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PERF > EASA PERF Exam Feedback > Flashcards

EASA PERF Exam Feedback Flashcards

1
Q

What is the minimum clearway width required?

A

500ft

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2
Q

A twinjet must maintain a minimum net gradient in the second segment of 2.0%. It will be banked by 15deg, and lose 0.5% in the second segment. What is the minimum GROSS GRADIENT required to ensure that the second segment net gradient is met?

A

2.5 + 0.8% = 3.3

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3
Q

Screen Height for a Class B

A

50ft - wet AND dry

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4
Q

Screen Height for Class A

A

Dry Runway - 35ft

Wet Runway - 15ft

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5
Q

Define VS0

A

Stalling speed in Landing Configuration

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6
Q

What is the cost index?

A

Costs incurred over time divided by fuel costs.

A number denoting the ratio of the costs of crew and maintenance to the cost of the fuel.

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7
Q

When carrying out the Increased V2 take-off procedure what is the effect on the screen height?

A

Remains constant.

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8
Q

If V2 is increased what happens to CLTOM and the climb angle?

A

Both increase

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9
Q

Effect of mass increase on ROD, Descent Gradient & Angle

A

ROD increases

Gradient constant

Descent Angle Constant

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10
Q

Why would you decrease the flap settings?

A

If you have a long runway + close obstacles

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11
Q

How do you calculate ASDR with OEI?

A

ASDR is the distance from break release point to V1 & the distance from V1 + 2 sec to a complete stop.

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12
Q

What determines Quick Turnaround?

A

Flaps

Palt

Temp

Wind

Slope

NO REVERSE THRUST, NO PMC

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13
Q

Runway is contaminated - effect on CLTOM & FLTOM?

A

CLTOM unchanged

FLTOM decreases.

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14
Q

Effect of using a dry V1, instead of a wet V1 on a WET RUNWAY

A

Accelerate stop distance will exceed the accelerate stop distance available

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15
Q

What happens to screen height, when increasing V2?

A

Screen height remains constant.

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16
Q

Define Specific Fuel Consumption

A

The mass of fuel used to produce thrust per unit of time.

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17
Q

Two aircraft have the exact same mass, but located at two different altitudes.

A

Higher aircraft has a reduced ROC

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18
Q

Factors affecting Drift Down flight path

A

Mass at start of drift down

Pressure Altitude

Temperature

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19
Q

What happens if excess thrust increases?

A

Aircraft accelerates

ROC increases

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20
Q

What is TODA

A

Takeoff Distance Available

TORA + Clearway (max is TORA 1.5)

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21
Q

Factors affecting level off altitude (ENG OUT Drift down)

A

Weight

Temperature

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22
Q

Max allowable wind fig.2,4 (2 marks questions)

LDA 2000 ft
PA 10000 FT
TEMP -2

A

4 kts tail
6 kts tail
24 kts headwind

** 19 kts headwind ( right answer)

23
Q

How does an increase in mass affect Vx and Vy?

A

Vx and Vy are increased

24
Q

You are planning to fly a turbojet to an airfield with a LDA of 2300 ft. It has a 2% downhill and it will be wet at the time of landing. What is the landing distance to comply with regulations.

A

(You need to factor for the wet runway because its landing divide by 1.15 then divide by 1,67 (no downslope factorisation check page 349)

25
Q

Effects of an upslope on TODR and (stopping distance/ASD)

A

TODR is increased,

**stopping distance is decreased

** or ASD increases.

26
Q

Fig. 3,2 TODA= 3000, ASDA=2600, TORA= 2000, What is the Field Length limited TOM?

A

Divide TODA 1.15 -> 3000->2600

Divide ASDA 1.3 > 2600 -> 2000

Divide TORA by 1 = 2000

Enter the graph with lowest figure

27
Q

What is the regulated TOM?

A

The lowest of PLTOM and maxiumum structural TOM

28
Q

Flying in tropics at FL350, thunderstorms en route. 1.4g buffet margin of M0.79 to M0.81. Decision?

A

Descent to FL330 where the buffet margin increases to M0.72 to M.084, navigate around cells

29
Q

Why does crossover altitude exist?

A

To not exceed MMO

30
Q

What is the specific range

A

TAS/Fuel Flow

31
Q

On take-off from an un-balanced field you have an available range of V1’s.

If a higher V1 is selected from the range then:

A

The all engine take-off distance will be unaffected.

32
Q

LCY Glideslope is 5.5 degrees. What is the descent gradient?

A

tan(5.5) x 100 = 9.6%

33
Q

If landing mass is greater than maximum quick turnaround mass

A

Pilot must wait a certain amount of time before commencing another takeoff.

34
Q

If the Pressure Altitude of an Airport is increased, what happens to the landing distance and ASDA?

A

Landing distance increases

ASDA stays the same.
ASDA - AVAILABLE, physical; unchangeable

35
Q

Wet paved - takeoff

A

1.0

36
Q

What is the effect of decreasing density on flight path angle, rate of climb, and climb angle?

A

All decrease

37
Q

On the speed versus Thrust required curve, what is the point of contact with the tangent of the curve

A

1.32VMD because speed is proportional to thrust required at the minimum

38
Q

When TOM is limited by VMBE, an increase in the uphill slope will

A

VMBE Limited TOM increases -> increase in allowable mass

39
Q

What decreases maximum quick turnaround mass?

A

Increasing temperature, and Palt

40
Q

What happens to ASDR on an uphill runway?

A

Increases

41
Q

What speed limits V1?

A

VMBE

42
Q

What is the climb requirement in the 3rd segment?

A

There is no climb requirement

43
Q

V2 in relation to VMCA

A

V2min must not be less than 1.1 VMCA

44
Q

Takeoff with “compacted snow” on runway

A

TODR stays the same, ASDR increases

45
Q

Class B Takeoff Distance Factors

A

No stopway / clearway available - x12.5 should not exceed TORA

With Stopway and Clearway - 1.15 should not exceed TODA
Should not exceed TORA

46
Q

Descending on constant Mach

A

IAS increases, TAS increases

47
Q

Effect on ASDR if anti-skid is inop.

A

ASDR increases

48
Q

A balance takeoff is where

A

OEI TODR = OEI ASDR

49
Q

Define Specific Range

A

Distance per mass fuel -

SR = NM per KG

50
Q

TODA is TORA +

A

Clearway if available

51
Q

Which distance increases only with the addition of a stopway?

A

Acceleration Stop distance available

52
Q

Effect of uphill runway on ASDR

A

Increases

53
Q

In unaccelerated climb:

A

Thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.

PERF (5 decks)

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