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Epme 2023 E2-E6 > E5 > Flashcards

E5 Flashcards

1
Q

Where are deadlines for Personal Data Extract (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?

Reference: Servicewide Exam Personal Data Extract Guide - PPC Portal

A

February 1st

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2
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), Time in Rating (TIR) and Time in Service (TIS) are computed up to
what point?
Reference: Servicewide Exam Personal Data Extract - PPC Portal

A

1 point SWE

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3
Q

Sea Time points on a Personal Data Extract (PDE) are calculated at what rate?
Reference: Servicewide Exam Personal Data Extract - PPC Portal

A

D is credited at 2 points per year, or 0.166
points per month,

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4
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE) you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first
advancement on or after what date?
Reference: Servicewide Exam Personal Data Extract - PPC Portal/ADV/ PSD Policy

A

Feb 1 or when they make rank

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5
Q

What should you do if you find errors on your Personal Data Extract (PDE)?
Reference: Servicewide Exam Personal Data Extract Guide - PPC Portal

A

E. If errors are found,
note them on the printed copy of this form, sign it, and provide it to your admin
personnel

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6
Q

What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume?
Reference: Submitting an eResume DA Self-Service Guide - PPC Portal

A

click set job ranking

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7
Q

Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?
Reference: Submitting an eResume DA Self-Service Guide - PPC Portal

A

click apply now

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8
Q

You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect.
How should you make corrections?
Reference: Submitting an eResume DA Self-Service Guide - PPC Portal

A

Any corrections/updates
will have to be made on the following day after submission.

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9
Q

You have submitted an incorrect eResume in Direct Access (DA). What can you do to delete your
eResume?
Reference: Submitting an eResume DA Self-Service Guide - PPC Portal

A

DA does not allow for
deletions of incorrect eResumes

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10
Q

What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Development Plan (IDP)?
Reference: Individual and Executive Development Plan Framework COMDTINST 5357.1 (series)

A

Form CG-5357.1A

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11
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is _____.
Reference: Individual and Executive Development Plan Framework COMDTINST 5357.1 (series)

A

a tool to assist employees in career and personal development

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12
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is not _____.
Reference: Individual and Executive Development Plan Framework COMDTINST 5357.1 (series)

A

a performance evaluation tool or a one-time activity.

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13
Q

A first term enlisted member's Individual Development Plan (IDP) must be introduced and discussed with
their supervisor within _____ days of reporting to the unit.
Reference: Individual and Executive Development Plan Framework COMDTINST 5357.1 (series)

A
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14
Q

What does analysis of mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

the most common cause of mishaps is a lack of deliberate
and systematic RM during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and activities.

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15
Q

What does the Risk Management (RM) process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage
potential hazards?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

effective teamwork and communication

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16
Q

Which of the following is the foundation of the Risk Management (RM) process?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A

seven critical human factors
(mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision
making, communication, and assertiveness

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17
Q

In step 1 of the Risk Management (RM) process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be
performed, what model can be used?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A

: At a minimum, units shall include all the PEACE elements in their GAR 2.0

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18
Q

In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, analysis is used in which action?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A

by reviewing the plans and orders describing
the mission or task, identifying the specified and implied tasks, and defining the requirements
and conditions needed to accomplish those tasks and, thus, accomplish the mission

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19
Q

How is risk defined within Risk Management (RM)?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

as the possibility
of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard

20
Q

Which of the following is a risk assessment pitfall?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A

(a) Over Optimism. Not being totally honest or not looking for root causes.
(b) Misrepresentation. Individual perspective may distort the data.
(c) Alarmism. “The sky is falling” or “worst case” estimates are used regardless of
their possibility.
(d) Indiscrimination. All data is given equal weight.
(e) Prejudice. Subjective or hidden agendas are used vice facts.
(f) Inaccuracy. Bad or misunderstood data nullify accurate risk assessment.
(g) Enumeration. Difficulty in assigning a numerical value to human behavior

21
Q

Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the Risk Management (RM) process?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A
22
Q

Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task to another individual, unit or
platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using the
_____ approach.
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A
23
Q

The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission
refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A
24
Q

What is the control option used for specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a
different way?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A
25
Q

Within the Risk Management (RM) process, which is a type of control that can be applied to hazards to
mitigate the risk?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A
26
Q

What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or
reduce risk?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A

PEACE STAAR

27
Q

What is the first choice in the standard of order of precedence for Risk Management (RM) controls?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A
28
Q

In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member establish accountability?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A

Step 4

29
Q

Which of the following is an action in step 4 of the Risk Management (RM) process?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A

Once the risk control decisions are made, the next step is
implementation

30
Q

Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall RM process?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A

step 4

31
Q

How many actions are there in the last step of the RM process?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A

. This involves three actions: monitoring the
effectiveness of risk controls; determining the need for further assessment of all or a portion of
the mission or task due to an unanticipated change; and capturing lessons learned, both positive
and negative.

32
Q

In step 5 of the RM process, ensure changes requiring further RM are identified, is part of which action?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A
33
Q

In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A
34
Q

What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
Reference: Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

A
35
Q

Which of the following is a behavioral clue that a conflict with a peer may exist?
Reference: Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

A
36
Q

What is the third stage of conflict?
Reference: Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

A
37
Q

What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict?
Reference: Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

A
38
Q

What is the first stage of conflict escalation?
Reference: Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

A
39
Q

Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become
increasingly aggressive?

Reference: Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

A
40
Q

Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?
Reference: Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

A
41
Q

The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is _____.
Reference: Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

A
42
Q

In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other
person’s desires.
Reference: Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

A
43
Q

In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own
desires.
Reference: Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

A
44
Q

In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they
want.
Reference: Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

A
45
Q

What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?
Reference: Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 – RESOLVE A CONFLICT

A

Epme 2023 E2-E6 (3 decks)

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