reviewed by a supervisor.

A

C. One employee issues a prenumbered receipt for all cash collections; another employee reconciles the daily total of prenumbered receipts to the bank deposits.

Sequentially numbered receipts should be issued to maintain accountability for cash collected. Such accountability should be established as soon as possible because cash has a high inherent risk. Daily cash receipts should be deposited intact so that receipts and bank deposits can be reconciled. The reconciliation should be performed by someone independent of the cash custody function.

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13
Q

An issuer’s audit committee has established procedures on submissions by employees of questionable accounting and auditing matters. Those procedures require the following:

Which of the above procedures will likely result in a violation of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002?

A. I and II only.
B. I only.
C. II only.
D. I, II and III.

A

A. I and II only.

The procedure requiring employees to identify themselves will likely violate the Sarbanes-Oxley Act because submissions should be made anonymously. Additionally, the procedure requiring that all submissions be presented to senior management will likely violate the Sarbanes-Oxley Act because submission should be confidential.

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14
Q

Which of the following risk responses is not effective in managing cyber risks?

A. Risk avoidance.
B. Risk acceptance.
C. Risk reduction.
D. Risk sharing.

A

A. Risk avoidance.

Since the business context of an organization and cyber risks are constantly evolving, responses that aim to avoid cyber risks are ineffective or nearly impossible to implement.

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a principle related to the information, communication, and reporting component of the COSO ERM framework?

A. The organization reports on risk, culture, and performance at multiple levels and across the entity.
B. The organization uses communication channels to support ERM.
C. The organization identifies risks that disrupt operations of the ERM.
D. The organization leverages its information systems to support ERM.

A

C. The organization identifies risks that disrupt operations of the ERM.

“The organization identifies risks that disrupt operations and affect the reasonable expectation of achieving strategy and business objectives” is one of the five principles related to the performance component of the COSO ERM framework. The three principles related to the information, communication, and reporting component of the COSO ERM framework are 1) the organization leverages its information systems to support ERM, 2) the organization uses communication channels to support ERM, and 3) the organization reports on risk, culture, and performance at multiple levels and across the entity.

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16
Q

A client uses a service organization to process its payroll. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the user auditor’s use of the service auditor’s report on internal controls placed in operation?

A. The client’s auditor can use the service auditor’s report without inquiring about the service auditor’s reputation.
B. The service auditor’s report should be referred to in the report of the client’s auditor.
C. The client’s auditor can use the service auditor’s report to jointly determine the materiality level.
D. The client’s auditor can use the service auditor’s report as audit evidence for the client’s internal controls.

A

D. The client’s auditor can use the service auditor’s report as audit evidence for the client’s internal controls.

If the user auditor is unable to obtain a sufficient understanding of the controls from the user entity, the user auditor may use a service auditor’s SOC 1 type 1 report that expresses an opinion on the fair presentation of management’s description of the service organization’s system and whether the controls are suitably designed. A SOC 1 type 2 report also expresses an opinion on whether the controls were operating effectively.

17
Q

According to the COSO ERM framework, which of the following is not a characteristic of business objectives?

A. Measurable.
B. Specific.
C. Observable.
D. Dynamic.

A

D. Dynamic.

According to the COSO ERM framework, business objectives are (1) specific, (2) measurable or observable, (3) obtainable, and (4) relevant. Business contexts may be characterized as dynamic, complex, or unpredictable. A dynamic business context means new, emerging, and changing risks can appear at any time.

18
Q

The characteristics of business objectives according to COSO ERM framework is?

A
  1. Specific
  2. Measurable or observable
  3. Obtainable
  4. Relevant
19
Q

Which of the following is not a principle related to the review and revision component of the COSO ERM framework?

A. The organization reviews entity performance results and considers risk.
B. The organization pursues improvement of ERM.
C. The organization identifies and assesses changes that may substantially affect strategy and business objectives.
D. The organization develops and evaluates its portfolio view of risk.

A

D. The organization develops and evaluates its portfolio view of risk.

“The organization develops and evaluates its portfolio view of risk” is one of the five principles related to the performance component of the COSO ERM framework. The three principles related to the review and revision component of the COSO ERM framework are the organization (1) identifies and assesses changes that may substantially affect strategy and business objectives, (2) reviews entity performance results and considers risk, and (3) pursues improvement of ERM.

20
Q

Under COSO ERM, the three principles related to review and revision is?

A
  1. Identifies and assesses changes that may substantially affect strategy and business objectives.
  2. Reviews entity performance results and considers risks.
  3. Pursues improvement of ERM.
21
Q

An entity determined that its variable interest rate on borrowing will increase significantly in the near future. Consequently, the entity hedged its variable rate by locking in a fixed rate for the relevant period. According to COSO, this decision is which type of response to risk?

A. Acceptance.
B. Sharing.
C. Reduction.
D. Avoidance.

A

B. Sharing.

Sharing reduces the risk by transferring a portion of the risk to another party. By entering into a hedging transaction, the entity transferred a portion of the risk to the party that offered the fixed rate.

22
Q

Computer Services Company (CSC) processes payroll transactions for schools. Drake, CPA, is the service auditor engaged to report on CSC’s description of the controls implemented and their design as of a specific date (SOC 1 type 1 report). Drake’s report expressing an opinion on CSC’s controls implemented as of a specific date should contain a(n)

A. Opinion on the operating effectiveness of CSC’s controls.
B. Opinion on whether the controls are suitably designed.
C. Paragraph indicating the basis for Drake’s assessment of the risks of material misstatement.
D. Statement that CSC’s management has disclosed to Drake all design deficiencies of which it is aware.

A

B. Opinion on whether the controls are suitably designed.

The reports obtained by the user auditor are called SOC 1 reports (type 1 or type 2). A SOC 1 type 1 report expresses an opinion on the fair presentation of management’s description of the service organization’s system and whether the controls are suitably designed at the specified date. A SOC 1 type 2 report expresses not only the type 1 opinions but also an opinion on whether the controls were operating effectively (meeting the control objectives). Service auditors also may prepare SOC 2 and SOC 3 reports to provide assurance on more than internal controls over financial reporting (e.g., security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, or privacy). SOC 2 reports are to be used by those identified in the report, and SOC 3 reports may be used by anyone.