Ear, Nose and Throat Flashcards

1
Q

Define Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

A

Peripheral vestibular disorder that manifests as sudden, short-lived episodes of vertigo

elicited by specific head movement

One of the most common causes of vertigo

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2
Q

Demographics of Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

A

average age of onset is 55 years and it is less common in younger patients.
F>M

It is the most common cause of vertigo, particularly in the elderly due to calcium deposition, cholelithiasis, within the semicircular canals.

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3
Q

Features of Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

A

Recurrent vertigo triggered by change in head position (e.g. rolling over in bed or gazing upwards)
may be associated with nausea
each episode typically lasts 10-20 seconds
Absence of auditory symptoms
positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre:
rapidly lower the patient to the supine position with an extended neck
a positive test recreates the symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
rotatory nystagmus

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4
Q

What is a positive result of a Dix-Hallpike test for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

Rotatory nystagmus

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5
Q

What are risk factors for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A
  • Head trauma
  • Vestibular neuronitis
  • Labyrinthitis
  • Migraines
  • Inner ear surgery
  • Meniere’s disease
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6
Q

What can be offered for symptomatic relief of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A
  • Epley manoeuvre (successful in around 80% of cases)
  • teaching the patient exercises they can do themselves at home, termed vestibular rehabilitation, for example Brandt-Daroff exercises
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7
Q

What medication if offered for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

Medication is often prescribed (e.g. Betahistine) but it tends to be of limited value

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8
Q

What is the prognosis for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

Around half of people with BPPV will have a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their diagnosis

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9
Q

Define Epistaxis

A

nose bleeds

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10
Q

What is the most common site of nosebleeds?

A

Kiesselbach plexus (Little’s Area- where vessels supplying nasal mucosa anastomose with each other)

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11
Q

What are the two types of nosebleeds?

A

split into anterior and posterior bleeds, whereby the former often has a visible source of bleeding and usually occurs due to an insult to the network of capillaries that form Kiesselbach’s plexus. Posterior haemorrhages, on the other hand, tend to be more profuse and originate from deeper structures. They occur more frequently in older patients and confer a higher risk of aspiration and airway compromise.

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12
Q

Common causes of nosebleeds?

A

Exacerbation factors include:
- nose picking
- nose blowing
- trauma to the nose
- insertion of foreign bodies
bleeding disorders:
- immune thrombocytopenia
- Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia
juvenile angiofibroma:
- Oxygen via nasal cannulae (causes drying and irritation of the nasal mucosa)
- benign tumour that is highly vascularised
- seen in adolescent males
cocaine use:
- the nasal septum may look abraded or atrophied, inquire about drug use. This is because inhaled cocaine
cocaine is a powerful vasoconstrictor and repeated use may result in obliteration of the septum.
- hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
- granulomatosis with polyangiitis (granulomas and inflammation of blood vessels)

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13
Q

Management of epistaxis if haemodynamically stable?

A

Asking the patient to sit with their torso forward and their mouth open
avoid lying down unless they feel faint
this decreases blood flow to the nasopharynx and allows the patient to spit out any blood in their mouth
it also reduces the risk of aspirating blood
Pinch the cartilaginous (soft) area of the nose firmly
this should be done for at least 20 minutes
also ask the patient to breathe through their mouth.

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14
Q

Next steps after initial management of epistaxis if successful?

A

consider using a topical antiseptic such as Naseptin (chlorhexidine and neomycin) to reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis
cautions to this include patients that have peanut, soy or neomycin allergies
Mupirocin is a viable alternative
admission and follow up care may be considered in patients under if
a comorbidity (e.g. coronary artery disease, or severe hypertension) is present, an underlying cause is suspected
they are aged under 2 years (as underlying causes such as haemophilia or leukaemia are more likely in this age group)
self-care advice involves reducing the risk of re-bleeding
patients should be informed that blowing or picking the nose, heavy lifting, exercise, lying flat, drinking alcohol or hot drinks should be avoided

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15
Q

If epistaxis does not stop after 10-15 mins what should one do if source of bleed is visible?

A

Cautery

it is not so well-tolerated in younger children!
ask the patient to blow their nose in order to remove any clots. Be wary that bleeding may resume.
use a topical local anaesthetic spray (e.g. Co-phenylcaine) and wait 3-4 minutes for it to take effect
identify the bleeding point and apply the silver nitrate stick for 3-10 seconds until it becomes grey-white. Avoid touching areas which do not require treatment, and only cauterise one side of the septum as there is a risk of perforation.
dab the area clean with a cotton bud and apply Naseptin or Muciprocin (topical antiseptic)

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16
Q

If epistaxis does not stop after 10-15 mins what should one do if source of bleed is not visible?

A

Packing

anaesthetise with topical local anaesthetic spray (e.g. Co-phenylcaine) and wait for 3-4 minutes
pack the patient’s nose while they are sitting with their head forward, following the manufacturer’s instructions
pressure on the cartilage around the nostril can cause cosmetic changes and this should be reviewed after inserting the pack.
examine the patient’s mouth and throat for any continuing bleeding, and consider packing the other nostril as this increases pressure on the septum and offending vessel.
patients should be admitted to hospital for observation and review, and to ENT if available

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17
Q

What to do if they have epistaxis and they are haemodynamically unstable?

A

control bleeding with first aid measures in the interim
patients with a bleed from an unknown or posterior source (i.e. the bleeding site cannot be located on speculum, bleeding from both nostrils or profuse) should be admitted to hospital.
Tranexamic acid should be given to all patients with severe bleeding.

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18
Q

What to do if epistaxis has failed all emergency treatment?

A

may require sphenopalatine ligation in theatre

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19
Q

What is infectious mononucleosis also known as?

A

Glandular fever / kissing disease

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20
Q

What causes infectious mononucleosis? (glandular fever)

A

Epstein Barr virus in 90% of cases. Less frequent causes include cytomegalovirus and HHV-6

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21
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms of infectious mononucleosis? (glandular fever)

A

sore throat
lymphadenopathy: may be present in the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck, in contrast to tonsillitis which typically only results in the upper anterior cervical chain being enlarged
pyrexia

Possible hepatomegaly and/or splenomegaly detected through palpation

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22
Q

What are some other features of infectious mononucleosis?

A

malaise, anorexia, headache
palatal petechiae
splenomegaly - occurs in around 50% of patients and may rarely predispose to splenic rupture
hepatitis, transient rise in ALT
lymphocytosis: presence of 50% lymphocytes with at least 10% atypical lymphocytes
haemolytic anaemia secondary to cold agglutins (IgM)
a maculopapular, pruritic rash develops in around 99% of patients who take ampicillin/amoxicillin whilst they have infectious mononucleosis

The disease tends to cause a milder infection in small children, but can result in a more severe infection in teenagers. One of the most prominent symptoms in this age group is debilitating fatigue that can persist for weeks.

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23
Q

How long does it take symptoms to resolve from infectious mononucleosis? (glandular fever)

A

Symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

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24
Q

Diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis?

A

heterophil antibody test (Monospot test / Paul Bunnell test)
NICE guidelines suggest FBC and Monospot in the 2nd week of the illness to confirm a diagnosis of glandular fever.

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25
Q

What is the management for infectious mononucleosis?

A

rest during the early stages, drink plenty of fluid, avoid alcohol
simple analgesia for any aches or pains
consensus guidance in the UK is to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture

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26
Q

What investigation may be required for epistaxis if bleeding is significant?

A

a venous blood gas and FBC should be done to look for anaemia and thrombocytopenia, a clotting screen looking for coagulopathy and a group and save or crossmatch if blood transfusion is required.

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27
Q

If due to glandular fever, the spleen has ruptured what would be a tell-tale sign?

A

Patients may be peritonitic and the pain in the left shoulder is the typical ‘shoulder tip’ referred pain, known as Kehr’s sign, caused by irritation of the diaphragm by intra-abdominal fluid.

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28
Q

What is Ménière’s disease?

A

Meniere’s disease is a condition characterized by the dilation of the endolymphatic spaces of the membranous labyrinth, causing episodes of vertigo lasting for 12-24 hours.

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29
Q

What is the epidemiology of Ménière’s disease?

A

Meniere’s disease typically presents in individuals between the ages of 30 and 60 and predominantly affects only one ear.

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30
Q

Aetiology of Ménière’s disease?

A

The exact cause of Meniere’s disease is unknown, but it is believed to be associated with the dilation of the endolymphatic spaces of the membranous labyrinth. This dilation leads to an increased fluid pressure within the inner ear, causing the characteristic symptoms of the disease.

31
Q

Signs and symptoms of Ménière’s disease?

A

Sudden attacks of paroxysmal vertigo
Associated deafness
Tinnitus
Attacks often occur in clusters, with periods of remission where function is recovered
The condition can be incredibly disabling, leaving patients bed-bound and suffering from nausea, vomiting, and fluctuating hearing.
episodes last minutes to hours

32
Q

Investigations for Ménière’s disease?

A

Diagnosis of Meniere’s disease typically relies on clinical evaluation and audiometric testing. Additional imaging or laboratory tests may be needed to rule out other potential causes of the symptoms.
other features include nystagmus and a positive Romberg test

33
Q

Management for Ménière’s disease?

A

The initial management of Meniere’s disease involves a low-salt diet and diuretics to reduce the volume of endolymphatic fluid. Referral for vestibular rehabilitation, and prescribing an antiemetic for acute attacks would also be appropriate.

Prophylactic use of betahistine to reduce the frequency of attacks
Acute use of Intramuscular or buccal injections of prochlorperazine to manage symptoms during attacks
Diuretics can also be used to reduce endolymphatic fluid, however this is only prescribed by specialists (i.e. ENT clinics)
Surgical approaches are available, but currently lack a strong evidence base.
Low-salt diets can also help prevent attacks, by reducing the volume of endolymphatic fluid.

patients should inform the DVLA. The current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved

34
Q

Natural history of Ménière’s disease?

A

symptoms resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years
the majority of patients will be left with a degree of hearing loss
psychological distress is common

35
Q

Definition of OSA?

A

Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition where the upper airway becomes completely or partially obstructed during sleep, causing apnoeas (where breathing temporarily stops) or hypopnoeic episodes (decreased airflow during breathing). These episodes cause oxygen desaturations which cause brief arousals from sleep which can be hundreds of times per night. This leads to poor sleep quality which causes symptoms of daytime drowsiness, morning headaches and impaired concentration.

36
Q

Epidemiology of OSA?

A

OSA is common, affecting an estimated 1.5 million adults in the UK, however around 85% of these are undiagnosed. Around half of people affected are overweight or obese, with 40% of obese people and 77% of morbidly obese people having OSA.

OSA is strongly linked with cardiovascular disease and the metabolic syndrome, and is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease, type 2 diabetes and stroke.
Daytime sleepiness is an important consideration, especially in patients who drive or whose jobs require vigilance.

37
Q

Aetiology of OSA?

A

During sleep there is a normal loss of muscle tone in the oropharynx. In most people, there is still sufficient airway patency during sleep so that it does not become obstructed. Patients with OSA, however, require the muscle tone when awake to counteract additional pressures on their airway and so are unable to maintain patency when asleep.

38
Q

Risk factors for OSA?

A

Obesity
Male sex
Older age
Decreased muscle tone - e.g. alcohol excess, sedative medications, muscular dystrophy or other neuromuscular disorders
Anatomical defects - e.g. retrognathia, macroglossia
Large neck circumference
Adenotonsillar hypertrophy (particularly in children)
Sleeping supine
Down’s syndrome

39
Q

Signs and symptoms of OSA?

A

Unrefreshing sleep, or frequent waking at night
Daytime sleepiness
Others may witness snoring, apnoeas, gasping or choking during sleep
Difficulty concentrating
Morning headaches
Behavioural problems and hyperactivity in children

On examination, patients may be drowsy and may have some of the risk factors above such as:
Obesity (check BMI)
Large neck circumference (can measure or ask collar size)
Jaw abnormalities (retrognathia or micrognathia)
Mouth breathing or nasal speech (due to nasopharyngeal obstruction, e.g. due to adenotonsillar enlargement)
Also look for signs and symptoms of complications of OSA such as hypertension or arrhythmias.

40
Q

Initial screening for OSA?

A

STOP-Bang asks about snoring, sleepiness, apnoeas, hypertension, obesity, neck circumference, age and sex and gives a low, medium or high risk of OSA.

The Epworth sleepiness scale focuses on daytime sleepiness and asks how likely the patient would be to fall asleep in a variety of situations (e.g. when watching TV). This gives a result of either normal daytime sleepiness or mild, moderate or severe excessive daytime sleepiness.

41
Q

What is the definitive investigation for OSA?

A

The definitive investigation is polysomnography (also called a sleep study) which would usually be arranged by a specialist clinic.

42
Q

When should patients be referred urgently for polysomnography with OSA?

A

Excessive sleepiness is impacting on their safety to work (e.g. professional driver)
They have a related comorbid condition such as treatment resistant hypertension or COPD
They have upcoming major surgery
They are pregnant

43
Q

What does polysomnography show and what are the different categories?

A

Five or more is diagnostic of OSA and severity is classified as below:
Mild OSA: AHI 5-14 per hour
Moderate OSA: AHI 15-30 per hour
Severe OSA: AHI over 30 per hour
The number of episodes of oxygen desaturation per hour is also measured, with more episodes of desaturation predictive of poorer cardiovascular outcomes.
This test involves monitoring several parameters, including airflow, oxygen saturation, electroencephalogram (EEG) and electromyogram (EMG) activity

44
Q

What is conservative management of OSA?

A

Patient education, especially concerning driving (see section on driving advice)
Advise to sleep on their side rather than supine where possible (aids such as repositioning pillows may be of help)
Weight loss advice and support (including diet, exercise, medications and surgery)
Reduction in alcohol intake
Smoking cessation

45
Q

What is medical management of OSA?

A

Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) therapy - this is first line in symptomatic OSA and is a long-term treatment.
A mask over the nose or face is used to deliver additional airway pressure that splints open the airways and prevents the collapse seen in OSA.
Education and support are key as tolerance can be a problem and masks need to fit well to be effective.
If patients do not tolerate or respond to CPAP, an intra-oral mandibular advancement device is another option.
These devices pull the mandible forward, opening the airway and preventing obstruction.
Management of comorbidities including hypertension, diabetes and depression is also important.

46
Q

What is the surgical management of OSA?

A

In cases where there is oropharyngeal obstruction e.g. due to adenotonsillar enlargement, surgery may be considered to relieve this for example a tonsillectomy.

47
Q

What is the driving advice for OSA?

A

All patients with daytime sleepiness due to OSA should be advised as follows:

If OSA is suspected or mild, advise patients not to drive until symptoms are controlled. If this is not achieved within 3 months, they should inform the DVLA.
If OSA is moderate or severe, patients should inform the DVLA immediately and not drive; this will be reviewed by the DVLA and they may be allowed to drive once symptoms are controlled.

This is the same for group 1 drivers (cars and motorbikes) and group 2 (lorries, buses and coaches), however group 2 drivers returning to driving after symptom control is achieved require annual reviews of this (rather than 3 yearly for group 1 drivers).

47
Q

What are the complications of OSA?

A

Complications related to daytime sleepiness include:
Road traffic collisions - patients with OSA have a 2.5x increased risk compared to those without the condition
Accidents at home or at work
Deterioration in mental health, including irritability and depression

Cardiovascular and metabolic complications include:
Stroke
Coronary artery disease
Hypertension that may be treatment resistant
Congestive heart failure
Type 2 diabetes

48
Q

Weber test Conductive hearing loss:

A

Lateralises to affected ear

49
Q

Weber test Sensorineural hearing loss:

A

Lateralises to unaffected ear

50
Q

Rinne test conductive hearing loss:

A
  • Bone conduction > air conduction in affected ear
  • Air conduction > bone conduction in unaffected ear
51
Q

Rinne test sensorineural hearing loss:

A
  • Rinne: Air conduction > bone conduction bilaterally
  • Weber: Lateralises to unaffected ear
52
Q

What are the diagnostic features of acute rhinosinusitis?

A

Sudden onset of symptoms for less than 12 weeks duration including one of:
Nasal blockage/congestion OR nasal discharge
Facial pain/pressure OR loss/reduction of sense of smell

53
Q

definition of rhinosinusitis

A

Rhinosinusitis is defined as inflammation of the nose and paranasal sinuses.

54
Q

Diagnosis of rhinosinusitis?

A

The diagnosis requires the presence of at least two symptoms, one of which must be either nasal blockage/obstruction/congestion or nasal discharge (anterior/posterior nasal drip).

55
Q

Aetiology of rhinosinusitis?

A

Rhinosinusitis can be caused by viral, bacterial, or fungal infections, allergies, auto-immune reactions, and deviations or obstructions of the nasal septum.

56
Q

Signs and symptoms of rhinosinusitis?

A

Nasal blockage/obstruction/congestion
Nasal discharge - Thicker, purulent discharge suggests secondary infection
Facial pain or heaviness - worse when bending forward
Reduced olfaction
Other symptoms may include headache, ear pain, sore throat, and cough (post-nasal drip: may produce chronic cough).

57
Q

Investigations for rhinosinusitis?

A

Nasal endoscopy: Allows for the visual examination of the internal nasal passages and the sinus openings.
Computed tomography (CT): Provides detailed images of the sinuses and can reveal evidence of sinus inflammation or obstruction.
Cultures: Can be useful when bacterial sinusitis is suspected and previous treatments have failed.

58
Q

Mangement for rhinosinusitis?

A

Conservative measures: These include nasal saline irrigation, analgesics for pain, and intranasal corticosteroids.
High-dose nasal corticosteroids: If symptoms persist for more than 10 days, a 14-day course of high-dose nasal corticosteroids may be considered.
Antibiotics: These are reserved for severe or persistent cases and are guided by culture results.

59
Q

Predisposing factors for rhinosinusitis?

A

atopy: hay fever, asthma
nasal obstruction e.g. Septal deviation or nasal polyps
recent local infection e.g. Rhinitis or dental extraction
swimming/diving
smoking

60
Q

Red flag symptoms for rhinosinusitis?

A

unilateral symptoms
persistent symptoms despite compliance with 3 months of treatment
epistaxis

61
Q

Define tonsillitis?

A

Tonsillitis is a form of pharyngitis characterized by acute inflammation of the tonsils, often with a purulent exudate present in bacterial tonsillitis.

62
Q

Epidemiology of tonsillitis?

A

In the UK, tonsillitis is a common condition that predominantly affects children and adolescents, with an estimated 7.4% of GP consultations for children under 15 years involving a sore throat or tonsillitis as the primary reason for the visit.

63
Q

Aetiology of tonsillitis?

A

The most common causative organism of tonsillitis is Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus). Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is another common cause.

64
Q

Signs and symptoms of bacterial tonsillitis?

A

Bacterial tonsillitis: More often associated with cervical lymphadenopathy.

65
Q

Signs and symptoms of viral tonsillitis?

A

Viral tonsillitis: More likely to present with headache, apathy, and abdominal pain.

66
Q

What investigation is used for tonsillitis and determine whether its bacterial or viral?

A

The CENTOR criteria can be used to indicate the likelihood of a sore throat being due to a bacterial infection - Group A streptococcal pharyngitis
There is also the FeverPAIN criteria - (Fever over 38°C, Purulence (pharyngeal/tonsillar exudate), Attend rapidly (3 days or less), Severely Inflamed tonsils, No cough or coryza)

67
Q

Explain the CENTOR criteria?

A

Each of the CENTOR criteria score 1 point, with a maximum score of 4. A score of 0, 1 or 2 is thought to be associated with a 3 to 17% likelihood of isolating Streptococcus. A score of 3 or 4 is thought to be associated with a 32 to 56% likelihood of isolating Streptococcus.

68
Q

Treatment for bacteria tonsillitis?

A

Bacterial tonsillitis with a CENTOR criteria score of 3/4 or evidence of systemic upset/immunosuppression or history of rheumatic fever warrants prescribing antibiotics:
1st line: Penicillin V 500mg PO QDS for 5-10 days
Alternative in penicillin allergy: Clarithromycin/Erythromycin 250-500mg PO BD for 5 days

69
Q

General sign and symptoms of tonsillitis?

A

Sore throat
Headache
Fever (pyrexia)
Enlarged and tender lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy)

70
Q

What are the 4 signs and symptoms the CENTOR criteria look for?

A

History of fever
Presence of tonsillar exudates
Absence of cough
Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy

71
Q

Complications of tonsillitis

A

Recurrent Tonsillitis: This is the most common complication. The evidence base for tonsillectomies as a treatment is poor, leading to stricter referral criteria.
Retropharyngeal Abscess: A rare complication characterized by soft tissue swelling, more common in young children. Symptoms include a stiff and extended neck and refusal to eat or drink.
Peritonsillar Abscess (Quinsy): Presents with sore throat, difficulty swallowing, peritonsillar bulge, uvular deviation, trismus, and muffled voice. Treatment has shifted from surgical drainage to antibiotics and aspiration.
Lemierre’s Syndrome: In this rare complication, inflammation leads to pharyngotonsilitis, inflammation within the internal jugular vein, and septic emboli. Treatment may require high-dose benzylpenicillin and debridement.
Otitis media
rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis very rarely

72
Q

Indications for tonsillectomy?

A

NICE recommend that surgery should be considered only if the person meets all of the following criteria
sore throats are due to tonsillitis (i.e. not recurrent upper respiratory tract infections)
the person has 7 episodes per year for one year, 5 per year for 2 years, or 3 per year for 3 years, and for whom there is no other explanation for the recurrent symptoms)
the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning

Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include
recurrent febrile convulsions secondary to episodes of tonsillitis
obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor or dysphagia secondary to enlarged tonsils
peritonsillar abscess (quinsy) if unresponsive to standard treatment

73
Q

What to do if bleeding after a tonsillectomy?

A

Haemorrhage is one of the most important and concerning complications following tonsillectomy, even in small amounts. Post-tonsillectomy haemorrhages can be categorised as primary (or reactionary, within the first 6-8 hours following surgery), and secondary (between 5-10 days following surgery). This patient’s bleeding started 4 hours after the surgery, indicating they have a primary haemorrhage. Primary haemorrhages are managed by an immediate return to theatre as the risks associated with haemorrhage can be dire, and can be missed as many people, particularly younger patients, can lose a significant amount of blood and compensate before serious problems arise, such as shock.