Early pregnancy complications Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 types/classifications of miscarriage

A

Threatened miscarriage

Inevitable miscarriage

Incomplete miscarriage

Septic miscarriage

Complete miscarriage

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2
Q

What is a Threatened miscarriage?

A

Threatened miscarriage = Bleeding and/or Pain up to 24/40 with a viable ongoing pregnancy

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3
Q

What is an Inevitable miscarriage?

A

Inevitable miscarriage:
* Cervix is open.
* Products of conception (POC) have not yet been passed, but they inevitably will.

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4
Q

What is an Incomplete miscarriage?

A

Incomplete miscarriage:
* Some products of conception (POC) have been passed.
* Some tissues and blood clots remain within the uterus.
* Cervix stays open.
* Bleeding and pain usually persist.

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5
Q

What is a Septic miscarriage?

A

Septic miscarriage = if POC infected = septic patient. Rare where Termination of Pregnancy is legal.

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6
Q

What is a Complete miscarriage?

A

Complete miscarriage:
* All products of conception have been passed
* Complete sac may be identifiable
* Bleeding and pain reducing
* Cervix is now closed
* Cannot diagnose with USS – this can be helpful but no strict cut offs > caution required if no previous USS

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7
Q

What are the 4 ultrasound classifications of miscarriage?

A

Missed miscarriage / Early fetal demise = Failed pregnancy with no cardiac pulsations on USS (closed cervical Os)

Blighted ovum / Anembryonic pregnancy = Failed pregnancy with empty gestation sac (ie no fetus present) – gestational sac >25mm

Incomplete miscarriage / Retained products of conception = Echogenic mass of blood clot and tissue within uterine cavity >20mm in Anterior-posterior (AP) diameter

Complete miscarriage = Empty uterine cavity (rough guide AP <20mm) > MUST have seen an intrauterine (IUP) on scan before or Pregnancy of unknown location (PUL)

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8
Q

Give 4 risk factors for miscarriage

A

Advanced maternal age (>= 40)
Previous miscarriage
Smoking
Alcohol (moderate to heavy) and Drug use (NSAIDs, Aspirin, Street drugs)
Folate deficiency
Consanguinity
Opportunity for health promotion
(Antiphospholipid syndrome???)

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9
Q

What are the 3 different treatment approaches to Miscarriage?

A

Conservative, Medical, Surgical

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10
Q

What is the definition and 2 causes of recurrent miscarriages?

A

Definition = The loss of >=3 CONSECUTIVE pregnancies with SAME partner

Causes:
o Balanced (Robertsonian) translocations
o Uterine anomalies
o Antiphospholipid syndrome

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11
Q

Give 3 differentials for pregnancy of unknown location

A

Incomplete miscarriage

Early pregnancy (too small to see)

Ectopic pregnancy

Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) – molar pregnancy

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12
Q

Give 3 risk factors for Ectopic pregnancy

A

Previous ectopic pregnancy
Tubal surgery (sterilisation or reversal)
Tubal pathology
Previous Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) / Endometriosis
Pregnancy with Cu intrauterine device (IUCD), POP

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13
Q

What is the presenting features of Ectopic pregnancy?

A

Unilateral pain (RIF/LIF)

Vaginal bleeding / Irregular PV spotting&raquo_space; may be dark brown in colour
 Recent history of Amenorrhoea (typically 6-8 weeks since LMP)

Fainting, Dizziness, Syncope

Shoulder tip pain

GI symptoms = N&V (vomiting usually not prominent – low βhCG)

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14
Q

What are the examination findings for Ectopic pregnancy?

A

Abdominal tenderness

Cervical excitation (aka Cervical motion tenderness)

Adnexal mass (do NOT examine for Adnexal masses – risk rupturing the pregnancy)

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15
Q

What are the management approaches for Ectopic pregnancies?

A

Expectant – where hCG falling rapidly
o Increasingly offered
o 24 hour access to gynae services

Medical – if criteria met
o Methotrexate
o Longer resolution and follow up, avoid pregnancy 3-6/12

Surgical – patient choice, medical criteria not met or patient clinically unwell
o Laparoscopic / Laparotomy
o Salpingectomy / Salpingotomy

Psychosocial – Miscarriage and Ectopics are both loss of a baby
o Miscarriage association. Written information / leaflets. Counselling and Support

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16
Q

What are (gestational) trophoblastic diseases?

A

Trophoblastic disease = spectrum of disorders of trophoblastic development arising from abnormal fertilisation

Premalignant = Hydatidiform mole / Molar pregnancy
Malignant = Invasive mole or Choriocarcinoma

17
Q

What is the presentation for gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?

A

Possible ASYMPTOMATIC – USS diagnosis

Uterus large for dates (and raised hCG)
Abdominal pain (due to huge theca-lutein cysts in both ovaries – these may rupture or tort)
Bleeding / Haemorrhage (may be heavy – molar tissue looks like frogspawn)
Severe N&V (or 1st trimester pre-eclampsia)&raquo_space; ?due to ^hCG levels

18
Q

How is Gestational Trophoblastic Disease diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis – Suspected on Ultrasound scan. Confirmed only on Histology.
o US may show “snowstorm effect”

19
Q

What is the management for Gestational Trophoblastic Disease?

A

Surgical Evacuation of Retained Products of Conception (SERPC) – send to histology
o Give Anti-D if Rhesus -VE

Register with 1 of 3 national GTD centres > Sheffield, Charing cross, Dundee

Postal follow-up of serum and urine – serial βhCG (as directed by the centre)
o βhCG levels should return to normal after 6 months
o Avoid pregnancy until βhCG normal for 6 months

If βhCG doesn’t normalise mole was invasive (myometrium penetrated) OR has given rise to Choriocarcinoma
o Invasive moles metastasise (eg to lung, vagina, brain, liver, skin)
o Both respond to CHEMOTHERAPY

20
Q

What is the typical triad of Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A
  1. 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss
  2. Dehydration
  3. Electrolyte imbalance

(can also see marked ketosis)

21
Q

What is the treatment for Hyperemesis Gravidarum?

A

First line = Cyclizine / Promethazine
Second line = Ondansetron

Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure (can be tried but may not be of benefit)
Admission may be needed for IV hydration

22
Q

Give 3 complications of Hyperemesis Gravidarum

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy > DON’T HYDRATE WITH GLUCOSE
Mallory-Weiss tear
Central pontine myelinolysis
Acute tubular necrosis

Fetal = Small for gestational age, Pre-term birth

23
Q

Give 3 risk factors for Hyperemesis Gravidarum

A

First pregnancy
Previous Hyperemesis gravidarum
Raised BMI
Multiple pregnancy
Hydatidiform mole