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Anatomy > Ear Anatomy > Flashcards

Ear Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

At what age is the mastoid process completely pneumatized

A

2

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2
Q

At what month gestation does the ear canal open

A

7

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3
Q

What structure lies between the prominence of semi-circular canal and the promontory/oval window?

A

Prominence of the facial canal.

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4
Q

Below is a diagram of a right middle ear showing its relationship with the inner ear. Name the structures.Diag001

A

A: Facial nerve. B: Ponticulus.Subiculum
D: Geniculate ganglion.

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5
Q

The following diagram is of a right middle ear viewed from below. Name the structures. Diag002

A
  • *A**-Facial recess.
  • *B**-Facial nerve.
  • *C**-Sinus tympani.
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6
Q

What range of frequencies can the human ear detect?

A

20-20,000Hz (greatest sensitivity is from 500 to 3000 Hz).

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7
Q

What structure is situated just medial to the tip of the cochleariform process?

A

Geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve.

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8
Q

What do the utricle and saccule detect?

A

Linear acceleration.

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9
Q

Between which ossicles does the chorda tympani run?

A

Manubrium of the malleus and long process of the incus.

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10
Q

What is the name of the central bony core of the cochlea through which nerves and vessels travel?

A

Modiolus.

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11
Q

What is meant by a “diploic mastoid”?

A

Occupied by bone marrow instead of air cells.

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12
Q

What proportion of the population has a pneumatized petrous pyramid?

A

One-third.

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13
Q

What structure lies superior to the ponticulus?

A

Oval window.

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14
Q

What is the function of the chorda tympani nerve?

A

Parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands, and taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.

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15
Q

What structure is located inferior to the subiculum and posteroinferior to the promontory?

A

Round window.

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16
Q

What structure ends blindly at the round window?

A

Scala tympani (lower compartment of the cochlea).

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17
Q

Which part of the vestibular labyrinth detects angular acceleration?

A

SCCs

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18
Q

What structure lies between the subiculum and ponticulus?

A

Sinus tympani.

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19
Q

What structure forms the arcuate eminence?

A

Superior SCC.

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20
Q

Which part of the cochlea represents high-frequency sounds?

A

The basal end.

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21
Q

What is Trautmann’s triangle?

A

Triangle between the external prominence of the lateral and posterior SCCs and the posterosuperior corner of the mastoid.

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22
Q

True/False: The membranous labyrinth is a self-contained system.

A

True.

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23
Q

True/False: The position of the cochlear duct is always inferior to the lowest border of the stapes footplate.

A

True.

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24
Q

Which of these main structures receives the crura from the three SCCs?

A

Utricle.

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25
Q

What does each hillock become?

A
  1. Tragus. 2. Helical crus. 3. Helix. 4. Antihelix. 5. Antitragus. 6. Lobule and lower helix.
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26
Q

Which ossicular component develops from membranous bone?

A

Anterior process of the malleus.

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27
Q

When do the ossicles reach adult size and shape?

A

At the 16th week gestation, they are adult-sized, and by birth, they are adult-shaped.

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28
Q

When does the otic capsule finish developing?

A

By 21-24 weeks, it reaches adult size.

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29
Q

What is the last structure of What is the last structure of the inner ear to develop?

A

Endolymphatic sac

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30
Q

True/False The tympanic membrane is derived from ectoderm

A

False; it is derived from ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm

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31
Q

Which branchial arch does the tensor tympani muscle arise from?

A

First branchial arch

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32
Q

How does a preauricular sinus tract form?

A

From improper fusion of the 1st and 2nd branchial arches.

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33
Q

What does the eustachian tube (ET) develop from?

A

From the 1st pouch, between the 2nd arch and the pharynx.

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34
Q

Which ossicles develop from the first branchial arch (Meckel’s cartilage)?

A

Head and neck of the malleus, body, and short process of the incus.

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35
Q

Which ossicles develop from the second branchial arch (Reichert’s cartilage)?

A

Manubrium of the malleus, long process of the incus, and stapes (except footplate)

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36
Q

At what age does the EAC reach adult size?

A

Nine years.

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37
Q

Which ossicular components never completely ossify?

A

Part of the manubrium and the vestibular portion of the stapes footplate.

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38
Q

At what month(s) gestation does the ear canal open?

A

Seventh.

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39
Q

How many hillocks are there?

A

Six

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40
Q

What is the significance of a congenitally malformed auricle?

A

The auricle develops early, making malformations of the middle ear, mastoid, and facial nerve more likely.

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41
Q

When does development of the external auditory canal (EAC) begin?

A

The canal begins to develop at 28 weeks gestation.

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42
Q

What is the significance of a normal auricle with canal atresia?

A

The EAC begins formation late (28th week), so the middle ear and ossicles are more likely to be normal.

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43
Q

Which branchial arches do hillocks arise from?

A

The first three arise from the first arch and the last three arise from the second arch.

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44
Q

What embryologic structures is the auricle developed from?

A

The hillocks of His.

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45
Q

What are the boundaries of the epitympanum?

A

Superiorly: the tegmen
Inferiorly: the fossa incudis
Anteriorly: the zygomatic arch
Posteriorly: the aditus
Medially: the lateral semicircular canal (SCC) and VII
Laterally: the scutum.

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46
Q

Why is the development of the bony otic capsule unique?

A
  1. It is formed from 14 centers of ossification that fuse and leave no suture lines
  2. the centers are formed from cartilage, but retain no areas of chondral growth.
  3. The bone retains its fetal character, with Haversian canals.
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47
Q

When does the otic capsule begin formation?

A

At 8 weeks, the precursors of the otic capsule are present; at 15 weeks, the ossification centers are present.

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48
Q

When does the fallopian When does the fallopian canal begin developing?

A

Fifth week gestation; its development is not complete until several years after birth.

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49
Q

What is the last part of the otic capsule to ossify?

A

Fissula ante fenestrum.

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50
Q

What does the stapes footplate develop from?

A

Otic mesenchyme

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51
Q

What does each Hillock become

A
  • I - tragus
  • 2 - helical crus
  • 3 - helix
  • 4 - antihelix
  • 5 - antitragus
  • 6 - lobule and lower helix
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52
Q

What are the four openings into the temporal bone?

A

Internal auditory canal (lAC)
vestibular and cochlear aqueducts
subarcuate fossa

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53
Q

How much CSF is produced per minute

A

0.35 - 0.37 cc.

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54
Q

What are normal ear canal volumes in children and adults?

A

0.5-1.0 cm3 in children; 0.6-2.0 cm3 in adults.

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55
Q

What is the minimum distance from the center of the stapes footplate to the utricle and saccule

A

1.2 and 1.4 mm, respectively.

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56
Q

What are the average dimensions of the stapes footplate

A

1.41 x 2.99 mm.

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57
Q

How much of the EAC is cartilaginous

A

1/3.

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58
Q

What noise level begins to cause pain?

A

140 dB.

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59
Q

How long is the tube at birth? in adulthood

A

17 mm, 35 mm.

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60
Q

How much of the eustachian tube (ET) is cartilaginous

A

2/3.

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61
Q

What % of preauricular cysts are bilateral

A

20%.

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62
Q

What percent of normal ears emit spontaneous OAEs?

A

35-60%.

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63
Q

What % of people have a dehiscence of the facial nerve in either the tympanic or mastoid segments

A

50- 55%.

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64
Q

What is the average diameter of the lAC

A

6.8 mm.

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65
Q

What is the upper limit of normal diameter of the lAC

A

8 mm.

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66
Q

What are the dimensions of the tympanic membrane (TM)

A

9 - 10 mm vertically; 8 - 9 mm horizontally.

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67
Q

What structures are posterior to the tympanic cavity?

A

Aditus, posterior sinus, chorda tympani, fossa incudis, pyramidal prominence, and stapedial tendon.

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68
Q

What structures are posterior to the tympanic cavity

A

Aditus, posterior sinus, chorda tympani, fossa incudis, pyramidal prominence, stapedial tendon.

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69
Q

At what age is the EAC adult size

A

Age 9.

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70
Q

What structures house the crista?

A

Ampullae.

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71
Q

What is the foramen of Huschke?

A

An embryologic remnant that normally obliterates in the anteroinferior portion of the medial bony EAC.

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72
Q

What is the foramen of Huschke

A

An embryologic remnant that normally obliterates in the anteroinferior portion of the medial bony external auditory canal (EAC).

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73
Q

What ligament supports the stapes

A

Annular ligament.

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74
Q

Which ossicular component develops from membranous bone

A

Anterior process of the malleus.

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75
Q

Where does most movement of the stapes occur

A

Anterior-superior portion of the footplate.

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76
Q

Where in the tympanic and mastoid segments of the facial nerve are the sensory fibers located

A

Anterolaterally in the tympanic segment, posterolaterally in the mastoid segment.

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77
Q

What structures facilitate passage of CSF into the dural venous sinuses

A

Arachnoid villi.

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78
Q

What are the two most important landmarks in the middle fossa approach to the lAC

A

Arcuate eminence and hiatus for the greater superficial petrosal nerve.

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79
Q

When does the otic capsule begin formation

A

At 8 weeks, the precursors of the otic capsule are present; at 15 weeks, the ossification centers are present.

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80
Q

How does the course of the facial nerve differ between adults and children

A

At birth, the nerve is located superficially within the poorly formed mastoid; with maturation, the nerve is displaced medially and inferiorly.

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81
Q

When do ossicles reach adult size and shape

A

At the 16111 week gestation, they are adult-sized, and by birth, they are adult-shaped.

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82
Q

What is the most common site of facial nerve injury during mastoid surgery

A

At the pyramidal turn posterolateral to the horizontal SCC.

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83
Q

What is Arnold’s nerve?

A

Auricular branch of the vagus that innervates skin of the external auditory canal and auricle.

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84
Q

Where is Dorello’s canal and what nerve does it contain

A

Between the petrous tip and the sphenoid bone; contains VI and inferior petrosal • smus.

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85
Q

Where is the primary auditory cortex

A

Brodmann ‘s area 41 in the superficial portion of the temporal lobe.

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86
Q

Where is the primary auditory cortex?

A

Brodmann’s area 41 in the superficial portion of the temporal lobe.

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87
Q

When does the otic capsule finish developing

A

By 21 - 24 weeks, it is adult size.

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88
Q

Where is the safest place to create an opening in the stape!; footplate

A

Central area.

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89
Q

What is the last branch of the facial nerve before it passes through the stylomastoid foramen

A

Chorda tympani nerve.

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90
Q

What produces CSF

A

Choroid plexus.

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91
Q

What structures are inferior to the falciform crest in the lAC

A

Cochlear nerve and inferior branch of the vestibular nerve.

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92
Q

What is the most anterior structure of the medial wall of the tympanic cavity

A

Cochleariform process.

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93
Q

What is the most anterior structure of the medial wall of the tympanic cavity?

A

Cochleariform process.

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94
Q

What are some clinical clues to an aberrant facial nerve

A

Congenitally malformed auricle, ossicular abnormalities, craniofacial anomalies, conductive hearing loss.

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95
Q

What is Hyrtl’s fissure?

A

Connection between the subarachnoid space near the IX ganglion and the hypotympanum that allows middle ear infections to spread to the brain; normally closes with maturation.

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96
Q

What is Hyrtl’s fissure

A

Connection between the subarachnoid space near the IXth ganglion and the hypotympanum that allows middle ear infections to spread to the brain; normally closes with maturation.

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97
Q

What is the facial hiatus

A

Dehiscence of variable size in petrous portion of the temporal bone in the floor of the middle cranial fossa, which marks the entrance of the greater superficial petrosal nerve into the middle cranial fossa.

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98
Q

What is the promontory?

A

Elevation of the medial wall of the tympanic cavity formed by the basal turn of the cochlea.

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99
Q

What is the promontory

A

Elevation of the medial wall of the tympanic cavity formed by the basal turn of the cochlea.

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100
Q

What does the vestibular aqueduct carry

A

Endolymphatic duct and accompanying vein.

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101
Q

What does the vestibular aqueduct carry?

A

Endolymphatic duct and accompanying vein.

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102
Q

Where does most of the resorption of endolymph occur?

A

Endolymphatic sac.

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103
Q

What is the last structure of the inner ear to develop

A

Endolymphatic sac.

104
Q

Where does most of the resorption of endolymph occur

A

Endolymphatic sac.

105
Q

Describe the path of the facial nerve in the temporal bone

A

Enters the lAC; travels laterally for a short distance, then, just superior to the promontory, it makes a sharp tum to run posteriorly (at the external/first genu and the geniculate ganglion). Nerve continues posteriorly, with a slight infero-lateral inclination (forming the prominence of the facial canal in the medial wall of tympanic cavity). Behind the base of the pyramidal eminence, the nerve makes a broad tum to descend vertically and somewhat laterally (2”d genu) through the mastoid cavity.

106
Q

What problem results from rupture of the middle meningeal artery

A

Epidural hematoma.

107
Q

What structures are superior to the falciform crest in the internal auditory canal (lAC)

A

Facial nerve and superior branch of the vestibular nerve.

108
Q

T/F: The tympanic membrane is derived from ectoderm

A

False; it is derived from ecto-, meso-, and endoderm.

109
Q

What is the last part of the otic capsule to ossify

A

Fissula ante fenestrum.

110
Q

How does a preauricular sinus tract form

A

From improper fusion of the I st and 2”d branchial arches.

111
Q

What does the eustachian tube develop from

A

From the 1st pouch, between the 2 nd arch and the pharynx.

112
Q

What are the limits of the fallopian canal

A

Fundus of the lAC to the stylomastoid foramen.

113
Q

What is the name for the entrance to the fallopian canal

A

Fundus.

114
Q

What is the foramen of Morgagni

A

Gap between superior constrictor muscle and skull base.

115
Q

What structure is found in Meckel’s cave

A

Gasserian ganglion of V.

116
Q

What structure is situated just medial to the tip of the cochleariform process

A

Geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve.

117
Q

Where are the cell bodies for these fibers?

A

Geniculate ganglion.

118
Q

Where along the course of the facial nerve does this nerve branch off

A

Geniculate ganglion.

119
Q

What is the sensory innervation of the auricle

A

Greater auricular nerve (C3), auriculotemporal nerve (V3), lesser occipital nerve (C2,3), auricular branch of the vagus, and sensory branches of VII and IX.

120
Q

What is the blood supply to the geniculate ganglion

A

Greater superficial petrosal artery (branch of the middle meningeal artery).

121
Q

What three branches of the facial nerve are given off in its course through the temporal bone

A

Greater superficial petrosal nerve, nerve to the stapedius muscle, chorda tympani.

122
Q

What is the first branch of the facial nerve

A

Greater superficial petrosal nerve.

123
Q

What nerve carries taste fibers supplying taste buds on the palate

A

Greater superficial petrosal nerve.

124
Q

Which ossicles develop from the first branchial arch (Meckel’s cartilage)

A

Head and neck of the malleus, body and short process of the incus.

125
Q

Which ossicles can be found in the epitympanic recess

A

Head of the malleus, body and short process of the incus.

126
Q

Which ossicles can be found in the epitympanic recess?

A

Head of the malleus, body, and short process of the incus.

127
Q

Which part of the malleus articulates with the incus?

A

Head.

128
Q

Which part of the malleus articulates with the incus

A

Head.

129
Q

What is the name of the area of communication between the scala vestibuli and the scala tympani?

A

Helicotrema.

130
Q

What is the name of the area of communication between the scala vestibuli and the scala tympani

A

Helicotrema.

131
Q

What structure bisects the internal auditory canal in the vertical direction

A

Horizontal direction Bill’s bar; transverse/falciform crest.

132
Q

What is Hitzelberger’s sign

A

Hypoesthesia of the postauricular area associated with Vllth nerve compression secondary to an acoustic neuroma.

133
Q

Which branchial arch does the tensor tympani muscle arise from

A

I.

134
Q

What is Donaldson’s line

A

Imaginary line in the plane of the horizontal SCC back to the sigmoid sinus marking the top of the endolymphatic sac.

135
Q

What are the six segments of the facial nerve

A

Intracranial, internal auditory canal, labyrinthine, tympanic, mastoid/vertical, extratemporal.

136
Q

Why is the development of the bony otic capsule unique

A

It is formed from 14 centers of ossification that fuse and leave no suture lines; the centers are formed from cartilage, but retain no areas of chondral growth. The bone retains its fetal character, with Haversian canals.

137
Q

Which three cranial nerves are found beneath the floor of the middle ear cavity?

A

IX, X, and XI.

138
Q

Which 3 cranial nerves are found beneath the floor of the middle ear cavity

A

IX, X, XI.

139
Q

What is the inferior boundary of the tympanic cavity?

A

Jugular bulb.

140
Q

What is the inferior boundary of the tympanic cavity

A

Jugular bulb.

141
Q

Where is the second genu of the facial nerve

A

Just distal to the geniculate ganglion, at the sinus tympani between the tympanic and mastoid segments.

142
Q

What proportion of the population has a pneumatized petrous pyramid

A

l/3.

143
Q

What is the blood supply to the inner ear?

A

Labyrinthine artery (branch of anterior inferior cerebellar artery).

144
Q

What is the blood supply to the inner ear

A

Labyrinthine artery (branch of anterior inferior cerebellar artery).

145
Q

Which segment is shortest

A

Labyrinthine.

146
Q

Which segment has the most narrow passageway

A

Labyrinthine.

147
Q

What portion of the facial nerve is closest to the cochlea

A

Labyrinthine.

148
Q

What are the four openings into the temporal bone

A

lAC, vestibular and cochlear aqueducts, and subarcuate fossa.

149
Q

What is the function of the greater superficial petrosal nerve

A

Lacrimation.

150
Q

Which part of the malleus creates the malleolar prominence of the TM

A

Lateral process.

151
Q

What is the scutum?

A

Lateral wall of the epitympanum.

152
Q

What is the scutum

A

Lateral wall of the epitympanum.

153
Q

Does the foramen rotundum lie lateral or medial to the pterygoid canal

A

Lateral.

154
Q

Which part of the incus articulates with the stapes?

A

Lenticular process (medial side of long process).

155
Q

Which part of the incus articulates with the stapes

A

Lenticular process (medial side of long process).

156
Q

Which part of the ossicular chain has the most tenuous blood supply and is most prone to necrosis?

A

Long process of the incus.

157
Q

Which ossicle has the most tenuous blood supply and is most prone to necrosis

A

Long process of the incus.

158
Q

How does the composition of gas in the middle ear differ from that of room air?

A

Lower oxygen level and higher carbon dioxide and nitrogen levels.

159
Q

Between which ossicles does the chorda tympani run

A

Manubrium of the malleus and long process of the incus.

160
Q

Which ossicles develop from the second branchial arch (Reichert’s cartilage)

A

Manubrium of the malleus, long process of the incus, stapes (except footplate).

161
Q

Where in the ossicular chain does the tensor tympani muscle insert?

A

Manubrium of the malleus.

162
Q

What is the name of the central bony core of the cochlea through which nerves and vessels travel

A

Modiolus.

163
Q

What three nuclei supply fibers to the facial nerve

A

Motor nucleus in caudal aspect of the pons, superior salivatory nucleus (dorsal to the motor nucleus), and nucleus of the solitary tract in medulla.

164
Q

What is the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve

A

Motor to the stylopharyngeus; taste to posterior 1/3 tongue; parotid gland stimulation; sensation of postauricular skin, pharynx, soft palate, tympanic cavity, and eustachian tube.

165
Q

What are the nuclei of the vagus nerve

A

Nucleus ambiguus, dorsal motor nucleus, and the nucleus of the solitary tract.

166
Q

Which of these controls voluntary motor information

A

Nucleus ambiguus.

167
Q

Which of these nuclei receives taste, proprioceptive, and cutaneous sensory information

A

Nucleus of the solitary tract.

168
Q

Which of these receives sensory information

A

Nucleus of the solitary tract.

169
Q

What is meant by a “diploic mastoid”

A

Occupied by bone marrow instead of air cells.

170
Q

How much of the EAC is cartilaginous?

A

One-third.

171
Q

What is Korner’s septum

A

Otherwise known as the “false bottom,” it represents the suture line between the petrous and squamous portions of the temporal bone.

172
Q

What is Korner’s septum?

A

Otherwise known as the “false bottom,” it represents the suture line between the petrous and squamous portions of the temporal bone.

173
Q

What does the stapes footplate develop from

A

Otic mesenchyme.

174
Q

Which cells emit otoacoustic emissions (OAEs)?

A

Outer hair cells.

175
Q

Which planes are the oval and round windows oriented in

A

Oval window is in the sagittal plane; round window is in the transverse plane.

176
Q

Which planes are the oval and round windows oriented in?

A

Oval window is in the sagittal plane; round window is in the transverse plane.

177
Q

What structure lies superior to the ponticulus

A

Oval window.

178
Q

How can one discern fibrous dysplasia from Paget’s disease of the temporal bone on CT scan

A

Paget’s disease involves the otic capsule while fibrous dysplasia does not.

179
Q

What is the function of the chorda tympani nerve

A

Parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands, and taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.

180
Q

Which has greater sensory innervation-pars tensa or pars tlaccida?

A

Pars flaccida.

181
Q

Which has greater sensory innervation-pars tensa or pars flaccida

A

Pars flaccida.

182
Q

What does the facial nerve provide general sensation for?

A

Part of the auricular concha, external auditory canal, and tympanic membrane.

183
Q

Which ossicular components never completely ossify

A

Part of the manubrium and the vestibular portion of the stapes footpJate.

184
Q

How does perilymph differ from endolymph?

A

Perilymph has a pH of 7.2, is high in sodium, low in potassium, and does not contain chloride; endolymph has a pH of 7.5, is low in sodium, and relatively high in potassium and chloride.

185
Q

How does perilymph differ from endolymph

A

Perilymph has a pH of 7.2, is high in sodium, low in potassium, and does not contain chloride; endolymph has a pH of 7.5, is low in sodium, and relatively high in potassium and chloride.

186
Q

What fluid surrounds the membranous labyrinth?

A

Perilymph.

187
Q

What fluid surrounds the membranous labyrinth

A

Perilymph.

188
Q

What is Gradenigo’s syndrome

A

Petrositis involving VI in Dorello’s canal causing retro-orbital pain, diplopia and otorrhea.

189
Q

What is the name of the opening through which the chorda tympani nerve enters the infratemporal fossa

A

Petrotympanic fissure (canal of Huguier).

190
Q

What is the pars tensa

A

Portion of the TM inferior to the mallear fold and prominence.

191
Q

Where in the ossicular chain does the stapedius muscle insert?

A

Posterior neck of the stapes.

192
Q

Besides the muscles of facial expression, what muscles does the facial nerve innervate?

A

Posterior belly of the digastric, stylohyoid, and stapedius muscles.

193
Q

Where in the ossicular chain does the stapedius muscle insert

A

Posterior neck of the stapes.

194
Q

What does the inferior vestibular nerve innervate

A

Posterior SCC and macula of the saccule.

195
Q

What artery accompanies the chorda tympani

A

Posterior tympanic artery.

196
Q

Which wall of the EAC is shorter-the anteroinferior or posterosuperior

A

Posterosuperior (approximately 25 mm whereas anteroinferior wall is 31 mm).

197
Q

Which wall of the EAC is shorter-the anteroinferior or posterosuperior?

A

Posterosuperior (approximately 25 mm, whereas anteroinferior wall is 31 mm).

198
Q

What structure lies between the prominence of the lateral semicircular canal (SCC) and the promontory/oval window

A

Prominence of the facial canal.

199
Q

What structure is located inferior to the subiculum and posteroinferior to the promontory

A

Round window.

200
Q

What structure ends blindly at the round window

A

Scala tympani (lower compartment of the cochlea).

201
Q

Where are cupula found?

A

SCCs

202
Q

What information is relayed through the superior ganglion

A

Sensation from the EAC and posterior auricle via Arnold’s nerve.

203
Q

What information is relayed through the inferior ganglion

A

Sensation from the epiglottis and larynx.

204
Q

What is the clinical significance of the foramen of Huschke?

A

Serves as a potential route for spread of tumor from the parotid gland to the temporal bone.

205
Q

What is the clinical significance of the foramen of Morgagni

A

Serves a potential route for spread of nasopharyngeal tumors to the skull base and brain.

206
Q

What is the clinical significance of the foramen of Huschke

A

Serves as a potential route for spread of tumor from the parotid gland to the temporal bone.

207
Q

What structure lies between the subiculum and ponticulus

A

Sinus tympani.

208
Q

How many are there and which branchial arches do they arise from

A

Six… the first three arise from the first arch and the last three arise from the second arch.

209
Q

What opening in the medial wall of the pterygopalatine fossa permits the passage of neurovascular structures into the nasal passages

A

Sphenopalatine foramen.

210
Q

What is the largest artery in the pterygopalatine fossa

A

Sphenopalatine.

211
Q

What are the layers of the tympanic membrane?

A

Squamous epithelium, radiating fibrous layer, circumferential fibrous layer, and mucosa.

212
Q

What are the layers of the TM

A

Squamous epithelium, radiating fibrous layer, circumferential fibrous layer, mucosa.

213
Q

What are the four parts of the temporal bone?

A

Squamous, tympanic, petrous, and mastoid.

214
Q

What are the four parts of the temporal bone

A

Squamous, tympanic, petrous, mastoid.

215
Q

Cochleariform process: tensor tympani…… pyramidal process: ____

A

Stapedius.

216
Q

What structure produces endolymph

A

Stria vascularis.

217
Q

What structure produces endolymph?

A

Stria vascularis.

218
Q

What structures create three small depressions in the posterior portion of the medial wall of the tympanic cavity

A

Subiculum, ponticulus.

219
Q

Where is the tympanic notch of Rivinus?

A

Superior portion of the tympanic ring (squamous portion of temporal bone).

220
Q

What are the 2 ganglia of the vagus nerve

A

Superior (jugular) ganglion and inferior (nodose) ganglion.

221
Q

What does the superior vestibular nerve innervate

A

Superior and lateral SCCs, utricle, saccule.

222
Q

Where is the tympanic notch of Rivinus

A

Superior portion of the tympanic ring (squamous portion of temporal bone).

223
Q

Which of these nuclei sends parasympathetic fibers to salivary glands

A

Superior salivatory nucleus.

224
Q

What structure forms the arcuate eminence

A

Superior SCC.

225
Q

In its tympanic segment, between which structures does the facial nerve travel

A

Superiorly, the lateral SCC; inferiorly, the oval window.

226
Q

What are the boundaries of the epitympanum

A

Superiorly, the tegmen; inferiorly, the fossa incudis; anteriorly, the zygomatic arch; posteriorly, the aditus; medially, the lateral semicircular canal and VII; laterally, the scutum.

227
Q

What are the boundaries of the tympanic cavity

A

Superiorly, the tegmen; inferiorly, the jugular wall and styloid prominence; anteriorly, the carotid wall, eustachian tube, and tensor tympani; posteriorly, the mastoid, stapedius, pyramidal prominence; medially, the labyrinthine wall; laterally, the TM and scutum.

228
Q

What structure separates the epitympanic recess from the cranial cavity

A

Tegmen tympani.

229
Q

What is the significance of a congenitally malformed auricle

A

The auricle develops early, making malformations of the middle ear, mastoid, and VII more likely.

230
Q

What structures are anterior to the tympanic cavity?

A

The carotid artery, ET, and the canal for the tensor tympani muscle.

231
Q

What structures are anterior to the tympanic cavity

A

The carotid artery, ET, and the canal for the tensor tympani muscle.

232
Q

When does development of the external auditory canal begin

A

The channel begins to develop at 28 weeks.

233
Q

What is the significance of a normal auricle with canal atresia

A

The EAC begins formation late (28th week), so the middle ear and ossicles are more likely to be normal.

234
Q

How is the facial hiatus clinically significant

A

The geniculate ganglion usually lies deep to the hiatus, but in 5 - I 0% of patients, it lies under the dura within the hiatus and without a bony covering.

235
Q

What embryologic structures is the auricle developed from

A

The Hillocks of His.

236
Q

Which part of the malleus does the anterior ligament attach to?

A

The neck, near the anterior process.

237
Q

Which part of the malleus does the anterior ligament attach to

A

The neck, near the anterior process.

238
Q

What is the function of the nervus intermedius?

A

To carry visceral motor fibers to the lacrimal gland, minor salivary glands, and mucosal glands of the palate and nose (via the greater superficial petrosal nerve), and general sensory fibers from the auricular concha and external auditory canal.

239
Q

What is the function of the special visceral afferent fibers of the facial nerve?

A

To provide taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and palate (via the chorda tympani).

240
Q

What is Trautmann’s triangle

A

Triangle between the external prominence of the lateral and posterior SCCs and the posterosuperior comer of the mastoid.

241
Q

T /F: The membranous labyrinth is a self-contained system.

A

True.

242
Q

T /F: The position of the cochlear duct is always inferior to the lowest border of the stapes footplate.

A

True.

243
Q

How much of the ET is cartilaginous?

A

Two-thirds.

244
Q

Where is the most common site of dehiscence

A

Tympanic segment superior to the oval window.

245
Q

Where do most facial nerve injuries occur during middle ear surgery

A

Tympanic segment.

246
Q

How does facial nerve innervation to the upper face differ from that to the lower face

A

Upper motor neurons sending information to the upper face cross twice in the pons; upper motor neurons sending information to the lower face cross only once in the pons. Therefore, lesions proximal to the nucleus only affect the lower face.

247
Q

Where does the chorda tympani arise in relation to the stylomastoid foramen

A

Usually 4 - 7 mm superior.

248
Q

What are the main structures of the vestibular portion of the membranous labyrinth

A

Utricle, saccule, and semicircular canals.

249
Q

What are the main structures of the vestibular portion of the membranous labyrinth?

A

Utricle, saccule, and semi-circular canals.

250
Q

Which of these receives the crura from the three semicircular canals

A

Utricle.

251
Q

What are the three nerves of the tympanic plexus?

A

V3, IX (Jacobson’s nerve), and X.

252
Q

What are the three nerves of the tympanic plexus

A

V3, IX (Jacobson’s nerve), X.

253
Q

What nerve innervates the palatopharyngeus and palatoglossus muscles

A

Vagus.

254
Q

What three systems determine balance?

A

Vestibular, vestibulo-ocular (visual), and vestibulospinal (proprioceptive) systems.

255
Q

Which cranial nerve has the longest intracranial course

A

VI.

256
Q

Adenocarcinoma of the endolymphatic sac is more common in patients with what disease

A

Von Hippel-Lindau disease.

Anatomy (5 decks)

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