Clinical haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Define disseminated intravascular coagulation:

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a complex condition that describes the inappropriate activation of the clotting cascades, resulting in thrombus formation and subsequently leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets.

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2
Q

What is the epidemiology of disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

DIC often occurs in the context of severe systemic disease (see aetiology below). DIC is often encountered in a hospital setting, particularly in intensive care units, surgical wards, and obstetric units due to the high prevalence of associated risk factors. It is associated with a high mortality rate, with the outcome is largely dependent on the prompt diagnosis and treatment of the underlying cause.

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3
Q

Causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation:

A

Major trauma or burns
Multi-organ failure
Severe sepsis or infection
Severe obstetric complications
Solid tumours or haematological malignancies
Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an uncommon subtype of AML that is associated with DIC
Note: This comes up frequently in written exams

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4
Q

Signs and symptoms of disseminated intravascular coagulation:

A

Excessive bleeding e.g. epistaxis, gingival bleeding, haematuria, bleeding/oozing from cannula sites
Fever
Confusion
Potential coma
Physical signs include:
Petechiae
Bruising
Confusion
Hypotension

Oozing from a cannula size is a classic sign of DIC

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5
Q

What are the blood tests for disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

FBC (thrombocytopenia)

Blood film may show schistocytes due to microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA) - (fragmented red blood cells) on a blood film due to mechanical damage in small vessels from the clotting process

Raised d-dimer (a fibrin degradation product)
Clotting profile - increased prothrombin time (due to consumption of clotting factors), increased APTT, decreased fibrinogen (consumed due to microvascular thrombi)

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6
Q

What is the management for disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

Management of DIC is primarily focused on treating the underlying cause. Supportive care is also essential to manage symptoms and prevent complications. This may include transfusions of platelets or clotting factors, and in some cases, anticoagulation therapy may be necessary.

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7
Q

What are the coagulation cascade findings in disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

The low platelet count and fibrinogen are due to consumption, and prolonged PT due to the consumption of coagulation factors. APTT can be normal or prolonged

In DIC, PT is often prolonged because factor VII in the extrinsic pathway is rapidly depleted. aPTT may remain normal initially because the intrinsic pathway factors are not as quickly depleted or are compensated for by other mechanisms. This disparity reflects the differential sensitivity of these tests to factor consumption in the early phases of DIC.

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8
Q

define haemochromatosis:

A

Haemochromatosis is an iron storage disorder in which iron depositions in multiple organs (such as the liver, skin, pituitary, heart and pancreas) leading to oxidative damage. It is the most common genetic condition in the UK but may initially present with non-specific symptoms, leading to under-diagnosis.

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9
Q

How can haemochromatosis be classified?

A

Haemochromatosis can be primary (hereditary) or secondary (acquired) and classically presents in white, middle-aged males

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10
Q

What is the major cause of haemochromatosis?

A

The major cause of hereditary haemochromatosis is due to autosomal recessive mutations to the haemochromatosis (HFE) gene on chromosome 6.
The two main mutant alleles are C282Y and H63D.
Approximately 85-90% of HFE patients are homozygous for the C282Y allele

HFE mutations exhibit low penetrance :
Estimated 14% penetrance for homozygous males
Penetrance is even lower for females, attributed to menstruation and genetic variation in HLA subtypes (HFE is a HLA protein)

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11
Q

What is the pathophysiology of haemochromatosis?

A

Primary haemochromatosis is due to mutations in the HFE gene, each of which alter the regulatory pathways involved in hepcidin , an acute phase reactant protein that regulates iron stores.

HFE mutation→decreased hepcidin activity→ increased duodenal/jejunal iron absorption and release of iron from bone marrow macrophages → iron deposition in cells → Fenton reaction* and hydroxyl free radicals → DNA, lipid and protein damage → organ dysfunction

*Fenton reaction

Iron freely undergoes oxidation in cells from Fe2+ to Fe3+ as part of the Fenton reaction
In this process, hydroxyl free radicals are generated which then cause oxidative damage
A major mechanism of cell injury is free radical-induced lipid peroxidation which triggers apoptosis

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12
Q

What is the classification of primary haemochromatosis?

A

Classification is based on the mechanism of inheritance. All mechanisms interfere with the process of macrophage-liver communication, leading to decreased activity of hepcidin.
Type 1: Hereditary (HFE genotype) haemochromatosis
The cause over 90% of cases
Autosomal-recessive mutation to HFE gene (chromosome 6)
Only present in white populations
Type 2: Juvenile haemochromatosis: Presents in early adulthood (second and third decades) versus classic middle-aged patients of hereditary haemochromatosis.
Type 2A mutation of the haemojuvelin gene.
Type 2B mutation of the hepcidin gene A
Patients often have hypogonadism and cardiomyopathy.
Type 3: Transferrin receptor 2 haemochromatosis
Autosomal-recessive mutation in transferrin receptor 2 (chromosome 7)
Condition mimics HFE haemochromatosis clinically
Type 4: Ferroportin disease
Type 4A: low transferrin saturation and macrophage iron deposits
Type 4B: clinically similar to type 1 (HFE) haemochromatosis- high transferrin saturation and iron deposition in liver.

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13
Q

Name some causes of secondary haemochromatosis?

A

Frequent blood transfusions: each new transfusion introduces new iron which is recycled and stored
Iron supplementation: over-supplementing, particularly with concurrent vitamin C.
Diseases of erythropoiesis: ineffective erythropoiesis leads to iron accumulation

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14
Q

What are the early clinical manifestations of haemochromatosis?

A

Fatigue: This is one of the most common presenting symptoms, and often the most debilitating. It is usually chronic, non-refreshing and unrelieved by rest.

Arthralgia: Joint pain is another common symptom. This typically involves the metacarpophalangeal joints, wrists, knees, and ankles.

Impaired sexual function: Men may experience loss of libido or impotence due to gonadal failure, while women may experience menstrual irregularities or early menopause.

Abdominal pain: Patients may present with a non-specific, often chronic, abdominal pain. This can be due to hepatomegaly or pancreatic involvement.

Mood disturbances: Depression and irritability may be early manifestations of the con

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15
Q

What are the later clinical manifestations of haemochromotasis?

A

Skin hyperpigmentation: The skin may become bronzed or greyish due to increased melanin production. This sign is often mistaken for a tan, but is actually due to the combination of iron deposits and increased melanin in the skin.

Hepatomegaly and Cirrhosis: As iron accumulates in the liver, it can lead to liver enlargement (hepatomegaly) and eventually, cirrhosis. This can present as jaundice, ascites, and signs of portal hypertension.

Diabetes mellitus: Damage to pancreatic beta cells can result in insulin deficiency, leading to a form of diabetes known as ‘bronze diabetes’.

Cardiac disease: Cardiomyopathy due to iron deposition in the myocardium can present as congestive heart failure with signs such as dyspnea, orthopnea, and lower extremity oedema.

Arthropathy: A distinctive form of arthritis can develop, commonly affecting the second and third metacarpophalangeal joints. This can lead to the characteristic ‘iron fist’ sign, an important clue to the diagnosis.

Hypogonadism: Persistent gonadal dysfunction can lead to signs of hypogonadism in men and women.

chondrocalcinosis - deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals in joint cartilage, and it is commonly associated with hemochromatosis.

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16
Q

What are the investigations for haemochromatosis?

A

Patients with clinical features, raised transferrin saturation and/or raised serum ferritin should then undergo molecular testing for HFE gene mutation . A C282Y mutation on the HFE gene (chromosome 6) is the most common cause of hereditary haemochromatosis.

Transferrin saturation is the superior screening test. It should also be remembered that ferritin is an acute phase protein and will be raised by inflammation, as well as alcoholism, metabolic syndrome and anaemia

Clinical evidence of liver involvement and/or serum ferritin >2247pmol/L must be referred to hepatology for liver biopsy to estimate hepatocyte iron content and assess extent of fibrosis or cirrhosis.

Depending on the presenting complaints, alternative tests include:
Fasting blood sugar (may be raised in liver/pancreatic involvement)
ECG (may show arrhythmia or decreased QRS amplitude)
Echocardiogram (assess iron deposition in conduction pathway and cardiomyopathy)
Testosterone, FSH, LH (may be low in gonadal/pituitary involvement)

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17
Q

What is the general management for haemochromatosis?

A

ll patients should receive advice on the following:
Avoid iron and iron-containing supplements
Avoid vitamin C supplements (and orange juice) (which increases the bioavailability of iron for enteric absorption), except in iron chelation therapy where it may increase therapeutic value
Limit or avoid alcohol
Consider hepatitis A and B vaccinations if no previous encounter.

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18
Q

What are the specific stages of haemochromotasis guiding management

A

Stage 0 and 1 can be managed in primary care and patients should receive counselling and support for their condition.

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19
Q

Describe phlebotomy treatment for haemochromotasis?

A

Phlebotomy , or venesection, is the process by which blood is removed from the patient to stimulate haematopoiesis, thereby utilising some of the excess iron for haem synthesis. It is performed in two stages:
Induction: weekly phlebotomy sessions in the secondary care setting to reduce iron levels to <50% transferrin saturation. This should be under the guidance of haematology or hepatology depending on the extent of liver disease). Induction can take several months or even longer depending on the iron burden.
Maintenance: infrequent (less than monthly) phlebotomy sessions to maintain normal iron levels (<50% transferrin saturation).
It is encouraged for maintenance phlebotomy to occur at blood donation banks under the NHS Blood & Transplant service if patients are ‘fit’ and do not have liver disease.

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20
Q

What is the treatment for haemochromotasis when phlebotomy is contraindicated in stages 2,3,4 (such as anaemia, cardiac disease or venous access issues)

A

Iron chelation therapy - Both oral agents (Deferasirox) and parenteral agents (Desferrioxamine) are available dependent on the patient’s likelihood of compliance and response.

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21
Q

Patients with end stage cirrhotic liver disease due to haemochromatosis are candidates for:

A

Liver transplantation. It is important to note that transplant outcomes are worse compared to other causes of cirrhosis.

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22
Q

What are the complications of haemochromatosis?

A

The main complications are a result of oxidative damage to organs. In addition, deranged iron scavenging increases susceptibility to certain organisms such as Listeria monocytogenes and haemochromatosis patients exhibit increased bone loss and osteoporosis which is multifactorial in nature.

Direct organ damage complications include:

Liver:
Fibrosis or cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma: cirrhosis patients have a 100 fold increased risk of developing liver cancer

Diabetes mellitus:
The risk is not significantly raised in these patients compared to population but this is due to the overwhelming obesity prevalence rather than iron overload itself not being a risk for progression of diabetes mellitus

Heart:
Arrhythmia due to iron deposition in conduction pathway
Cardiomyopathy: either dilated or dilated-restrictive
Chronic congestive heart failure

Hypogonadism:
Hypogonadotrophism can result from iron depositing in the pituitary direct damage to gonads

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23
Q

What is the prognosis of haemochromatosis?

A

Prognosis is dependent on severity of disease at diagnosis.

Patients without clinical symptoms of organ damage (such as cirrhosis or diabetes mellitus) at the time of diagnosis often have unchanged life expectancy from healthy individuals
However, large studies put the relative risk at over 2 and the mean survival at 21 years for patients who have cirrhosis at the time of diagnosis

Life-limiting complications
Cirrhosis at the time of diagnosis increases the risk of life-limiting complications such as hepatocellular carcinoma, diabetes mellitus and cardiac disease
Liver disease is exacerbated by additional liver injury (for example from alcohol and hepatitis infection).
Liver transplant is indicated for cirrhosis and cancer development but post-transplant prognosis (1- and 5-year survival) is significantly worse for haemochromatosis compared to other diseases that necessitate liver transplant

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24
Q

Which of complication of haemochromatosis would be most likely to show improvement with venesection?

A

Cardiomyopathy caused by haemochromatosis can significantly improve with regular venesection therapy.

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25
Q

Define anaemia:

A

Anaemia is a medical condition characterized by a deficiency in the number of red blood cells (RBCs) or a decrease in the concentration of haemoglobin (Hb) in the blood. This deficiency results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity and impaired oxygen delivery to the body’s tissues and organs.

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26
Q

How is anaemia classified?

A

Anaemia can be classified according to the MCV, which is part of the FBC panel

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27
Q

What is macrocytic anaemia?

A

(MCV >100 fl)
Morphologically, macrocytic anaemia is usually typified by large RBCs due to abnormal RBC development, giant metamyelocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils (in the peripheral circulation).
Macrocytic anaemia may be megaloblastic or non-megaloblastic.

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28
Q

Name some causes of megaloblastic anaemia?

A

B12 deficiency
reduced intake (eg. dietary)
reduced absorption (eg. pernicious anaemia, inflammatory bowel disease, gastrectomy)
Folate deficiency
Drugs
hydroxycarbamide (previously called hydroxyurea)
azathioprine
cytosine arabinoside
azidothymidine

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29
Q

Name some causes of non-megaloblastic/normoblastic macrocytic anaemia?

A

Liver disease
Alcohol
Hypothyroidism
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Pregnancy (usually a mild macrocytosis)

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30
Q

Name some causes of normocytic anaemia?

A

MCV 78–98 fl
Causes include:
Recent bleeding
Anaemia of chronic disease
Combined iron & B12/folate deficiency
Most non-haematinic-deficiency causes

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31
Q

Name some causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

Microcytic anaemia is defined as the presence of small, often hypochromic, RBCs in a peripheral blood smear

Causes include :
Iron deficiency
α-thalassaemia, β-thalassaemia, HbE, HbC
Anaemia of chronic disease (this more often causes normochromic normocytic anaemia)
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anaemias (rare)

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32
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of anaemia?

A

Shortness of breath
Fatigue
Pallor of the conjunctiva
Cold extremities
Increased cardiac output, palpitations, heart murmurs and cardiac failure
Severe anaemia can lead to chest pain and cognitive impairment

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33
Q

Name the investigations for anaemia:

A

Full Blood Count (FBC): This is the initial step in assessing anaemia. It provides information on haemoglobin levels, haematocrit, red blood cell count, and mean corpuscular volume (MCV). Abnormal MCV values help classify anaemia type.

Peripheral Blood Smear: A blood smear examination allows a closer look at the size, shape, and color of red blood cells. It can provide valuable clues, such as the presence of abnormal cell shapes (spherocytes, schistocytes) or specific inclusions (Heinz bodies).

Reticulocyte Count: Evaluating reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) can determine whether the bone marrow is appropriately responding to anaemia. Low reticulocyte counts may suggest decreased RBC production, while high counts could indicate haemolysis.

Iron Studies: Measuring serum iron, ferritin, total iron-binding capacity (TIBC), and transferrin saturation helps diagnose iron-deficiency anaemia and differentiate it from other forms.

Vitamin and Folate Levels: Assessing serum vitamin B12 and folate levels is essential for diagnosing megaloblastic anaemias, such as pernicious anaemia or folate deficiency anaemia.

Haemoglobin Electrophoresis: This test is crucial for identifying haemoglobinopathies like sickle cell disease and thalassaemia.
Specific Tests: In cases of suspected haemolytic anemia or underlying chronic diseases, additional tests may be required, including autoimmune markers, haptoglobin, and direct and indirect bilirubin measurements.

Bone Marrow Aspiration and Biopsy: These invasive procedures may be necessary when the underlying cause remains unclear or when bone marrow disorders, myelodysplastic syndromes, or aplastic anemia are suspected.

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34
Q

Name the management for anaemia:

A

Nutritional Support: For iron-deficiency anaemia, dietary adjustments or iron supplementation are essential. Correcting vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies through diet or supplements is critical for megaloblastic anaemias.

Erythropoiesis-Stimulating Agents: In chronic kidney disease-associated anaemia or anaemia related to chemotherapy, erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs) may stimulate red blood cell production.

Treating Underlying Conditions: Managing chronic diseases, such as inflammatory disorders or cancer, can alleviate anaemia. Specific treatments, such as corticosteroids for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, may be required.

Blood Transfusions: In cases of severe anaemia, significant bleeding, or acute complications, blood transfusions can rapidly improve oxygen delivery. Transfusions are vital in haemolytic crises.

Haemolysis Management: When haemolysis is the cause, identifying and treating the underlying haemolytic disorder, along with managing complications like jaundice and anaemia, is crucial.

Bone Marrow Stimulants: In some anaemias, such as aplastic anaemia, bone marrow stimulants like granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) or erythropoietin-stimulating agents may be considered.

Supportive Care: Providing supportive care, including managing symptoms, optimizing nutrition, and addressing fatigue and quality of life, is a key aspect of anaemia management.

Regular Monitoring: Ongoing follow-up and monitoring are vital to track the response to treatment and ensure that haemoglobin levels are stable. Adjustments to the treatment plan may be needed based on patient progress.

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35
Q

Define iron deficiency anaemia:

A

Iron deficiency anaemia is a haematological disorder stemming from an insufficient supply of iron, which is vital for the synthesis of haemoglobin—a crucial component of red blood cells. Without adequate iron, the body struggles to produce a sufficient quantity of healthy red blood cells, leading to a reduction in oxygen-carrying capacity and subsequent symptoms of anaemia.

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36
Q

Name some causes of iron deficiency anaemia:

A

Dietary Insufficiency: Inadequate iron intake, especially in individuals with restrictive diets or limited access to iron-rich foods.

Chronic Blood Loss: Gastrointestinal bleeding, heavy menstrual periods, and other sources of chronic blood loss (e.g. angiodysplasia) can deplete iron stores.

Malabsorption Disorders: Conditions like coeliac disease, inflammatory bowel disease and atrophic gastritis can hinder iron absorption in the gut. Hookworms are a more prominent cause in tropical setting.

Increased Demand: During pregnancy and rapid growth phases, the body’s iron requirements can surpass the available supply. This can also occur if there is chronic haemolysis

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37
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia:

A

Tiredness
Lethargy
Weakness
Palpitations: An increased heart rate may be noticeable, especially when at rest.
Cognitive Impairment: Some patients may exhibit difficulty concentrating or memory issues.
Cold Intolerance
Headaches and dizziness
Brittle Nails: Changes in the nails, such as brittleness and spoon-shaped deformities (koilonychia), can be observed.
Angular stomatitis
Atrophic glossitis
Pica: Iron-deficiency anaemia may manifest as pica, with cravings for non-food substances like ice (pagophagia) or clay (geophagia). This is more common in children.

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38
Q

What will the blood film show in iron deficiency anaemia:

A

Hypochromic, microcytic red cells
Additional pencil cells
Occasional target cells

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39
Q

What investigations do we do specifically for iron deficiency anaemia:

A

Total iron binding capacity (TIBC) – Will typically be high as the body mobilises available iron stores owing to the iron deficiency

Ferritin – will be low as available iron stores in the body are mobilised to counteract the iron deficiency

Note: Ferritin should be measured alongside B12 and folate to assess possible coexisting haematinic deficiency

A low ferritin is diagnostic of iron deficiency; however, a normal or high ferritin does not exclude iron deficiency
Ferritin is an acute phase protein so levels can be masked/influenced by other conditions, particularly inflammation – It is good to check a C-reactive protein (CRP) at the same time

Iron deficiency anaemia in patients >60y should prompt suspicion colonic malignancy until proven otherwise and prompt FIT testing and subsequent 2 week wait referral if indicated according to NICE guidelines.

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40
Q

What is the management for iron deficiency anaemia:

A

Iron Supplementation: Oral or intravenous iron supplements are administered to correct iron deficiency. Intravenous iron is preferred in cases of severe deficiency or malabsorption. Important considerations of oral iron supplementation (usually a 3 month course) include:

Side effects - diarrhoea, constipation, black stools, abdominal pain, nausea
If it is not tolerated due to SEs, reduce the dose to one tablet on alternate days, or consider alternative oral preparations.
Iron supplements should be taken on an empty stomach (preferably one hour before a meal) with a drink containing vitamin C, such as a glass of orange juice or another juice drink with added vitamin C. This aids absorption.
Oral iron decreases the absorption of oral Levothyroxine. Therefore if both are prescribed, advise patients to take at least 4 hours apart.
Monitoring - recheck FBC within 4 weeks of starting treatment (haemoglobin concentration should rise by about 20 g/L over 3–4 weeks). Then check the FBC again at 2–4 months to ensure that the haemoglobin level has returned to normal. Once Hb is normal can continue supplementation for 3 further months, and then monitor at 3/6/12-monthly intervals.

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41
Q

What is pernicious anaemia?

A

Pernicious anaemia is a deficiency in RBCs caused by lack of vitamin B12 in the blood
In the strictest sense, it is caused by autoimmune impairment of intrinsic factor production
The term is also widely used to describe B12 deficiency-related anaemia secondary to other causes as well.

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42
Q

What is the pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia?

A

The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia primarily revolves around the autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells, which play a central role in the absorption of vitamin B12. This complex process involves several key factors:

Autoimmune Attack: In pernicious anaemia, the body’s immune system mistakenly targets and destroys gastric parietal cells. These cells are responsible for producing intrinsic factor, a protein necessary for vitamin B12 absorption.

Intrinsic Factor Deficiency: As a result of autoimmune destruction, intrinsic factor levels decrease, leading to impaired vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum, the final part of the small intestine.

Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 results in a deficiency of this essential nutrient. Vitamin B12 is crucial for erythropoiesis (the formation of red blood cells) and the maintenance of the nervous system.

Megaloblastic Changes: Vitamin B12 deficiency leads to impaired DNA synthesis in developing blood cells. This results in megaloblastic changes, causing larger, structurally abnormal red blood cells (megaloblasts) in the bone marrow. These larger cells are less effective at carrying oxygen, leading to anaemia.

Haemolysis: Pernicious anaemia can lead to haemolysis (the breakdown of red blood cells) due to their structural abnormalities. .

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43
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pernicious anaemia?

A

Fatigue
Pallor
Glossitis - inflammation of the tongue, leading to a smooth, beefy-red appearance.
Neurological Symptoms and subacute combined degeneration of the cord: Pernicious anaemia may cause neuropathy, affecting balance, sensation, and coordination.
Jaundice - due to haemolysis
Cognitive Impairment - memory problems, confusion, and mood changes may occur

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44
Q

What would a full blood count and blood smear show in pernicious anaemia?

A

Full Blood Count (FBC): Reveals macrocytic anaemia and may show hypersegmented neutrophils.
Low haemoglobin level
High MCV
High mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH)
Normal mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
Low reticulocyte count

abnormally large and oval-shaped RBCs

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45
Q

What are the specific investigations we do in pernicious anaemia?

A

Vitamin B12 Assays: Measure serum vitamin B12 levels, which are typically low in pernicious anaemia.
Intrinsic Factor Antibodies: These antibodies help confirm the autoimmune nature of the condition. This test is highly specific.
Parietal cell Antibodies: This test is highly sensitive.
Bone Marrow Aspiration and Biopsy: May show megaloblastic changes in erythropoiesis.
Pernicious anaemia is associated with atrophic body gastritis – diagnostic criteria are based on histologic evidence of gastric body atrophy associated with hypochlorhydria.
Note: ‘active’ vitamin B12 or holotranscobalamin is a more sensitive measure of vitamin B12 deficiency – total vitamin B12 is mostly bound to carrier proteins.

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46
Q

What is the management of pernicious anaemia?

A

Management of patients with pernicious anaemia is lifelong replacement by quarterly treatment with hydroxycobalamin and close monitoring to ensure early diagnosis of any subsequently unmasked iron deficiency. Folate replacement is also often necessary.

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47
Q

What are the complications of pernicious anaemia?

A

Patients should be advised about possible long-term gastrointestinal consequences, such as gastric cancer and carcinoid.
Vitamin B12 is required for the nervous system so, in vitamin B12 deficiency, always consider:
Peripheral neuropathy
Subacute combined degeneration of the cord
Optic atrophy
Dementia
Vitamin B12 deficiency can be associated with other autoimmune disorders such as hypothyroidism and vitiligo.

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48
Q

Name the causes of microcytic anaemia:

A

Iron Deficiency Anaemia (IDA): IDA is the most common cause of microcytic anaemia. It results from insufficient iron intake, malabsorption, chronic blood loss (e.g. gastrointestinal bleeding), or increased iron requirements (e.g. pregnancy).
Thalassaemias: Thalassaemias are a group of inherited haemoglobin disorders characterized by reduced production of normal globin chains, leading to microcytosis.
Anaemia of Chronic Disease (ACD): Chronic inflammatory conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis and chronic infections, can cause ACD, which often presents as microcytic anemia.
Lead Poisoning: Exposure to lead, often through contaminated sources, can lead to microcytic anaemia, particularly in children.
Sideroblastic Anaemia: Sideroblastic anaemias are a heterogeneous group of conditions characterized by defective haem synthesis and the accumulation of iron within the mitochondria of erythroid precursors.

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49
Q

Define thalassaemia:

A

Thalassaemia is a group of inherited disorders characterised by abnormal haemoglobin production.
Defects in the four genes for α-globin result in α-thalassaemia in the two genes for β-globin result in β-thalassaemia
The absence/abnormality of the α- or β-globin genes leads to quantitative abnormality in globin chain production and an imbalance of the globin-chain synthesis
The clinical severity of the syndrome is proportional to the number of absent or abnormal genes

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50
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of alpha-thalassaemia?

A

Autosomal recessive inheritance

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51
Q

What is the pathophysiology of alpha thalassaemia?

A

α-thalassemia describes the spectrum of diseases caused by nonfunctioning copies of the four α-globin genes on chromosome 16.
Symptomatic disease results when two or more copies of the gene are lost
Patients with two defective copies have a mild asymptomatic anaemia – so-called α-thalassaemia trait
Those with three defective copies have symptomatic haemoglobin H disease
Microcytic anaemia (Hb approximately 70 g/l)
Haemolysis
Splenomegaly
Normal survival is to be expected
inheritance of four defective copies (hydrops fetalis) is incompatible with life
The lack of α-globin chains results in excess γ-chains (creating Hb Barts), which are poor carriers of oxygen owing to their high affinity for oxygen
It may affect the fetus in utero - Bart’s hydrops fetalis will generally present on antenatal ultrasound scans with increased amniotic fluid, increased nuchal translucency and other features of foetal fluid overload.

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52
Q

What is the management for alpha-thalassaemia?

A

Current treatment options for symptomatic thalassaemia include:
Blood transfusions
Stem cell transplantation
A splenectomy is an option, particularly in patients with HbH disease.
Regular folic acid can also be given, especially in those who are pregnant.

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53
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for beta-thalassaemia?

A

Autosomal recessive inheritance

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54
Q

What is the pathophysiology of beta-thalassaemia?

A

β-thalassemia describes the spectrum of diseases caused by nonfunctioning copies of the two β-globin genes
The mildest variant of β-thalassaemia is β-thalassaemia minor (also known as thalassaemia trait)
Patients typically have one functioning and one dysfunctional copy of the β-globin gene
The most severe form of β-thalassaemia (known as β-thalassaemia major) is caused by a complete absence of β-globin synthesis (null mutations in both copies of the β-globin gene)

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55
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of beta-thalassaemia?

A

β-thalassaemia minor - patients are typically asymptomatic

β-thalassaemia major:
Severe symptomatic anaemia at 3–9 months of age
Becomes evident when levels of HbF, which does not contain β-globin, fall and should be replaced by HbA (made up of two α- and two β-globin chains), which is lacking in β-thalassaemia major
Ineffective haematopoiesis results in extramedullary haematopoesis, which results in
Frontal bossing (hair-on-end appearance on Skull XR)
Maxillary overgrowth and prominent frontal/parietal bones (hypertrophy of ineffective marrow) - “Chipmunk facies”
Hepatosplenomegaly
Failure to thrive in infancy

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56
Q

What are the investigations and findings for beta-thalassaemia minor?

A

Isolated microcytosis (MCV approximately 63–77 fl) and mild anaemia (Hb typically not <100 g/l)
The degree of anaemia is often less severe than would be expected for the degree of microcytosis
Blood film - target cells and basophilic stippling
Increased red cell count
Hb electrophoresis (diagnostic) shows raised HbA2 (>3.5%) – can be lowered by the presence of iron deficiency
Can be confused with iron deficiency – ferritin in β-thalassaemia minor is usually normal or high

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57
Q

What are the investigations and findings for beta-thalassaemia major?

A

Profound microcytic anaemia; reduced MCV and reduced MCHC
Increased reticulocytes
Blood film – marked anisopoikilocytosis, target cells and nucleated RBCs. Teardrop cells from extramedullary haematopoeisis may also be present
Methyl blue stains – RBC inclusions with precipitated α-globin
High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) or electrophoresis (diagnostic) – mainly shows HbF
HbA2 may be normal or mildly elevated
Haemolysis

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58
Q

What is the management for beta-thalassaemia major?

A

Treatment is with regular blood transfusions
The most important long-term consideration in these patients is to reduce the risk of iron overload toxicity
A condition which primarily affects the heart, joints, liver and endocrine glands
Half of patients with β-thalassaemia major die before the age of 35 years, usually from cardiac failure secondary to iron overload
Iron overload can be prevented with iron chelating agents (eg. desferrioxamine/deferiprone/deferasirox)
Hydroxycarbamide (previously known as hydroxyurea) can also be used to boost HbF levels
Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation (BMT) from a sibling or matched unrelated donor
A potentially curative option
Should be done before significant organ damage has occurred due to iron overload
Risks of transplant include graft rejection, graft vs. host disease, infection and transplant-related mortality
These risks must balanced against the long-term benefits of transfusion independence and ‘cure’

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59
Q

What are the complications of beta-thalassaemia major?

A

Cardiomyopathy/cardiac arrhythmia/cardiac failure
Older patients are prone to atrial fibrillation
Urgent cardiac investigations (eg. ECG, echocardiogram, cardiac monitoring and chest X-ray) may be needed
Acute sepsis – bacterial sepsis (risk is further increased after splenectomy)
Consider central venous catheter infection (particularly with Klebsiella, Yersinia enterocolitica and encapsulated organisms
Give broad-spectrum antibiotics, and consider high-dependency unit input
Liver cirrhosis, portal hypertension and acute decompensation
Early liver unit input and careful fluid balance are required
Endocrine dysfunction
Hypocalcaemia with tetany due to hypoparathyroidism
Needs cardiac monitoring and IV calcium
Diabetes
Iron overload due to repeated blood transfusions. Presents similarly to Hereditary Haemochromatosis
Death is usually due to heart failure if it goes undiagnosed.

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60
Q

What is the definition of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia characterised by low haemoglobin levels, decreased red blood cell production, and altered iron metabolism. It occurs in response to chronic inflammatory or infectious conditions, autoimmune disorders, and malignancies. In ACD, the body’s iron is sequestered in storage sites, leading to impaired availability for erythropoiesis, resulting in mild to moderate anaemia.

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61
Q

What is the epidemiology of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

ACD is a common form of anaemia and frequently occurs in individuals with chronic illnesses. Its prevalence varies based on the underlying diseases. Conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, chronic kidney disease, cancer, and chronic infections are frequently associated with ACD. It can affect individuals of all age groups and backgrounds, with a higher prevalence in those with multiple comorbidities.

Inflammatory Conditions: Rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and inflammatory bowel disease.
Chronic Infections: Tuberculosis, HIV, and osteomyelitis.
Malignancies: Leukaemia, lymphoma, and solid tumours.
Chronic Kidney Disease: Impaired erythropoietin production and iron metabolism.
Autoimmune Disorders: Systemic inflammation can lead to ACD.
Chronic Liver Disease: Hepcidin release is altered, impacting iron regulation.

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62
Q

What is the pathophysiology of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Chronic disease can trigger the formation of inflammatory cytokines such as IL-1 and IL-6. Raised levels of IL-6 stimulate the release of hepcidin from the liver, which inhibits iron absorption by reducing the activity of ferroportin, an iron export channel located on the basolateral surface of gut enterocytes and the plasma membrane of reticuloendothelial cells (macrophages). This leads to a decrease in haemoglobin production and the onset of anaemia. In ACD you have good iron stores, however the chronic inflammation means you can’t access it. This results in a low TIBC, normal/low serum iron and normal/raised ferritin (falsely raised as it is acute phase reactant). See more in the investigations section.

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63
Q

What is the management of anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Management of ACD primarily involves treating the underlying condition causing the anaemia. In some cases, erythropoiesis-stimulating agents may be used to stimulate the production of red blood cells. This is because the production of EPO is blunted in ACD.
Iron supplementation is generally not effective due to the body’s impaired ability to absorb iron in this condition.

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64
Q

What is the definition of sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Sideroblastic anaemia is a group of blood disorders characterized by an impaired ability of the bone marrow to produce normal red blood cells. Instead, it produces ringed sideroblasts - red blood cells with iron-loaded mitochondria.

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65
Q

What causes sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Sideroblastic anaemia occurs due to ineffective erythropoiesis, leading to increased iron absorption and deposition within the bone marrow and other organs. The condition can be congenital, with X-linked, recessive, or dominant inheritance patterns depending on the gene involved. Acquired causes may be related to drug toxicity or myelodysplastic syndromes. Toxins and drugs associated with sideroblastic anaemia include chronic alcohol abuse, lead poisoning, and Isoniazid use.

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66
Q

What are the investigations for sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Full blood count: To assess the degree of anaemia and the size of the red blood cells.
Serum ferritin and iron levels: Typically elevated in sideroblastic anaemia.
Blood film examination: To identify sideroblastic inclusions within the red blood cell cytoplasm (see below).
Bone marrow biopsy: Can reveal increased iron deposition and ringed sideroblasts.

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67
Q

What is the management for sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Management strategies for sideroblastic anaemia include:
Avoidance of triggers: Such as alcohol or other toxins.
Chelation therapy: To reduce iron overload.
Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) supplementation: May be beneficial in some patients, particularly those with X-linked sideroblastic anaemia.
Blood transfusions: May be necessary in severe cases to manage acute symptoms of anaemia.
Stem cell transplant: This may be an option for some patients with severe, refractory disease.

68
Q

Define normocytic anaemia?

A

Decreased blood volume or decreased erythropoiesis
MCV 80-100

69
Q

What are the two types of normocytic anaemia?

A

haemolytic and non-haemolytic

70
Q

Name some causes of haemolytic anaemia:

A

Haemoglobinopathies e.g sickle cell disease
Enzyme deficiency e.g G6PD
membrane defects e.g hereditary spherocytosis
Extrinsic defects: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

71
Q

What is the pathophysiology of G6PD deficiency:

A

G6PD deficiency results in a reduced ability of red blood cells to neutralise oxidative stress. This deficiency leads to the accumulation of reactive oxygen species, causing damage to the cell membrane and eventual haemolysis. The extent of haemolysis depends on the severity of the deficiency and the presence of triggering factors, such as certain medications, infections, or foods.

72
Q

What are the triggers for G6PD deficiency:

A

Medications:
Antibiotics: Antibiotics including sulfamethoxazoles e.g. trimethoprim and quinolones such as ciprofloxacin, Nitrofurantoin
Antimalarials: Primaquine, quinidine, and chloroquine.
Aspirin: In high doses, aspirin can be problematic.
NSAIDs: e.g. ibuprofen and naproxen.
Dapsone: Used in the treatment of leprosy and dermatitis herpetiformis.
Infections:

Viral Infections: Viral illnesses, including hepatitis and some respiratory infections, can trigger haemolysis.

Bacterial Infections: Certain bacterial infections, like sepsis, can lead to haemolysis.

Fava Beans (Broad Beans):
Consumption of fava beans can cause severe haemolysis, and this trigger is often associated with G6PD deficiency.

Chemical Exposures:
Certain chemicals, such as naphthalene (found in mothballs) and aniline dyes, can trigger haemolysis.

Mental and Physical Stress:
Stressful situations, including physical and emotional stress, can exacerbate G6PD deficiency.

Certain Foods and Beverages:
Tonic Water: Contains quinine and can trigger haemolysis.
Soy Products: Some individuals with G6PD deficiency may experience haemolysis after consuming large quantities of soy-based foods.

Other Medications:
Vitamin K Analogues: Medications like menadione, used for various medical conditions, can trigger haemolysis.

73
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of G6PD deficiency:

A

Most individuals with G6PD deficiency remain asymptomatic until exposed to triggers
Jaundice: Caused by increased bilirubin levels due to haemolysis. Babies may present with neonatal jaundice.
Pallor: Resulting from anaemia.
Dark Urine: Due to haemoglobinuria, a consequence of haemolysis.
Fatigue and weakness: May result from chronic, low-level haemolysis.
Gallstones (pigmented)

74
Q

What are the investigations for G6PD deficiency:

A

Bedside: Assess vital signs and perform a physical examination to check for pallor, jaundice, and hepatosplenomegaly.

Blood Tests: A full blood count (FBC) may reveal anaemia, reticulocytosis, and elevated bilirubin levels. Blood film shows Heinz bodies +/- bite and blister cells.
A G6PD enzyme activity assay confirms the diagnosis, and importantly should be done around 3 months after an acute exacerbation, as if this is done around the time of an acute haemolytic episode, it will be falsely negative.

75
Q

What is the management for G6PD deficiency:

A

Avoiding Triggers: Education on avoiding triggers such as specific medications (e.g. sulfonamides, primaquine), infections, and fava beans is essential.
Supportive Care: During acute haemolytic episodes, management includes hydration, pain relief, and blood transfusions in severe cases.
Monitoring: Regular follow-up to assess haemoglobin levels and ensure avoidance of triggers.

76
Q

What are the complications of G6PD deficiency:

A

Acute Haemolysis: Severe haemolysis can lead to anaemia, haemoglobinuria, and increased risk of acute kidney injury.

Chronic Anaemia: Repeated haemolytic episodes can result in chronic anaemia.

Infection Susceptibility: Patients may be more susceptible to infections during haemolytic episodes.

77
Q

Causes of non-haemolytic normocytic anaemia:

A
  • Blood loss
  • Aplastic anaemia (parvovirus B19 infection)
  • Chronic disease e.g. RA
78
Q

Define haemolytic anaemia:

A

Haemolytic anaemia is a condition characterised by the premature destruction of red blood cells (RBCs), leading to a decrease in their lifespan. This condition can be classified into hereditary and acquired forms, with further subdivisions based on the site of haemolysis, either intravascular or extravascular, and the underlying cause, autoimmune or non-autoimmune.

79
Q

Name specific subtypes and underlying causes of anaemia:

A

Sickle cell disease predominantly affects individuals of African descent, and is most prevalent in sub-Saharan Africa.

Thalassemias: The distribution of thalassemias is linked to regions with a high prevalence of consanguineous marriages, notably in Mediterranean countries.

The prevalence of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia varies, but it is often associated with autoimmune diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus. It can affect individuals of any age and ethnicity.

The incidence of intravascular haemolysis may be higher in conditions involving mechanical trauma, such as prosthetic heart valves or microangiopathic disorders.

Extravascular haemolysis is often observed in hereditary conditions like hereditary spherocytosis and can affect individuals worldwide - Hereditary spherocytosis is an autosomal dominant disease, treated (in severe cases) with childhood splenectomy. It is also more common in patients from northern Europe - eosin 5-maleimide (EMA) binding test confirm the diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis.

80
Q

Name some causes of hereditary haemolytic anaemia:

A

Includes conditions like sickle cell disease, thalassemias, and hereditary spherocytosis, often caused by genetic mutations affecting RBC structure or function.

81
Q

Name some causes of acquired haemolytic anaemia:

A

Can result from autoimmune disorders, infections (e.g., malaria), medication reactions, or mechanical trauma.

82
Q

Name some causes of Intravascular Haemolysis and the consequences:

A

Occurs within the bloodstream, leading to the release of free haemoglobin into the circulation and the excess of haemoglobin is dealt with in many ways:
Combination with haptoglobin
Combination with albumin (methaemalbuminaemia)
Loss in the urine (haemoglobinuria)
Storage in tubular epithelial cells as haemosiderin
Shedding into the urine (haemosiderinuria)

Causes of intravascular haemolytic anaemia include:
Intrinsic cellular injury (eg. G6PD deficiency)
Intravascular complement-mediated lysis (some autoimmune haemolytic anaemias)
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria and acute transfusion reactions
Mechanical injury – microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and cardiac valves
Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA)

83
Q

Describe extravascular haemolysis and the causes:

A

Takes place outside the bloodstream, primarily in the spleen and liver, where RBCs are phagocytosed. It is not associated with dramatic release of free haemoglobin into the circulation.
Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly are typical.
Causes include:
Abnormal red cells (e.g. sickle cell anaemia and hereditary spherocytosis)
Normal cells having been marked by antibodies for splenic phagocytosis

84
Q

What are the two major causes of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia:

A

Warm AIHA:
An IgG-mediated extravascular haemolytic disease, in which the spleen tags cells for splenic phagocytosis.
Causes: SLE, idiopathic, lymphoproliferative neoplasms (eg. chronic lymphocytic leukaemia and lymphoma - diagnosed with flow cytometry), drugs (methyldopa)
Managed with prednisolone or immunosupression (e.g. AZT) and transfusions if severe

Cold AIHA:
IgM-mediated haemolytic disease, in which IgM fixes complement causing direct intravascular haemolysis. It includes cold agglutinin disease
The IgM agglutinates also cause the hands and feet to become blue in cold conditions (acrocyanosis)
Causes: post-infectious (usually after Mycoplasma or EBV), idiopathic, lymphoproliferative disorders
Treatment is mostly supportive, warmed blood is transfused if required and resistant cases may trial rituximab

85
Q

What are the causes of non-autoimmune haemolytic anaemia:

A

Caused by factors other than autoantibodies, such as infections or mechanical stress:
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)
Physical lysis of red cells (e.g. malaria, patients with mechanical heart valves)
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) – often caused by E. coli 0157:H7
Infectious causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) such as fulminant meningococcaemia

86
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of haemolytic anaemia:

A

Fatigue
Pallor
Jaundice - Haemolysis releases bilirubin into the bloodstream, causing yellowing of the skin and sclera
Splenomegaly - The spleen becomes enlarged as it works to remove and destroy the damaged red blood cells.
Dark Urine
Gallstones - Excess bilirubin can accumulate in the gallbladder, increasing the risk of gallstone formation.
Leg Ulcers - In severe cases, reduced blood flow and oxygen supply can lead to painful leg ulcers.
Shortness of Breath
Heart Palpitations

87
Q

What is the management of haemolytic anaemia:

A

Supportive Care: Blood transfusions to manage severe anaemia however this won’t be curative as there will be ongoing haemolysis if the underlying cause is not managed.

Immunosuppressive Therapy: In autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, medications like corticosteroids can reduce antibody production.

Splenectomy: May be considered in certain cases, particularly hereditary spherocytosis.
Specific management strategies depend on the type of haemolytic anaemia.

88
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of g6pd deficiency?

A

x linked recessive

89
Q

A positive Coombs test?

A

A positive Coombs test (or antiglobulin test) indicates the presence of antibodies or complement proteins bound to red blood cells (RBCs), suggesting an immune-mediated process.

90
Q

What is the link between iron tablets and levothyroxine?

A

Oral iron supplements, commonly used to treat iron deficiency anaemia, can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine when taken together. To avoid this interaction, it is recommended to take iron at least four hours before or after levothyroxine. This ensures both medications are absorbed properly and can exert their therapeutic effects.

91
Q

A microcytic anaemia with motor neuropathy and raised iron levels without increased total iron binding capacity

A

suggests the possibility of lead poisoning.

92
Q

Management of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

management of this condition consists of folate supplementation and splenectomy

93
Q

What are the four types in alpha thalassaemia?

A
  • Silent carrier (one defective allele)
  • Alpha thalassaemia trait (two defective alleles)
  • Haemoglobin H disease (three defective alleles)
  • Haemoglobin bart disease (four defective alleles)
94
Q

Define haemophilia:

A

Haemophilia A and B are both X-linked recessive inherited bleeding disorders, caused by deficiencies in clotting factors VIII and IX respectively, both of which are integral components of the instrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade.

95
Q

Haemophilia A is a deficiency in which clotting factor?

A

Factor VIII

96
Q

Hamophilia B is a deficiency in which clotting factor?

A

Factor IX

97
Q

Signs and symptoms of haemophilia?

A

They typically presents early in life with spontaneous deep and severe bleeding into soft tissues, joints and muscles – historically, joint damage resulted in a deforming arthropathy
Boys often present with excessive bleeding following trauma or surgical intervention (e.g. tonsillectomy)
Cerebral haemorrhage was a major cause of mortality in severe haemophilia before the widespread use of blood products

98
Q

What are the investigations for haemophilia?

A

Diagnosis is with a factor VIII/IX assay
For boys with severe haemophilia A or B (factor VIII or factor IX <1%, respectively):
Two-thirds are diagnosed at birth when the boy is born to a known or suspected carrier
The rest are picked up later on in childhood when the baby begins to crawl or fall, or there is an eruption of dentition
Some patients have a milder clinical severity – this is directly related to higher factor levels
Mild haemophilia >5%
Moderate haemophilia 1–5%
Blood tests show:
Clotting profile - APTT is elevated
vWF antigen is normal in haemophilia A
Defective platelet function

99
Q

What is the management for haemophilia?

A

Minor bleeds in patients with Haemophilia A can be managed with desmopressin (DDAVP) – increases factor VIII sufficiently to deal with the minor bleeding
Major bleeds require recombinant factor VIII or IX
In patients with severe haemophilia, the use of regular prophylactic recombinant clotting factor treatment, physiotherapy and education in learning how to avoid bleeds have all contributed to the prevention of joint arthropathy
Gene therapy has also been shown to be successful
Mild and moderate haemophilia require ‘on demand’ treatment in response to bleeding or in preparation for surgery
Supportive management includes:
Antifibrinolytics (eg. tranexamic acid) – useful for bleeding wounds but should be avoided in muscle haematomas, haemarthrosis and urinary bleeding as they can lead to fibrosis
Vaccination against hepatitis B, hydrotherapy, orthopaedic and dental advice are also beneficial
One-third of boys with severe haemophilia A will develop an inhibitor to factor VIII following factor VIII treatment
This can worsen bleeding and complicate therapy
Treatment of haemophilia with inhibitors should be directed from a specialist centre
Life expectancy for patients with haemophilia A and B is well into middle age in this era of blood product-free concentrates

100
Q

Phenytoin, an anticonvulsant, can cause acquired factor VIII deficiency as a side effect, leading to bleeding tendencies. This occurs due to the formation of autoantibodies against factor VIII, impairing its function.

A

This patient has developed antibodies to Factor VIII as a result of phenytoin use. Prolonged APTT with normal PT suggests involvement of one or more of Factors VIII, IX, XI & XII. APTT does not correct with the mixing studies suggesting that the bleeding disorder is due to antibody action rather than failure to produce clotting factors.

101
Q

How does haemophilia present in toddlers?

A

Haemophilia often presents as failure to walk in toddlers due to bleeding into joints (haemarthrosis). This leads to the displacement of normal joint structures, in this case - the patella and quadriceps tendon, as a result of bleeding into the joints.

102
Q

How does desmopressin work in haemophilia A

A

Desmopressin enhances haemostasis in Haemophilia A by releasing von Willebrand factor from storage sites in endothelial cells to improve Factor VIII activity.

103
Q

Define splenectomy?

A

Splenectomy is the surgical removal of the spleen.

104
Q

Name the indications for splenectomy?

A

Indications for splenectomy can be classified into emergency and elective indications.
Indications for emergency splenectomy include trauma and rupture (e.g. in EBV infection).
An elective splenectomy may need to be done in cases of hypersplenism, where the spleen has a preference for platelets resulting in increased uptake, which leads to sequestration of cells in the spleen
Indications for elective splenectomy include haemolytic anaemia (hereditary or immune) and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
Note: patients post-splenectomy will have Howell-Jolly bodies and Pappenheimer bodies on blood film.

105
Q

What is the issue with splenectomy/hyposplensim?

A

Following splenectomy or in patients with hyposplenism (dysfunctional spleen, e.g. in coeliac disease) there is a reduced immune response against encapsulated organisms (haemophilus, pneumococcus, and meningococcus).

What are the most common organisms associated with severe infection? (3)

NHS

  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)
106
Q

What is the treatment for hyposplenism/ splenectomy?

A

Prophylaxis
Patients therefore require the following vaccinations:
Pneumococcal vaccination (with regular boosters every 5 years).
Seasonal influenza vaccination (yearly, typically every autumn).
Haemophilus influenza type B vaccination (one-off).
Meningitis C vaccination (one-off).

Patients also require daily low-dose prophylactic antibiotics, often for life. The typical regimen is with phenoxymethylpenicillin which is also known as penicillin V (clarithromycin or erythromycin if patients are allergic to penicillin).
Note: the risk of infection is particularly high in the 2 years following splenectomy, the highest risk being from pneumococcal infection.

107
Q

Define pancytopenia?

A

Pancytopenia is a haematological condition characterised by reduced counts of all three major cellular components of blood: erythrocytes, leukocytes and thrombocytes.

108
Q

How can pancytopenia be categorised?

A

These can be broadly grouped into three categories: decreased production, increased destruction or sequestration, and peripheral dilution.

109
Q

Name sone causes of decreased production in pancytopenia?

A

Marrow infiltration: Conditions such as leukaemia, lymphoma, myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS), multiple myeloma, metastatic carcinoma or granulomas can infiltrate the bone marrow leading to pancytopenia.

Aplastic anaemia: This is a rare condition where the bone marrow fails to produce enough new cells. It can be idiopathic or secondary to exposure to toxins (e.g., benzene), drugs (e.g., chloramphenicol), viral infections (e.g., Hepatitis C) or autoimmune diseases.

Nutritional deficiencies: Deficiencies of vitamin B12, folate or iron can impair haematopoiesis resulting in pancytopenia.

110
Q

name some causes of increased Destruction or Sequestration in pancytopenia?

A

Hypersplenism: Conditions causing splenomegaly such as cirrhosis, lymphomas or infectious diseases like malaria can lead to increased sequestration and destruction of blood cells resulting in pancytopenia.

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH): This is a rare acquired disorder that leads to the destruction of red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.

111
Q

name some causes of Peripheral Dilution in pancytopenia?

A

Dilutional pancytopenia: This can occur in conditions causing overhydration or following transfusion of large volumes of intravenous fluids.

112
Q

name some risk factors for pancytopenia?

A

Risk factors for pancytopenia include exposure to certain drugs (e.g., antineoplastics, sulphonamides, anticonvulsants), toxins (e.g., benzene, heavy metals), radiation therapy and certain infections (e.g., HIV, Hepatitis C). Furthermore, individuals with a history of autoimmune diseases, genetic disorders affecting the bone marrow (e.g., Fanconi anaemia) or those who have undergone bone marrow transplantation are at an increased risk. Age is another significant factor as the incidence increases with advancing age due to an increased prevalence of malignancies and myelodysplastic syndromes.Improve

113
Q

How can pancytopenia be classified?

A

The classification of pancytopenia can be broadly divided into three categories: inherited, acquired, and idiopathic. This categorisation is based on the underlying cause of the condition.

114
Q

Name some causes of inherited pancytopenia?

A

Fanconi Anaemia: This is a rare genetic disorder causing bone marrow failure. It leads to progressive pancytopenia, with aplastic anaemia being a common manifestation.

Dyskeratosis Congenita: Another inherited bone marrow failure syndrome, it is characterised by skin pigmentation, nail dystrophy, and oral leukoplakia in addition to pancytopenia.

Shwachman-Diamond Syndrome: A rare congenital disorder associated with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency and varying degrees of bone marrow failure leading to pancytopenia.

115
Q

Name some causes of acquired pancytopenia?

A

Aplastic Anaemia: An acquired condition often due to immune-mediated destruction of haematopoietic stem cells, resulting in pancytopenia.

Megaloblastic Anaemia: Caused by deficiency of vitamin B12 or folate leading to ineffective erythropoiesis and subsequent pancytopenia.

Hypersplenism: Overactivity of the spleen can lead to sequestration and destruction of all blood cell lines causing pancytopenia.

Infections: Certain infections such as HIV, hepatitis viruses, Epstein-Barr virus can directly or indirectly cause damage to the bone marrow leading to pancytopenia.

Chemotherapy and Radiation: These treatments can cause bone marrow suppression leading to pancytopenia.

116
Q

What are the clinical features of red cell deficiency?

A

Pallor: This is often one of the first signs noted in patients with pancytopenia. It results from reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood due to decreased red blood cell count.

Fatigue and weakness: Patients may report feeling tired or weak due to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues.

Dyspnoea: Shortness of breath on exertion can occur as the body attempts to compensate for low oxygen levels by increasing respiratory rate.

Tachycardia: An increased heart rate may be present as a compensatory mechanism for anaemia.

117
Q

What are the clinical features of white cell deficiency?

A

Infections: Patients are more susceptible to infections due to decreased immune response. These infections can be recurrent and may be caused by organisms which are usually non-pathogenic in individuals with normal immunity.

Fever: A persistent or intermittent fever can be a sign of underlying infection in these patients. In severe cases, sepsis may develop.

118
Q

What are the clinical features of Platelet deficiency?

A

Bleeding tendencies: This could manifest as petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin), purpura (larger patches of bleeding into the skin), or ecchymosis (bruises). There could also be spontaneous bleeding from the gums, nosebleeds, or heavy menstrual bleeding in women.

Haemorrhagic complications: In severe cases, patients may present with major haemorrhages, such as gastrointestinal bleeding or intracranial haemorrhage.

119
Q

What are the investigations for pancytopenia?

A

Full Blood Count (FBC) and Peripheral Blood Smear (PBS)
Confirm pancytopenia with repeat FBC.
Examine PBS for abnormal cells, including blasts, dysplastic changes, or evidence of haemolysis.

Bone Marrow Examination
Bone marrow aspirate and trephine biopsy can provide definitive diagnosis in many cases. It is particularly useful when there’s suspicion of a primary bone marrow disorder.

Serological Studies
Perform serological tests for viral infections such as HIV, Hepatitis B and C, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), and Cytomegalovirus (CMV).

Autoimmune Screening
An autoimmune screen can be helpful if an autoimmune process is suspected. This includes antinuclear antibody (ANA), anti-double stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA), rheumatoid factor (RF), and extractable nuclear antigens (ENA).

Biochemical Tests
Liver function tests, renal function tests, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), haptoglobin, direct antiglobulin test (DAT), vitamin B12 levels, folate levels, iron studies including ferritin level should be performed.

Cytogenetic and Molecular Studies
If myelodysplasia or acute leukaemia is suspected based on the PBS or bone marrow findings, cytogenetic analysis or fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) studies should be carried out.

Imaging
Chest X-ray and abdominal ultrasound may be useful in certain cases, especially when organomegaly or lymphadenopathy is present.

120
Q

What is the management of pancytopenia?

A
  • RBC and platelet transfusion
  • Bone marrow and stem cell transplant
    Growth factor support with erythropoietin or granulocyte colony-stimulating factor in certain circumstances.
121
Q

Define polycythaemia?

A

Polycythaemia describes an increase in haematocrit, red cell count, and haemoglobin concentration.

122
Q

How is polycythaemia classified?

A

Polycythaemia is classified as relative or absolute.

123
Q

Define relative polycythaemia?

A

Relative polycythaemia (or pseudopolycythaemia) occurs when the haemoglobin is elevated secondary to a low plasma volume rather than an increased number of red cells – remember the haemoglobin level is measured as a concentration.

124
Q

Name some causes of relative polycythaemia?

A

Dehydration
Chronic alcohol intake
Excess diuretic use
Pyrexia
Diarrhoea and vomiting

‘Stress polycythaemia’ refers to relative polycythaemia that is found predominantly in middle-aged men with stressful occupations and chronically reduced plasma volumes of uncertain cause

Gaisböck syndrome is more common in young men, particularly smokers, and is associated with hypertension, which reduces plasma volume, resulting in raised haemoglobin (pseudopolycythaemia)

125
Q

Define absolute polycythaemia?

A

If the plasma volume is normal, the polycythaemia is an absolute polycythaemia (red cell mass will be raised).

Absolute polycythaemia is classified into primary and secondary causes.

126
Q

Define primary polycythaemia?

A

In primary polycythaemia, there is excess and uncontrolled erythrocytosis that is independent of erythropoietin (EPO) levels. Most cases of PV are associated with mutations in the JAK2 gene, leading to uncontrolled production of blood cells, especially RBCs.

In the majority of cases, it is due to the myeloproliferative condition polycythaemia rubra vera (PRV), which is also known as ‘primary proliferative polycythaemia’, although there are also some rare familial causes.

127
Q

Define secondary polycythaemia?

A

In secondary polycythaemia, the excess RBC production is driven by excess EPO.

This can be secondary to:

An appropriate rise in EPO, as seen in conditions of chronic hypoxia (e.g. COPD or spending time at high altitude)
Anabolic steroid use
Inappropriate secretion of EPO, which may be seen:
    In renal neoplasms as a paraneoplastic effect
    In CKD - impaired renal function can lead to reduced erythropoietin clearance, causing an increase in RBC production
    In cyanotic heart disease (e.g. tetralogy of Fallot)
    In high-affinity haemoglobinopathies (e.g. haemoglobin M)
128
Q

Signs and symptoms of polycythaemia?

A

Fatigue
Headache
Visual disturbances (secondary to hyperviscosity)
Pruritus (typically after a hot bath)
Erythromelalgia (a painful burning sensation in the fingers and toes)
Arterial thrombosis (eg. myocardial infarction or stroke)
Venous thrombosis (eg. pulmonary embolus or deep vein thrombosis)
Haemorrhage (intracranial or gastrointestinal)- paradoxical increased bleeding risk (due to impaired platelet function)
Increased risk of gout (caused by hyperuricaemia secondary to increased cell turnover).
Facial redness on examination (plethora)
Splenomegaly
Hypertension
Peptic ulceration

129
Q

Can you name some specific clinical features of primary polycythaemia?

A

Hyperviscosity symptoms: Chest pain, myalgia, weakness, headache, blurred vision, loss of concentration
‘Ruddy complexion’
Splenomegaly

130
Q

Name some investigations for polycythaemia?

A

Bedside - Pulse oximetry to look for possible secondary polycythaemia
Full blood count (FBC)
Raised haematocrit
Raised haemoglobin
Raised red cell mass with low/low–normal plasma volume (ie. true polycythaemia)
Raised leukocytes and platelet counts – seen in half of patients
In contrast, the neutrophil count and platelet count are usually normal in secondary polycythaemia
Renal function and urate (may be raised)
Vitamin B12 (often elevated in myeloproliferative disease)
EPO levels - often low
JAK-2 V617F mutation (>95% of cases)
Bone marrow biopsy - Hypercellular bone marrow
Abnormal ultrasound – looking for possible abnormalities in kidneys, liver and spleen

It is important to exclude chronic myeloid leukaemia, which is done by cytogenetic testing.

131
Q

What is the management aim for polycythaemia?

A

Where possible underlying causes of secondary and relative polycythaemia should be corrected

The aim should be to maintain:

Haematocrit <45% in primary polycythaemia

Haematocrit <55% in secondary polycythaemia

Venesection is an effective method of lowering the red cell count rapidly and can also be used in the maintenance therapy period

Patients need to have reasonable venous peripheral access for this option
Repeated venesection may result in iron-deficient RBCs with low haemoglobin content
132
Q

What is the management for polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

Regular venesection as above
Aspirin 75mg daily
Cytoreductive therapy to suppress erythropoeisis in those where venesection isn’t sufficient, or those at high risk of thrombosis (most older patients):
1st line: hydroxycarbamide – suppresses erythrocytosis and causes a macrocytosis
2nd line: - Interferon, JAK-2 inhibitors (eg. ruxolitinib)
3rd line: Busulfan can be used but is leukaemogenic.
In younger patients, interferon is first line with hydroxycarbamide second line

Other interventions:

Allopurinol (for gout/hyperuricaemia)
Antihistamines, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, or interferon (for pruritus)
133
Q

What are the four types of leukamia?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)

134
Q

Define acute leukamia?

A

a result of impaired cell differentiation, resulting in large numbers of malignant precursor cells in the bone marrow

135
Q

Define chronic leukaemia?

A

the result of excess proliferation of mature malignant cells, but cell differentiation is unaffected

136
Q

Define myeloid leukaemia

A

commonly arises from a myeloid precursor cell, such as the cells that produce neutrophils

137
Q

Define Lymphocytic leukaemia

A

arises from a lymphoid precursor, such as a B or T cell

138
Q

What is the most common acute leukaemia?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

It predominantly affects adults, especially older adults, with no geographical variation
It can be associated with myelodysplastic syndrome
Ionising radiation (like that from a nuclear disaster) has been shown to be associated with the development of leukaemia

139
Q

What are the features of AML?

A
  • Anaemia- features? (3)
    • Fatigue
    • Pallor
    • Weakness
  • neutropenia (despite high WCC)- leading to frequent infections
  • Thrombocytopenia- features? (5)
    • Epistaxis
    • Bleeding gums
    • Petechiae
    • Purpura
    • Easy bruising
  • splenomegaly → can present as ‘early satiety’
  • bone pain
140
Q

What investigations do we do in AML?

A
  • FBC- what will it show? (3)
    • Neutropenia
    • Thrombocytopenia
    • Anaemia
  • Peripheral blood smear- what will it show?
    Presence of blast cells (immature WBCs)
    Myeloblasts and Auer rods

Bone marrow biopsy is key to diagnosis, along with other molecular analyses
Characteristic findings include:
hypercellular marrow
the presence of blasts (usually >50%)
Sometimes Auer rods

141
Q

What are the cytogenetics in AML?

A

Many different cytogenetic abnormalities can be seen, which are associated with varying effects on prognosis

-The translocation t(15;17) – a reciprocal translocation involving the RARA gene – confirms acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML; M3 subtype)

Confers a good prognosis
Hypergranular promyelocytes are seen, except in the M3 variant, which is hypogranular
T(8;21) seen in M2 subtype
    Confers better prognosis – chemotherapy may be sufficient, with bone marrow transplantation usually reserved for relapse

Cytogenetic abnormalities are the most significant prognostic factors in acute myeloid leukaemia, influencing treatment decisions and patient outcomes.

142
Q

What is the treatment for AML?

A

Chemotherapy regimens (unless the patient is older or unfit) – usually three or four courses of intensive chemotherapy lasting 5–10 days
Initial induction chemotherapy is designed to remove the bulk of the leukaemic cells (<5% blasts in the marrow) and subsequent consolidation chemotherapy to remove residual disease
A long-term indwelling catheter (i.e. Hickman tunnelled line or PICC) is usually placed to facilitate the administration of chemotherapy and blood products

Bone marrow transplantation
    A powerful and effective therapy that combines:
        The destruction of leukaemic cells with conditioning chemotherapy and radiotherapy with the aim of clearing the bone marrow before donor stem cells are given
        The immunogenic response from receiving donor cells that helps to destroy any remaining leukaemic cells (termed the 'graft-versus-leukaemia' effect)
    Can be risky, with risk increasing in age
    Complications include relapse and graft-versus-host disease, where the immunogenic response is against the host

Prophylactic antimicrobials – given to reduce the risk of infection

Blood products and growth hormone therapy – can be given for anaemia, thrombocytopenia and leucopenia as a result of chemotherapy treatments
143
Q

What is the specific additional treatment for acute promyelocytic anaemia?

A

APML has a high incidence of DIC, so needs aggressive management with platelets and clotting factor support

It carries a good prognosis as the translocation t(15;17) translocation makes the disease sensitive to treatment with all-trans retinoic acid (a vitamin A analogue), which is commenced before starting chemotherapy
144
Q

Prognosis of AML?

A

Death typically occurs within 2 months without treatment

Prognosis is still poor in those who undergo treatment

3-year survival rate 20%
30% cure rate with chemotherapy

Allogenic transplant can extend this with its curative approach but is usually reserved for younger patients (<50 years)

Key survival factors in AML are related to:

Age
Poor cytogenetics
Response to the first dose of induction chemotherapy
145
Q

Complications of AML?

A

Complications include therapy-related long-term side effects such as:

Secondary malignancy
Cardiorespiratory complications
Endocrine dysfunction
Infertility
Avascular necrosis of the hip – due to prolonged steroid exposure
Neuropsychological effects
146
Q

Define Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

ALL is a disease of the young (in contrast to AML)
It is the most common cancer in childhood – peak incidence at age 4–5 years
It can present in adulthood, albeit less commonly
It is caused by the abnormal proliferation of lymphoid progenitor cells, which infiltrate the bone marrow and other organs of the body
Down syndrome is a well-established risk factor for acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL). Children with Down syndrome have a 10- to 20-fold increased risk of developing ALL compared to the general population.

147
Q

Presentation of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

Symptoms:
Of marrow failure, such as fatigue (due to anaemia), abnormal bleeding/bruising (low platelets) and infections (low white cells)
From organ infiltration, such as bone pain
Signs:
Painless lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
Central nervous system (CNS) involvement (e.g. cranial nerve palsies, meningism) – very common in ALL in contrast to AML
Testicular infiltration (resulting in painless unilateral testicular enlargement)

causes bone marrow failure leading to a pancytopenia (↓Hb, ↓WCC, ↓platelets). This means that all cell lineages are affected. It can also cause hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy (superficial or mediastinal). The conjunctival pallor and flow murmur are secondary to the anaemia

148
Q

What is a distinguishing feature of ALL (not seen in AML)?

A

Lymphadenopathy and fevers

149
Q

What are the investigations for ALL?

A

Leucocytosis on FBC
Blast cells on blood film and bone marrow
Lymphoblasts are typically large with nucleoli, with very little cytoplasm and no granularity
Immunophenotyping can help to differentiate whether the origin is a T or B cell, along with other immunological subtypes
Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) stains for carbohydrate material in ALL

150
Q

What is the management for ALL?

A

ALL is commonly treated with chemotherapy regimens

The treatment strategy is combination chemotherapy that induces remission and then consolidates with stronger chemotherapy

CNS prophylactic agents are given to all patients with ALL

The CNS is a sanctuary site and many drugs are unable to penetrate the 'blood-brain barrier' – Before this practice, there was a high incidence of CNS relapse

Maintenance therapy is delivered to give continuous treatment for 2 years, which has been shown to improve 2-year survival

151
Q

How is response to treatment for ALL measured?

A

Blast count in the bone marrow – morphological remission is defined by blast count < 5%
Assessment of minimal residual disease (MRD) – greater sensitivity than morphological assessment
Uses polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to amplify the characteristic clonal rearrangements of:
Immunoglobulin genes in B-cell ALL
T-cell receptor genes in T-cell ALL
With the detection of 1 leukaemic cell in 10,000 cells in the bone marrow

152
Q

What is the prognosis for ALL?

A

Children have a cure rate of 70–90% with chemotherapy alone, particularly in good disease-risk groups
20–30% have poor-risk disease with poor-risk prognostic factors including:
Age <1 year and >10 years
Male sex
WCC >50 × 109/l (higher pretreatment WCC predicts poor prognosis)
CNS disease
poor cytogenetic features, such as t(9;22)
T-ALL – prognosis is worse than for B-ALL
Incomplete response to therapy

In the context of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) treatment, hyperdiploidy in blast cells is linked to a more favourable outcome.

153
Q

Describe the epidemiology of CML?

A

CML is most common in middle-aged patients (median age 40–50 years), although any age can be affected
Men are slightly more likely to be affected than women
It is regarded as sporadic as no significant risk factor has been identified, except for previous high-dose ionising radiation
Incidence is 1 per 100,000 of the population
It is classically associated with the Philadelphia chromosome

154
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of CML?

A

CML usually presents with:
Weight loss
Tiredness
Fever
Sweating
Common signs include:
Massive splenomegaly (>75% of patients)
Bleeding (due to thrombocytopenia)
Gout
The white blood cell count can be very high (>500 × 109/l), which can cause hyperleukocytosis with symptoms, such as:
Visual disturbance
Confusion
Priapism
Deafness

Hypermetabolism also occurs, with weight loss, sweats and anorexia.

155
Q

What are the investigations for CML?

A
  • FBC- what will it show? (5)
    • Leukocytosis
    • Thrombocytosis
    • Basophilia
    • Eosinophilia
    • High band cells
  • Blood film- would show what?
    Left shift (immature granulocytes) → granulocytosis + myeloblasts
  • Look at leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)- what will it be?
    Decreased
  • Cytogenic testing- for what?
    For confirmation of Philadelphia chromosome - The protein product of the hybrid BCR-ABL gene has tyrosine kinase activity that leads to uncontrolled cell proliferation and differentiation

Bone marrow analysis shows similar findings, plus

Marrow hyperplasia
Increased reticulin (fibrosis)
Granulocytic predominance

High vitamin B12 levels can also be present owing to vitamin B12-binding protein being produced by the white cells

156
Q

What is the treatment for CML?

A

CML treatment has been revolutionised by tyrosine kinase inhibitors (eg. imatinib), which have dramatically improved the prognosis of the disease and reduced the incidence of transformation to the acute blast crisis phase, which is often difficult to treat.

The treatment strategy is to:

Induce clinical remission and thereby reduce hypercatabolic symptoms and splenomegaly
Induce haematological remission, with normalisation of the blood count
Induce cytogenetic remission, with the elimination of the Philadelphia chromosome from marrow cells and
Induce molecular remission, with undetectability of the BCR–ABL fusion gene by PCR

The agents used are:

Hydroxycarbamide, which may be used to help normalise the blood count while awaiting genetic test results and to reduce splenomegaly
    It does not modify the underlying molecular/cytogenetic abnormalities or prevent acute transformation

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (eg. imatinib)
157
Q

What monitoring do we do in CML?

A

Monitoring of BCR–ABL levels is usually performed quarterly

Excellent cytogenetic response is defined as a three-log reduction in the BCR–ABL percentage (ie. <0.1% if 100% at presentation)

It is expected that tyrosine kinase inhibitors can be continued lifelong – some studies have however shown that patients with well-controlled CML can have their TKI discontinued.

Screening for mutations in the BCR–ABL gene that are associated with treatment resistance should be performed in patients who fail to respond to imatinib

If found, they can be treated with one of the newer tyrosine kinase inhibitors (eg. nilotinib or dasatinib)
158
Q

What are the side effects of tyrosine kinase inhibitors?

A

Reversible side effects of tyrosine kinase inhibitors include:

Nausea
Thrombocytopenia
Neutropenia
Fluid retention

A switch to one of the newer tyrosine kinase inhibitors can be tried if patients have significant side effects.

159
Q

Define CLL?

A

CLL is most common in men over the age of 60 years – incidence is 50 per 100,000 individuals after the age of 70 years
There is some evidence of a familial tendency
CLL is caused by the proliferation of functionally incompetent malignant B cells
The CLL cells accumulate because they survive for a very long time, rather than because they divide at an accelerated rate
It is therefore an indolent disease of deregulated programmed cell death

160
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of CLL?

A

CLL typically presents asymptomatically, but patients may present with:

Non-tender symmetrical lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
B symptoms – weight loss, night sweats and fever

Features of marrow failure (infection, anaemia and bleeding) are less common than in acute leukaemias.

161
Q

What is the diagnosis of CLL?

A
  • FBC- what would it show? (2)
    • Persistent lymphocytosis
    • With high percentage of small sized, mature lymphocytes
  • Blood smear- what would it show?
    Smudge cells

The most common initial blood result is an incidental lymphocytosis (80% of cases)

Blood film shows smudge cells – cells damaged as the film is made because they lack a cytoskeletal protein

Immunophenotype of the cells is CD5 and CD23 positive, FMC negative, CD22 and surface immunoglobulin weak

Chromosomal abnormalities are found in approximately 50% of patients

Direct antiglobulin test can be positive – AIHA can complicate CLL

Hypogammaglobulinaemia is common in advanced disease

Other tests include bone marrow biopsy, which will show lymphocytic infiltration of mature lymphocytes, with some smear cells
162
Q

What is the management for CLL?

A

Traditionally, intensive chemotherapy with fludarabine, cyclophosphamide and the addition of rituximab (FCR) is used to form first-line therapy. This has now changed in the world of targeted pathway inhibitors superseding chemotherapy.

In a patient with no co-morbidities and TP53 intact, +/- mutated IGHV mutated status, can now start with Venetoclax (selective inhibitor of B-cell lymphoma-2, BCL-2) -Obinutuzumab (anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody) (Ven-O) upfront, before considering FCR upfront alternatively in this patient group.

In fit patients with TP53 mutational disruption or any IGHV mutated status or traditionally unsuitable for FCR, frontline therapy is with Acalabrutinib (bruton tyrosine kinase inhibitor) +/- Obinutuzumab or upfront Ibrutinib (tyrosine kinase inhibitor, TKI) monotherapy. Alternatively, this patient group can also be started on upfront Ven-O or Venetoclax monotherapy.

BTKi (ibrutinib and acalabrutinib), BCL2i (venetoclax monotherapy or in combination with rituximab) and phosphoinositide 3-kinase inhibitors (PI3Ki) (idelalisib and rituximab) are presently licensed for relapsed/refractory CLL.

Allogeneic stem cell transplant should be considered in those fit patients who have failed at least 2 of : chemoimmunotherapy, BTKi, BCL2i or have Richter’s transformation (sudden transformation into a significantly more aggressive form of large cell lymphoma). If they are high-risk patients (TP53 disrupted), then an allogenic transplant can be considered after the failure of these therapies.

Steroids and monoclonal antibody treatments (eg. rituximab) may be useful in autoimmune haemolytic disease.

Prevention or treatment of infection with antibiotics or immunoglobulins is also part of the management.

163
Q

What is the prognosis of CLL?

A

CLL is a very variable disease: 1/3 of cases don’t progress, 1/3 of cases progress slowly, and 1/3 of cases progress actively.

Factors that affect prognosis are

Disease stage
Atypical lymphocyte morphology
Lymphocyte doubling time <12 months
Bone marrow trephine showing diffuse involvement
Chromosomal/genetic abnormalities, in particular TP53
Unmutated immunoglobulin VH (IGVH) gene status
Male sex
High expression CD38
164
Q

What is Ritcher’s transformation?

A

Richter’s transformation refers to the development of aggressive lymphoma, usually diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL), in patients with CLL. It is characterised by rapid lymph node enlargement, constitutional symptoms (fevers, night sweats, weight loss), and elevated LDH levels. The systemic and localised symptoms, particularly in the context of CLL, point towards this diagnosis.

165
Q

What are B symptoms?

A

B symptoms in leukemia refer to a set of constitutional symptoms that indicate systemic disease activity. They are often associated with lymphoproliferative disorders, including acute leukemia (such as Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)) and chronic leukemia (such as Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)), and may suggest advanced disease or a poor prognosis.

The three classic B symptoms are:

Fever: Typically unexplained and often low-grade (above 38°C or 100.4°F). This can occur due to cytokine release from leukemic cells or associated infections.

Night Sweats: Profuse sweating during sleep, often drenching, which can result from immune activation or increased tumor burden.

Unintentional Weight Loss: A loss of more than 10% of body weight over a period of 6 months without trying, often linked to the body's metabolic response to leukemia.