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Epme 2023 E2-E6 > E2 > Flashcards

E2 Flashcards

1
Q

Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?

A
  • ETQC-SMB-TAG@uscg.mil
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2
Q

Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?
Reference: Education & Training Quota Management Command (ETQC) Voluntary Education Service Portal Page

A
  • Joint Service Transcript
  • Degree Reporting
  • DANTES Examination Reimbursement Center
  • SOLICITATION FOR VOLUNTARY EDUCATION PROGRAM AWARDS
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3
Q

Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?
Reference: Education & Training Quota Management Command (ETQC) Voluntary Education Portal Page

A

COAST GUARD VOLUNTARY CREDENTIALING PROGRAM (VCP) COMDTINST 1540.10

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4
Q

Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?
Reference: Education & Training Quota Management Command (ETQC) Voluntary Education Service Portal Page

A
  • Application must be received by ETQC NO LESS than 14 days prior to the class start date. There are no
    exceptions or waivers to this policy.
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5
Q

Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT Waiver Request Guide be found?
Reference: Education & Training Quota Management Command (ETQC) Voluntary Education Service Portal Page

A

Voluntary Education Service Portal Page (VOLED Services) under course support and testing

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6
Q

The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as the _____.
Reference: U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs Education and Training Webpage

A

“Forever GI Bill”

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7
Q

Under the Post-9/11 GI Bill, a Veteran enrolled at more than one-half time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DoD’s Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) rate for an _____ with dependents.
Reference: U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs Education and Training Webpage

A

e5

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8
Q

The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to _____ months of education benefits.
Reference: U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs Education and Training Webpage

A

36

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9
Q

The GI Bill Comparison Tool offers information based on which of the following GI Bill benefits?
Reference: U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs Education and Training Webpage

A

-Tuition and fees, housing allowance and book stipend.

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10
Q

Veterans in their second 6 months of OJT & Apprenticeship Training programs may use their GI Bill benefits to receive _____ of the applicable Monthly Housing Stipend.
Reference: U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs Education and Training Webpage

A

80%

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11
Q

One purpose of the _____ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.
Reference: Performance, Training, and Education Manual COMDTINST M1500.10 (series)

A
  • ADVANCED EDUCATION
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12
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the Advanced Education program?
Reference: Performance, Training, and Education Manual COMDTINST M1500.10 (series)

A
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13
Q

Who acts as subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?
Reference: ETQC VolED Services Portal Page

A
  • ESO
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14
Q

Which of the following 4 of the four firearm safety rules?
Reference: Ordinance Tactics Techniques and Procedures CGTTP 3-30.3 (SERIES)

A

Treat all firearms as if they are loaded.
2. Always maintain proper muzzle control.
3. Keep finger off the trigger until on target and ready to shoot.
4. Know your target and what is beyond it.

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15
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Six months in pay grade E-2 or satisfactory completion of Class “A” course

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16
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Six months in pay grade E-3

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17
Q

The _____ and ASVAB tests are different version of the same battery of tests.
Reference: Performance, Training, and Education Manual, COMDTINST M1500.10 (series)

A

AFCT

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18
Q

Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an “UNSAT” conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

6

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19
Q

Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A
  • Investigator (IV) and Diver (DV)
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20
Q

Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

ALCOAST message

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21
Q

Where are “A” school rating requirements listed?
Reference: Performance, Training, and Education Manual, COMDTINST M1500.10 (series)

A

Rating Performance Qualifications (RPQs)

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22
Q

Which stress management term is defined as “Bad” stress?
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

A

Distress

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23
Q

“Good” stress is related to which stress management term?
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

A

Eustress

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24
Q

Which term is defined as “the non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor”?
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

A

Stress

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25
Q

What are stressors?
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

A

The causes of stress (anxiety, frustration, depression, etc.)

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26
Q

What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person’s personal stress load?
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

A

Stressmap

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27
Q

Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as:
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

A

the non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a
stressor”

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28
Q

The services provided by the _____ are available for professional assistance with Stress Management.
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

A

Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)

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29
Q

Which Stress Management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of Sailors, families, and commands?
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

A

Operational Stress Control

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30
Q

How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

A
  • 1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or www.CGSUPRT.com
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31
Q

Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

A
  • Active Duty members and their dependents
  • Reservists
  • Civilian Employees of the Coast Guard
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32
Q

Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.
Reference: CRITICAL INCIDENT STRESS MANAGEMENT (CISM) COMDINST 1754.3 9 (series)

A

Emotional Responses (anxious)
- Cognitive Responses (confusion)
- Behavioral Responses (erratic)
- Physiological Responses (fatigue)
- Spiritual Distress Responses (crisis of faith)

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33
Q

The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?
Reference: National Institute of Mental Health website

A

Be observant.
- Talk to your health care provider or a health professional.
- Get regular exercise.
- Try a relaxing activity.
- Set goals and priorities.
- Stay connected
- Consider a clinical trial

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34
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A

Reduce the incidence of substance and alcohol abuse
2. Detect and separate
3. Facilitate rehabilitation

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35
Q

The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that “zero” drinks is the low risk option when _____.
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A
  • Driving
  • using machinery
  • cleaning a weapon
  • pregnant
  • certain medications
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36
Q

Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A
  • 0,1,2,3
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37
Q

Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A

rethinkingdrinking.niaaa.nih.gov

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38
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A

-The goal is to provide training, education, treatment and administrative processing resources in support of
Coast Guard’s policy governing substance use, abuse and chemical dependency.

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39
Q

What is Substance Abuse Prime for Life training used for?
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A

An evidence-based alcohol and drug program for members who show signs of misusing alcohol

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40
Q

One intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program is to _____.
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A

Reduce the incidence of substance and alcohol abuse
5. Detect and separate
6. Facilitate rehabilitation

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41
Q

What is the definition of substance abuse?
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A

An evidence-based alcohol and drug program for members who show signs of misusing alcohol

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42
Q

What is considered substance abuse?
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A

Driving Under the Influence
- Drunk in public
- Drunk and disorderly conduct
- Alcohol-related arrest
- Domestic violence where alcohol is a factor
- Unfit for duty due to alcohol intoxication or impairment
- Underage drinking

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43
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), as an individual’s BAC increases, the risk of _____ increases.
Reference: National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) - Alcohol’s Effects on Health/Alcohol Overdose

A

harm

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44
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), drinking too much over time can raise your risk for _____, cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses.
Reference: National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) - Alcohol’s Effects on Health/Alcohol’s Effects on the Body

A

Heart disease

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45
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than _____ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.
Reference: National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) - Alcohol’s Effects on Health/Understanding Alcohol’s Impact on Health

A

14.5 million

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46
Q

Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is _____.
Reference: National Institute of Health website - Rethinking Drinking

A

a reason for caution.

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47
Q

What is considered binge drinking for men?
Reference: National Institute of Health website - Rethinking Drinking

A

more than 4 drinks on any day or more than 14 drinks per week

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48
Q

What is considered binge drinking for women?
Reference: National Institute of Health website - Rethinking Drinking

A

more than 3 drinks on any day or more than 7 drinks per week

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49
Q

Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?
Reference: National Institute of Health website - Rethinking Drinking

A

0.08

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50
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?
Reference: Recruit Master Training Packet - SAFE

A

0.08

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51
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being “sloppy” drunk?
Reference: Recruit Master Training Packet - SAFE

A

0.16

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52
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?
Reference: Recruit Master Training Packet - SAFE

A

0.30

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53
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?
Reference: Recruit Master Training Packet - SAFE

A

0.40

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54
Q

A sign of alcohol poisoning is _____.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet - SAFE

A

Passes out and cannot be awakened
- Vomiting while passed out
- Has cold, clammy, and/or pale skin
- Breathing is slow and irregular

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55
Q

Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience _____.
Reference: CDC website - Alcohol and Public Health/Alcohol Use Basics

A

A measurable impact on cognitive functions, memory, and school performance over time—perhaps
even into adulthood

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56
Q

Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?
Reference: National Institute of Health website - Rethinking Drinking

A
  • alcohol resides predominantly
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57
Q

What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A

1.5 fl oz

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58
Q

How many grams of pure alcohol is in a “standard” drink?
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A

14 grams

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59
Q

How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A

5

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60
Q

How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A

12

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61
Q

Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consumed 3 oz. of 40% alcohol over one hour?
Reference: National Institute of Health website - Rethinking Drinking/BAC Calculator

A

0.05

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62
Q

Across the United States, a recorded Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) test of _____ or higher alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.
Reference: Military Drug and Alcohol Policy COMDTINST M1000.10 (series)

A
  • .08%
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63
Q

A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential _____ upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral.
Reference: Military Drug and Alcohol Policy COMDTINST M1000.10 (series)

A

AUD (Alcohol Use Disorder)

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64
Q

A member diagnosed within the first _____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.
Reference: Coast Guard Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

A

180

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65
Q

Which statement reflects Coast Guard policy on tobacco use and abuse?
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A

To discourage the use of all forms of tobacco products and to protect people from exposure to environmental
tobacco smoke (ETS), unsanitary conditions created by the use of spit tobacco, and the potential addiction to
nicotine products

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66
Q

Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?
Reference: Military Drug and Alcohol Policy COMDTINST M1000.10 (series)

A

No current prescription (within six months) or verified medical use explanation that would account for the positive
urinalysis result.

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67
Q

Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?
Reference: Military Drug and Alcohol Policy COMDTINST M1000.10 (series)

A
  • DUI
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68
Q

Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?
Reference: Military Drug and Alcohol Policy COMDTINST M1000.10 (series)

A

Intentional use or misuse
- Wrongful possession
- Trafficking
- Intentional misuse of non-controlled substances
- Civil or military conviction
- Testing positive
- Possession or entering drug establishments

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69
Q

Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample, and_____.
Reference: Military Drug and Alcohol Policy COMDTINST M1000.10 (series)

A

scientifically analyzing the samples to detect the presence of drugs

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70
Q

Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident?
Reference: Military Drug and Alcohol Policy COMDTINST M1000.10 (series)

A

Administrative Action
- Disciplinary Action
- Medical Treatment Eligibility

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71
Q

Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Suicide

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72
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A
  • Self-Harm
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73
Q

What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Suicide Threat

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74
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Suicide Attempt

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75
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with no injury is reported as _____.
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Self Harm Level 1 = no injury

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76
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with injury is reported as _____.
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Self Harm Level 2 = injury

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77
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm resulting in death is reported as _____.
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Self Harm Level 3 = death.

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78
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as _____.
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Suicide Attempt Level 2 = injury

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79
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as _____.
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Suicide Attempt Level 1 = no injury

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80
Q

What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Suicide-Related Ideations

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81
Q

What would be the cause to report a Self-Harm Level 3 in the Suicide Prevention Program?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Self Harm Level 3 = death.

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82
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Undetermined Suicide-Related Behavior

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83
Q

Dismissing _____ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

suicidal ideations

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84
Q

In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____ at some point in their lives.
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

episode of suicidal thinking

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85
Q

What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Suicide-Related Communications

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86
Q

What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior.
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Suicide Plan

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87
Q

What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A
  • Suicide Plan
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88
Q

Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

ISPATHWARM
- IDEATION
- SUBSTANCE USE
- PURPOSELESSNESS
- ANXIETY
- TRAPPED
- HOPELESSNESS
- WITHDRAWAL
- ANGER
- RECKLESSNESS
- MOOD CHANGES

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89
Q

_____ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A
  • Ask
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90
Q

What may be helpful to lead into the question “Are you thinking about killing yourself?”
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

a statement of your observations

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91
Q

What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A
  • Ask - Care – Escort
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92
Q

During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Ask

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93
Q

During the _____ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Care

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94
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A
  • Care
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95
Q

During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

care

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96
Q

In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

care

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97
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

care

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98
Q

ou may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

care

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99
Q

During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

escort

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100
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

escort

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101
Q

If you ask a person “Are you thinking about killing yourself?” and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

hang in there and ask the question again

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102
Q

If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

How? Plan?
- Situation? Alone drinking?
- History? Attempts?

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103
Q

Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Reference: Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

A

Your Regional Work-Life Office

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104
Q

Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans?
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDINST M6200.1 (Series)

A
  • All AD and SELRES
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105
Q

Who do your submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A

to your supervisor

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106
Q

When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A
  • April and October
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107
Q

The most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved by _____.
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A
  • the member and supervisor
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108
Q

Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A
  • Two hours and 30 minutes (150 minutes)
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109
Q

Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A

two or more days

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110
Q

All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____ per week.
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A

-180

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111
Q

It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A
  • 150 minutes
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112
Q

It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of strength training.
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A
  • 30
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113
Q

Because the effects of physical activity are cumulative, exercise sessions may vary in length, with a minimum of _____ minutes, in order to be beneficial.
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A
  • 10
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114
Q

In general, physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A
  • 3
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115
Q

Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a _____ level of intensity.
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A

medium to vigorous

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116
Q

According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A

moderate

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117
Q

What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?
Reference: Coast Guard Health Promotion Manual COMDTINST M6200.1 (series)

A

CG-6049

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118
Q

Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve _____.
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series),

A
  • the acceptance of some level of risk
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119
Q

What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps if not managed?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series),

A

mission analysis
- leadership
- adaptability and flexibility
- situational awareness
- decision making
- communication
- assertiveness

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120
Q

Deliberate use of the Risk Management process _____ by reducing member exposure to hazards.
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

increases mission success

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121
Q

The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the _____.
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

expected risk exposure

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122
Q

What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

The RM process

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123
Q

What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

GAR 2.0

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124
Q

When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

when hazards are identified early

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125
Q

Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is _____.
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

continuous and adaptive

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126
Q

Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series),

A

“Risk Management Fundamentals”

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127
Q

What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as-needed-basis, when new missions/activities are introduced to the unit?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

Risk Assessment Matrix (RAM)

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128
Q

What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

Crew endurance

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129
Q

Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _____.
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

address unique operational realities

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130
Q

Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

PEACE (Planning, Event Complexity, Asset, Communications, and Environment) and STAAR (Spread out,
Transfer, Avoid, Accept, and Reduce)

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131
Q

_____ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A
  • risk
132
Q

_____ is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity.
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

Risk Management (RM)

133
Q

How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A
  • 3
134
Q

Which is an action taken during the first step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
Reference: Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

A

Mission/Task Analysis
- List Hazards
- List Causes:

135
Q

What are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

The PEACE/STAAR analyses

136
Q

What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

PEACE

137
Q

What deliberate risk assessment should units perform at the start of each day or watch?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

GAR 2.0

138
Q

At a minimum, units must include all elements of which model in their GAR 2.0?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

PEACE

139
Q

What model outlines potential strategies to mitigate and/or control risk?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

STAAR

140
Q

Which models, when used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the chain of command, assist in decision making, and encourage robust risk management?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

PEACE and STAAR

141
Q

Which models can also be applied to activities outside the workplace that are often spontaneous and dynamic?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

PEACE and STAAR

142
Q

What shall all units use to conduct a real-time risk assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personnel to hazards?
Reference: Risk Management (RM) COMDTINST 3500.3 (series)

A

GAR 2.0

143
Q

Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?
Reference: Motor Vehicle Manual COMDTINST M11240.9 (series)

A

the unit commander, commanding officer, or officer-in-charge within applicable law and regulations

144
Q

: 2.1.13.01/02
When are CG owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses and dependents?
Reference: Motor Vehicle Manual COMDTINST M11240.9 (series)

A

Together with employee from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were
invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity

145
Q

Transportation of a member’s dependent would be authorized in a CG owned motor vehicle in which case?
Reference: Motor Vehicle Manual COMDTINST M11240.9 (series)

A

Together with employee from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were
invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity

146
Q

Only Government employees that possess a _____ state, territorial, or District of Columbia driver license are permitted to operate a motor vehicle.
Reference: Motor Vehicle Manual COMDTINST 11240.9 (series)

A

current and unrestricted

147
Q

To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, commands must identify hazards and reduce risks when assigning long-distance driving duties to personnel who have been on-duty within the previous _____ hours.
Reference: Safety and Environmental Health Manual COMDTINST M5100.47 (series)

A
  • 8
148
Q

To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, members must not exceed _____ hours of combined duty-hours and driving hours.
Reference: Safety and Environmental Health Manual COMDTINST M5100.47 (series)

A

14

149
Q

Which form is used to report accidents involving a government motor vehicle?
Reference: Motor Vehicle Manual COMDTINST 11240.9 (series)

A

Motor Vehicle Accident Report, Form SF91

150
Q

Personnel convicted of a serious moving violation while operating a GMV, must _____.
Reference: Safety and Environmental Health Manual COMDTINST M5100.47 (series)

A
  • complete a Driver Improvement Course.
151
Q

What term is defined as the process (or steps) involved in managing one’s personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments, for an individual or family?
Reference: Coast Guard Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) COMDTINST 1740.8 (series)

A

Personal Financial Management

152
Q

The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances?
Reference: Coast Guard Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) COMDTINST 1740.8 (series)

A
  • Personal Financial Readiness
153
Q

What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individual’s or family’s income and expenditures and recommending short and long-term actions to achieve financial goals and ensure individual, family and mission readiness?
Reference: Coast Guard Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) COMDTINST 1740.8 (series)

A
  • Financial Planning and Counseling
154
Q

The Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) consists of how many elements?
Reference: Coast Guard Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) COMDTINST 1740.8 (series)

A

7

155
Q

Which of the following is an element of the Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)?
Reference: Coast Guard Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) COMDTINST 1740.8 (series)

A

Education and Training
- Counseling
- Information and Referral
- Command Financial Specialist (CFS) Program
- Outreach
- Collaboration and Coordination

156
Q

Commands with at least _____ personnel assigned, must have a trained Command Financial Specialist (CFS).
Reference: Coast Guard Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) COMDTINST 1740.8 (series)

A

25 or more

157
Q

What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the Thrift Saving Plan?
Reference: https://www.tsp.gov/

A

10%

158
Q

The compliance tab in CGBI is broken down into _____ categories, based on level of compliance.
Reference: Coast Guard Business Intelligence Determining Personal Readiness and Understanding the Personal View Layout job aid

A

three categories

159
Q

What will you need to do if your preferred email address is not listed as an option when signing up for email notifications in CGBI?
Reference: Coast Guard Business Intelligence Determining Personal Readiness and Understanding the Personal View Layout job aid

A

update your contact information in Direct Access

160
Q

If your personal readiness data in CGBI need corrections, select the _____ icon in the top-right corner of the “Skills” Tab.
Reference: Coast Guard Business Intelligence Determining Personal Readiness and Understanding the Personal View Layout job aid

A

blue “Get More Information”

161
Q

What is a purpose of the EES?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A
  • To set standards
  • To inform enlisted members of the performance standards
  • To provide a means by which enlisted members can receive feedback
  • To capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance
  • To provide a wide variety of human resource decisions
  • To provide members’ of boards and panels with the necessary information to make selections and decisions
162
Q

Which of the functions is the evaluee’s responsibility within the EES?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A
  • Familiarization
  • Performance
  • Evaluation Input
  • Acknowledgement
  • Verification
163
Q

Which of the functions is the evaluee’s responsibility within the EES?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Familiarization
- Performance
- Evaluation Input
- Acknowledgement
- Verification

164
Q

The _____ comprised of designated members who execute the enlisted evaluation report process for enlisted members.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

rating chain

165
Q

Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Military
- Performance
- Professional Qualities
- Leadership

166
Q

A new period of eligibility for the Good Conduct award begins _____.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

the day after the effective date of the EER with unsat mark

167
Q

The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report _____.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

may not be appealed to an appeal authority

168
Q

Who is normally the appeal authority for an EER?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

the first flag officer in the evaluee’s chain of command

169
Q

What is the definition given in the Recruit Training Master Pamphlet for effective communication?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

An effective communicator is successful in establishing an active two-way link with another individual or group

170
Q

What are the types of common barriers to effective communication?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Physical / Distance
- Ambient Noise
- Distracting Movement
- Language (dialect, accent)
- Past experience
- Stereotypes
- Emotional blocking
- Social status

171
Q

How can you overcome the common barriers to effective communication?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Actively listen
- Avoid assumptions
- Eliminate external and internal distractions
- Avoid push-button issues
- Avoid daydreaming.
- Do not prepare your response while someone is talking.

172
Q

What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Parroting
- Paraphrasing
- Clarifying

173
Q

What is one type of listening for effective communication?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Inactive
- Selective
- Active
- Reflective

174
Q

What is a reason for feedback in effective communication?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Achieve personal growth
- Receiver gains insight
- Creates an open environment by allowing for the sharing of ideas and information.
- It helps you prepare for the future

175
Q

For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for giving feedback?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Be specific and to the point
- Focus on behavior of the person and not on the person
- Direct feedback toward changeable behavior only
- Must be solicited
- Must be timely
- Check for understanding

176
Q

How do you access and view your payslip?
Reference: Direct Access adpayslip guide

A
  • In DA, View My Payslips (AD/RSV) link from the Employee pagelet
177
Q

What dependent information in the payslip is important for eligibility to receive benefits?
Reference: Direct Access adpayslip guide

A
  • date of birth
178
Q

Which block of the payslip contains a member’s basic pay?
Reference: Direct Access adpayslip guide

A

Earnings

179
Q

What information can be found in the tax data section of they payslip?
Reference: Direct Access adpayslip guide

A

Marital status
- Allowances
- Addl Percent
- Addl Amount

180
Q

In which section of your payslip can you validate whether or not you are receiving the correct pay and/or allowances?
Reference: Direct Access adpayslip guide

A

Middle

181
Q

Which information can be found in the bottom section of the payslip?
Reference: Direct Access adpayslip guide

A

All current and year to date wages and taxes
- A summary of leave

182
Q

What information is found in the Net Pay Distribution block of the payslip?
Reference: Direct Access adpayslip guide

A
  • Direct Deposit info and the amount
183
Q

Which section of the payslip will show information unique to each member?
Reference: Direct Access adpayslip guide

A

Remarks

184
Q

Onboard ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?
Reference: United States Coast Guard Regulations 1992 COMDTINST M5000.3 (series)

A

The CO and officers senior to the CO, visiting officers, officers making inspections and officers when addressing
or being addressed by them.

185
Q

You must render salutes to which of the following?
Reference: United States Coast Guard Regulations 1992 COMDTINST M5000.3 (series)

A

Officers of the armed forces of the US, NOAA, public health service and foreign armed services.

186
Q

If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem, the driver shall _____.
Reference: United States Coast Guard Regulations 1992 COMDTINST M5000.3 (series)

A

Be stopped

187
Q

When are salutes rendered by persons in motor vehicles?
Reference: United States Coast Guard Regulations 1992 COMDTINST M5000.3 (series)

A

Passengers will render salutes

188
Q

When in uniform at a parade, if the flag passes you, you shall _____.
Reference: United States Coast Guard Regulations 1992 COMDTINST M5000.3 (series)

A

stop any motion, stand at attention, and render a salute

189
Q

When in civilian attire at a parade, when the flag passes you shall _____.
Reference: United States Coast Guard Regulations 1992 COMDTINST M5000.3 (series)

A

you should place your hand over your heart as a sign of respect

190
Q

The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has _____ articles.
Reference: Federal Register-Executive Order 10631-Code of Conduct for members of the Armed Forces of the United States

A

6

191
Q

All members of the Armed Forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied in the Code of Conduct _____.
Reference: Federal Register-Executive Order 10631-Code of Conduct for members of the Armed Forces of the United States

A

while in combat or in captivity

192
Q

The National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) consists of how many types of advisories?
Reference: National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) website

A
  1. Alerts or Bulletins
193
Q

Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
Reference: Physical Security and Force Protection Program COMDTINST M5530.1 (series)

A

BRAVO

194
Q

Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
Reference: Physical Security and Force Protection Program COMDTINST M5530.1 (series)

A

BRAVO

195
Q

Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?
Reference: Physical Security and Force Protection Program COMDTINST M5530.1 (series)

A

NORMAL

196
Q

Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?
Reference: Physical Security and Force Protection Program COMDTINST M5530.1 (series)

A

ALPHA

197
Q

Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?
Reference: Physical Security and Force Protection Program COMDTINST M5530.1 (series)

A

CHARLIE

198
Q

2.1.33.08/01
Which Type I PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?
Reference: Rescue and Survival Systems Manual COMDTINST M10470.10 (series)

A

Stearns Model I600

199
Q

Boat characteristics include which two types of frames?
Reference: BOAT CREW HANDBOOK–Seamanship Fundamentals BCH 16114.4A

A

Transverse
- Longitudinal

200
Q

Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?
Reference: Uniform Regulations COMDTINST M1020.6 (series)

A
  • ¼ inch
201
Q

Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?
Reference: Uniform Regulations COMDTINST M1020.6 (series)

A

Neatly groomed
- Honor Guard, CGA Cadets, OCS and CG recruits will be clean-shaven
- Not extend below the top of upper lip or beyond the corners of mouth

202
Q

Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosed with Pseudofolliculitis Barbae (PFB)?
Reference: Uniform Regulations COMDTINST M1020.6 (series)

A

CO or OIC

203
Q

The USCG celebrates its birthday on _____ of each year.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

August 4 th

204
Q

The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

10

205
Q

In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Steamboat Inspection Service

206
Q

The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _____ when the Revenue Cutter Gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

1831

207
Q

The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

28 January 1915

208
Q

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

1 April 1967

209
Q

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A
  • 1 March 2003
210
Q

Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first _____.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Secretary of Treasury

211
Q

Who was the Coast Guard’s first aviator?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Elmer Stone

212
Q

Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Commodore Ellsworth Price Bertholf

213
Q

On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

United States Revenue Cutter Service

214
Q

Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of Marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

SM1 Douglas Munro

215
Q

Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Point Cruz, Guadalcanal

216
Q

SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at Point Cruz, _____.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Point Cruz, Guadalcanal

217
Q

What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

harreit lane

218
Q

The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____ during World War I.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

german u boat torpedo

219
Q

An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish _____ duties for the United States Coast Guard.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Captain of the Port

220
Q

Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

ww1

221
Q

During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

6

222
Q

During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Captain Quentin R. Walsh

223
Q

Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Captain Quentin R. Walsh

224
Q

During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Operation Market Time

225
Q

During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

26

226
Q

Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

persian golf

227
Q

The United States Coast Guard were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on _____.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

9/11

228
Q

In which year did the United States Coast Guard conducted the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurrican Katrina?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

2005

229
Q

The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following _____.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

9/11

230
Q

In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for _____ days.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

87

231
Q

C3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Bronze Star with Combat “V”

232
Q

Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A
  • DC3 Nathan B. Bruckenthal
233
Q

How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

26

234
Q

The Coast Guard Ensign consists of _____ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

16

235
Q

The _____ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Coast Guard Ensign

236
Q

The _____ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Coast Guard Ensign

237
Q

The _____ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Coast Guard Ensign

238
Q

On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the _____.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Coast Guard Ensign

239
Q

During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with _____.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

battle streamers

240
Q

The design of the _____ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

union jack

241
Q

The _____ is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Canton

242
Q

This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Coast Guard Standard

243
Q

What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

43 battle streamers

244
Q

Battle streamers are attached to the _____, replacing cords and tassels.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Coast Guard Standard

245
Q

Individual units may only display those _____ that they have earned.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

battle streamers

246
Q

Only _____ may display a complete set of battle streamers.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

major headquarters commands

247
Q

The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Marine Corps

248
Q

The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____ battle streamers.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

43

249
Q

The _____ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

union jack

250
Q

The _____ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Union Jack

251
Q

The _____ is the canton of the United States Flag.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Union Jack

252
Q

The presence of the _____ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Commissioning Pennant

253
Q

The _____ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

CG Seal

254
Q

The _____ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

CG Seal

255
Q

The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in _____.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

1927

256
Q

The Coast Guard _____ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Emblem

257
Q

The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

CG Shield

258
Q

The _____ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

CG Stripe

259
Q

The _____ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

CG Stripe

260
Q

The music for Semper Paratus was written by _____.
Reference: Recruit Training Master Packet

A

Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck

261
Q

What is a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?
Reference: Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) Program Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTP)

A
  • Document, in detail, various aspects of a HAZMAT.
262
Q

What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when workers are at risk of exposure to HAZMAT?
Reference: Safety and Environmental Health Manual COMDTINST M5100.47 (series)

A

SDS

263
Q

If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?
Reference: Safety and Environmental Health Manual COMDTINST M5100.47 (series)

A

the manufacturer

264
Q

The standard GHS format for a safety data sheet includes _____ sections, in a specified order.
Reference: Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) Program Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTP)

A

16

265
Q

Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the _____ to prevent improper use or handling.
Reference: Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) Program Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTP)

A

SDS

266
Q

GHS provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of _____.
Reference: Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) Program Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTP)

A

SDS (classification and labeling of chemicals)

267
Q

What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badge assignment standard tour length?
Reference: Command Senior Enlisted Leader (CSEL) Program COMDTINST 1306.1 (series)

A

2 yr

268
Q

Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?
Reference: Command Senior Enlisted Leader (CSEL) Program COMDTINST 1306.1 (series)

A

O-6 or higher

269
Q

What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned?
Reference: Relocation Assistance Program website

A

Relocation Assistance Program

270
Q

Who can provide you with community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned?
Reference: Relocation Assistance Program website

A

Transition/Relocation Managers (TRMs)

271
Q

Transition/Relocation Managers may provide _____ with local resource information.
Reference: Relocation Assistance Program website

A

Welcome Packages

272
Q

How should you contact your Transition/Relocation Manager?
Reference: Relocation Assistance Program website

A
  • Work-Life office at your receiving unit
273
Q

Your _____ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program.
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs (CG-111)

A

Family Resource Specialist (FRS)

274
Q

Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program?
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs (CG-111)

A

Family Resource Specialist (FRS) on your Regional Work-Life Staff

275
Q

What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the Special Needs Program (SNP)?
Reference: Special Needs Program COMDTINST 1754.7 (series)

A

Family Member Medical Summary, DD Form 2792

276
Q

2.1.59.03/01
What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs (CG-111)-Family Advocacy Program-Definitions

A

Family Advocacy Specialist (FAS)

277
Q

One purpose of the Family Advocacy Program is to _____.
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs (CG-111)-Family Advocacy Program

A

addresses prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child
maltreatment

278
Q

One purpose of the _____ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment.
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs (CG-111)-Family Advocacy Program

A

Family Advocacy Program

279
Q

CGSUPRT is part of HSWL’s _____.
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs (CG-111)-Employee Assistance Program

A

Employee Assistance Program

280
Q

Members can call _____ 24 hours a day, 365 days a year, to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor.
Reference: Office of Work-Life Programs (CG-111)-Employee Assistance Program

A

855-CGSUPRT(247-8778)

281
Q

The _____ has been designed to capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance, so the Coast Guard can advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)

282
Q

The _____ has been designed to inform enlisted members of the performance standards against which they are measured.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A
  • Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
283
Q

The _____ has been designed to provide a means by which each enlisted member can receive feedback on how well the member is measuring up to the standards.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A
  • Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
284
Q

The _____ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility, and reductions in pay grade.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A
  • Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
285
Q

The _____ has been designed to set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of each enlisted member.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A
  • Enlisted Evaluation System (EES)
286
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-1 is the last day of which months?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

january july

287
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-2 is the last day of which months?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

January (all) & July (AD only)

288
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-3 is the last day of which months?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

February (all) & August (AD only)

289
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-4 is the last day of which months?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

March (all) & September (AD only)

290
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E-5 is the last day of which months?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

April (all) & October (AD only

291
Q

The evaluee must perform which of the following functions within the EES?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Familiarization
- Performance
- Evaluation Input
- Acknowledgement
- Verification

292
Q

When do you need to need to provide evaluation input for your EER?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

14 days prior to the end of the marking period

293
Q

What is done with the completed original EER counseling sheet?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

It is retained (the unit provides it to the evaluee)

294
Q

Your signature on the member’s signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgement of _____.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

The counseling and review of their evaluation report
- The impact of their evaluation report on their Good Conduct eligibility
- The appeal time frame
- Their advancement potential and recommendation

295
Q

The Marking Official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than ____ days after the evaluation report period ending date.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

5

296
Q

The _____ is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently through the period.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Rating Chain

297
Q

What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Conduct

298
Q

What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the Coast Guard evaluates its enlisted members called?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Competencies

299
Q

How many major categories of performance are there in the EES?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

4

300
Q

Which factor type in the EER measures the member’s ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)
QID: 2.1.60.04/03

A

Military

301
Q

Which factor type in the EER measures a member’s ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Leadership

302
Q

Performance Standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of _____ in each competency.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

2, 4, or 6

303
Q

If a member receives an unsatisfactory conduct mark on their EER, it will negatively impact their _____.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Advancement to the next higher pay grade, change in rate, or participation in the SWE.

304
Q

Appeals to the approving official’s decision on the advancement recommendation _____.
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Are not authorized. Decision is final and may not be appealed.

305
Q

What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Ready
- Not Ready
- Not Recommended

306
Q

What must occur when a member does not receive an advancement recommendation?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

(removal from all advancement eligibility lists)

307
Q

The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Incorrect information
- Prejudice
- Discrimination
- Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances.

308
Q

What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

The specific competencies in dispute and supporting information indicating why the marks should be reviewed.

309
Q

What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Request an Audience
- Written Appeal
- The Appeal Letter
- Submission Deadline
- Appealing After the Deadline

310
Q

As a result of an EER appeal, what actions may an approving official take?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

may raise or leave marks unchanged, but may not lower any marks

311
Q

What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their EER?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

15 days

312
Q

What is the deadline for reservists to submit an appeal for their marks?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

45 days

313
Q

What are EER forms CG-3788A-G used for?
Reference: Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

A

Enlisted Evaluation Report Form

314
Q

The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of _____.
Reference: Discipline and Conduct COMDTINST M1600.2 (series)

A

hazing

315
Q

Hazing can include which of the following?
Reference: Discipline and Conduct COMDTINST M1600.2 (series)

A
316
Q

Which directive requires a commanding officer to “prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel”?
Reference: Discipline and Conduct COMDTINST M1600.2 (series)

A

DISCIPLINE AND CONDUCT, COMDTINST M1600.2

317
Q

Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of “inclusion” is defined as _____.
Reference: Discipline and Conduct COMDTINST M1600.2 (series)

A

hazing

318
Q

Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days _____.
Reference: Discipline and Conduct COMDTINST M1600.2 (series)

A

prohibited

319
Q

Enlisted instructors at enlisted entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding _____ is prohibited.
Reference: Discipline and Conduct COMDTINST M1600.2 (series)

A

365

320
Q

A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point?
Reference: Discipline and Conduct COMDTINST M1600.2 (series)

A
  • 365 days have elapsed since their last contact with a representative or upon physically reporting to his or her first
    duty assignment
321
Q

Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services is punishable under which article of the UCMJ?
Reference: Limited Personal Use of Government Office Equipment and Services COMDTINST 5375.1 (series)

A

-92

322
Q

What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?
Reference: Standards of Ethical Conduct COMDTINST M5370.8 (series)

A

Items (not cash) with a total value of $10 or less per occasion

323
Q
A

The ability to influence others to obtain their obedience, respect, confidence, and loyal cooperation.

324
Q

When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?

A

between October 1896 and May 189

325
Q

The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of _____,
praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham.

A

New rleans

326
Q
A

Epme 2023 E2-E6 (3 decks)

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