E1 Flashcards

1
Q

Histogeneisis

A

The formation of different tissues from stem cells that are constituents of the primary germ layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Histology

A

The science of the microscopic structures of tissues formed within histogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Development

A

The growth of an organ or organism through various formative stages on its way to maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Growth

A

Increase in weight and spatial dimension that n organ and organism undergoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Formation

A

An organization level involved in the growth and development of an organ and an organism (the way a particular spatial arrangement (shape) of something occurs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Stomadeum

A

A depression between the brain and pericardium in an embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When does the stomadeum appear in the embryo

A

3rd week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the stomadeum become

A

It becomes the nasal and oral cavities between weeks 6-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Stomadeum gives rise to ______ which is the precursor of the ______ of the pituitary gland

A

Rathke’s pouch

Anterior lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The branchial arches and clefts ______ and ______ in the ______ embryonic week

A

Appear
Disappear
4th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Arch I becomes

A

Right and left maxillary facial processes

Right and left mandibular facial processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ectomesenchyme has similar properties

A

To mesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ectomesenchyme arises from

A

Neural crest cells which arise from the ectoderm germ layers and form in the cranial region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ectomesenchyme plays a major role in the formation of

A

Hard and soft tissues of the head and neck: Bones, muscles, and tooth tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The place where the upper maxillary and lower mandibular processes meet at either side of the stomadeum becomes

A

Commissura labiorum oris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What replaces the cardiac plate as the lower boundary of the stomodeum?

A

The 2 mandibular facial processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The _______ become the posteriorlateral boundaries of the stomodeum

A

2 maxillary facial processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nasal pits appear within

A

The fontonasal prominence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

After the appearance of the nasal pits the frontonasal prominence becomes

A

3 prominences
Median nasal facial process
Right and Left Lateral nasal facial process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nasal pits depend to become

A

Nasal ducts

They open into the stomodeum

The ducts become nostrils that open into the nasal cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Median nasal process becomes

A

Midline of nose

Philtrum of upper lip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Right lateral nasal process becomes

A

Lateral sides and ala of nose

Infraorbital part of face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cleft I becomes

A

The external auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Arch II becomes

A

An embryonic fold of tissue called : Operculum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The operculum covers

A

Arches 3 and 4

Clefts 2 3 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The operculum becomes

A

Sides of neck below external auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

During 4th week what takes place between facial processes

A

Merging NOT fusing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If merging is not complete by ____ week then clefting occurs

A

5th week for both maxillary and mandibular prominences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Four lingual swellings appear during the 4th week along the

A

Ventral inside surface of the mandibular process of branchial arch I II and III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

During the 4th week the buccopharyngeal membrane

A

Ruptures and the 4 lingual swellings merge to become the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

_____ becomes posterior third of tongue

A

Copula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

______ become anterior 2/3 of tongue

A

Tuberculin impair and 2 Lateral lingual swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Primary plate arise from

A

Inner surface of median nasal facial process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Nasal septum arises from

A

Primary palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Palatine folds arise from

A

Inner surface of maxillary facial processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Palatine folds move

A

From a vertical position to a horizontal position above the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Palate epithelial fusion begins

A

In the 6th embryonic week with the epitheal fusion of the primary palate with palatine folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Odontogeneisis begins

A

In the 6th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Two basic tissues that arise from the ectoderm primary germ layer are involved in tooth development

A

Epithelium and mesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dentinogenisis

A

Formation of dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Amelogenesis

A

Formation of enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cementogenesis

A

Formation of cementum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pulpogeneis

A

Formation of pulp tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Epithelial stages

A

Dental lamina stage
Bud Stage
Cap Stage
Bell stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Tooth Germ stages

A

3 parts of tooth germ

Enamel organ (bell) (epithelial)
Dental papilla (mesenchyme)
Dental follicle (mesenchyme)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Tooth germ stage is

A

Odonteogenic epithleial and mesenchyme leaves tissues combined: cells of each tissue induced specifically to become formative cells of dentin, enamel, cementum, and pulp tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Primary Dental Lamina Stage

A

Two epithelial invaginations appear in the lower anterior region of the lower jaw and later in the same week in the upper jaw

These invagination descend into underlying mesenchyme life tissue and continue posteriorly within the mesenchyme as continuous epithelial bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Facial band

A

Vestibular lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Lingual band

A

Primary dental lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Vestibular lamina cell death

A

Will occur in the center of the vestibular lamina leaving a space known as the vestibule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cells arising from the dental lamina become

A

Odotonogenic epitheal part of the tooth germ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cells at the deep end of the dental lamina where a tooth is destined to develop with develop into

A

Epithelial buds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Each epithelial bud is surrounded by

A

Mesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Primary buds

A

Central incisors
Second molars

6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Primary Bud: Central incisor

A

6 weeks in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Primary Bud: Second Molar

A

8 Weeks in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Permanent buds

A

First molar
Central incisors
Second molar
Third Molar

4 months in utero to 5 years postnatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Permanent Buds: First molar

A

4 months in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Permanent Buds: Central Incissors

A

5 months in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Permanent Buds: Second mOlar

A

10 months postnatally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Permanent Buds: Third Molar

A

5 years postnatally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A total of ____ epithelial buds arise from the primary dental lamina

A

16

10 primary
6 permanent molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Each succedaneous tooth has its own

A

Secondary dental lamina that arises from the lingual side of the primary dental lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Cap Stage site of enamel knot

A

Concentration of epithelial cells of cap that is a signaling center: determines if tooth will develop to become an anterior or posterior tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Epithelial cap undergoes growth and envelops into

A

A bell shaped epithelial structure called an enamel organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

At the bell stage the epithelium is arranged into

A

4 Distinct cell layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

4 Epithelial cells of Enamel Organ

A

Inner epithelial
Stratum intermedium epithelial
Stellate reticulum
Outer epithleial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Secondary dental lamina is _____ to primary tooth germ

A

Lingual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

_____ secondary lamina rise in each arch; one for each secondary tooth

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Secondary dental lamina arise from

A

Primary dental lamina

NOT the oral epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Enamel Organ is

A

Avascaular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Enamel Organ: inner epithleial cells

A

Differentiate into ameloblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Enamel Organ: after formation of enamel is complete

A

The ameoloblasts along with the other layers of the enamel organ come together over the surface of the enamel as a protective structure: reduced enamel epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Dental Papilla

A

Is vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Dental papilla has undifferentiated cells that

A

Become odontoblasts, fibroblast, reserve cells

Ultimately becomes pulp tissue of tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Dental follicle is

A

Vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Dental follicle has stem cells that become

A

Cementoblasts, fibroblasts, osteoblasts, and reserve cells

Ultimately becomes periodontal ligament of the periodontum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The enamel is attached to both mesenchyme parts of the tooth germ by

A

A basal lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Reduced enamel epithelium

A

The 4 cell layers of enamel organ come together to form a stratified epithelial layer over the enamel surface. It protects the enamel from surrounding connective tissue until the tooth enters the oral cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath

A

Outer and inner layers come together at the cervical loop forming a double layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Root sheath has 2 main functions

A

1 Determines root dentin outline

Determines number of root canals of tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Cervical loop

A

Site where inner and outer cell layers merge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Dentin Stats

A

50% mineral

30% organic matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Dentin organic matrix

A

Collagen I

Dentin sialophosphoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Odontoblasts differentiate from

A

Dental papilla cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Odontoblastic process

A

A long cytoplasmic extension encased in dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Odontoblastic Layers

A

Cell free zone
-Nerve and capillary plexus

Cell rich zone
-extensive vascular system

Pulpal core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Line of von ebner

A

Accentuated lines due to disturbances in mineralization.

Oriented in horizontal at approximately right angles to the dentinal tubules which run in the vertical axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

More terminal branching of dentinal tubules occurs where

A

In root dentin compared to coronal dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Coronal tubules have ____ curvature

A

S shaped

Curve out then down

Root are straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Pre-dentin

A

The fibrillation organic matrix before its calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Primary Dentin

A

Dentin made during tooth formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Mantle Dentin

A

Outer layer of primary dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Secondary Dentin forms by

A

The slower continuing deposition of dentin by odontoblasts following completion of the root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The junction between primary and secondary dentin is characterized by

A

A change in the direction of dentinal tubules but the tubular structure is continuous with primary dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Secondary dentin deposition is fastest where?

A

On the roof and floor of the pulp chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Tertiary Dentin formation is a local reaction to

A

Attrition caries or dental restoration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The quality of tertiary dentin depends upon

A

The intensity and duration of the stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Tertiary dentin tubules can be

A

Continuous sparse irregular or absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Reactionary dentin is formed

A

By preexisting odontoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Reparative dentin

A

Formed by newly differentiated odontoblasts like cells

These cells can be included in the hard tissue which is called osteodentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Sclerotic dentin

A

Dentin that has become translucent due to calcification of the dentinal tubules as a result of injury or normal aging

More as you age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Two patterns of mineralization

A

Globular

Linear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Globular Mineralizatoin

A

High rates

Irregular fronts

(Mantle layer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Linear Mineralizatoin

A

Occurs at slower rates where mineralization front appears more uniform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Interglobular Dentin

A

Localized areas of hypomineralixed dentin often just beneath the mantle dentin where globular zones of mineral fail to fuse into a homogenous mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Interglobular dentin is a defect the dentinal tubules pass through but

A

Peritubular dentin is not present in these areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Peritubular dentin

A

Surround the dentinal tubules

It is lower in collagen
Higher in Dentin sialophosphjoprotein
More mineralized than intertubular dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

DGI Type I is in people with

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

In DGI type I the teeth show

A

Marked discoloration and attrition in both the deciduous and permanent dentition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

DGI Type I pulpal obliteration

A

Occurs soon after eruption and sometimes prior to tooth eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

_______ is the most abundant protein in bone skin and other connective tissues

A

Collagen 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

COLIA1 & 2 mutations can

A

Reduce the amount of collagen

Produce defective collagen molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

2 Collagen type 1 alpha chains fold with one alpha 2 to form

A

A triple helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

COLIA1 mutations cause

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

So does A2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Glycine changed to

A

Cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

DSPP is expressed by

A

PreOdontoblasts
PreAmeloblasts
Odontoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Dentin Sialoprotein is a

A

Proteoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Dentin phosphoprotein is the ____ protein

A

Most acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Mutations in DSPP cause

A

DDII
DGI -II
DGI-III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

DSPP is cleaved into

A

DSP and DPP by Extracellular protease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Molars of Dspp-/- show

A

Discoloration and sever attrition leading to complete disappearance of tooth crown

123
Q

1 year DSP (-/-) mice

A

Enlarged pulp cavity
Decreased mineral density
Globular mineralized zones

124
Q

Dentin Dysplasia

A

DDI

DDII

125
Q

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta

A

DGI-I
DGI-II
DGI-III

126
Q

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta Type II

A

Is distinct from OI as only the teeth are affected

Caused by mutations in DSPP

Teeth are blue gray or amber brown and opalescent

127
Q

DGI-II on radiographs

A

Teeth have bulbous crowns, narrow roots, and pulp chambers and root canals that are small or completely obliterated

Enamel may split from dentin when subjected to occlusal stress

128
Q

Dentinogenesis Imperfecta Type III

A

The teeth appear somewhat variable as in either DGI type I and DGI type II but unlike the latter two traits multiple pulp exposures are observed in the deciduous teeth

Can look normal to pulp obliteration or even shell teeth radiographically

129
Q

Dentin Dysplasia Type I

A

Clinically both permanent and deciduous teeth are of normal shape form and color in most cases

Radiographically short roots with unusually mobility and early exfoliation

Crescent shaped pulpal remnants parallel to the CEJ in the permanent dentition and total pulpal obliteration in the deciduous dentition

130
Q

Dentin Dysplasia Type II

A

The deciduous teeth have creatures of DGI Type II

The permanent teeth are of normal shape form and color in most cases

The pulp cavities show a thistle tube deformity and commonly contain pulp stones

Root length is normal

131
Q

DGI II, DGI III and DDII are likely

A

To be the same disease all cases appear to be caused by dominant negative effects

The effects of DSPP mutation on the protein may determine the severity of the clinical phenotypes

132
Q

23 pairs

A

Chromosomes (46 total)

133
Q

22 pairs

A

Autosomes

134
Q

1 pair

A

Sex chromosomes

135
Q

Gametes hold

A

1 chromosome from each pair

136
Q

Amelogenesis imperfecta mutation in

A

AMELX gene on X chromosome

137
Q

Cell differentiation

A

The process of a generalized cell becoming specialized for a job

138
Q

Induction

A

The process that initiates differentiation

139
Q

An inducer is

A

An agent that provides cells with a signal to differentiate

140
Q

A cell must be _______ to receive induction signal

A

Competent

141
Q

Competence

A

Ability of cell to receive and respond to a molecular signal

142
Q

Inducer: Bone morphogenic protein

Receptor:_______

A

Cell surface BMP receptor Type I or II

143
Q

Inducer: Vitamin D

Receptor:_______

A

Intracellular vitamin D receptor

144
Q

Inducer: Wnt Signal

Receptor:_______

A

Cell surface LRP6 AND Frizzled receptor

145
Q

Inducing signals comes from outside cell—-> If cell is competent to receive it——>

A

Intracellular changes——>cell function changes

146
Q

Auto rinse

A

Self signal

147
Q

Paracrine

A

Adjacent cells receive signal

148
Q

Endocrine

A

Distant cells receive signal

149
Q

Signaling affects

A

Cell differation

Cell proliferation: dividing into more cells

cell migration: moving to a new location

150
Q

Transcription Factors

A

Proteins that control whether genes will be transcribed into mRNA

151
Q

1 Transcription factor can control expression of

A

Tens, hundreds of genes

152
Q

Transcription factors can ______target genes

A

Activate or repress expression of target genes

153
Q

Morula

A

Ball of cells

Day 3-4

154
Q

Blastocyst

A

Hollow fluid filled ball

Day 5

155
Q

Embryoblast

A

Inner cell mass

ICM forms all tissues of the embryo

(Trohphoblast other cells)

156
Q

Blastocyst on Day 13

A

Axes established

Bilaminar embryo

2 germ layers

157
Q

2 germ layers

A

Ectoderm (dorsal)

Endoderm(ventral)

158
Q

Ectodermal cells converge

A

Toward the midline to from the primitive streak

159
Q

Ectodermal cells migrate through

A

The streak between ectoderm and endoderm

160
Q

Gastrulation

A

Conversion to trilaminar embryo

3rd week

161
Q

Gastrulation

A

New mesoderm layer separates ectoderm and endoderm

162
Q

Cephalon migrating cells form

A

Notochord to support embryo

163
Q

Buccopharyngeal membrane remains

A

Bilateral of ectoderm and endoderm

NO mesoderm

164
Q

Rostro cadaul folding happens during

A

Week 4

165
Q

Lateral side folding during week

A

4

166
Q

Cranial neural crest cells have _____ origins

A

Ectoderm

167
Q

Cranial neural crest cells are adjacent to

A

Neural tube

168
Q

Neural tube closes at

A

Day 22

End of 3rd week

169
Q

Neural crest cells have capacity to ____ & ______

A

Migrate

Differentiate

170
Q

________ act like mesenchyme to form most of the connective tissues of the head

A

Ectomesenchyme cells

171
Q

During brain development the ____ expands as_____ _____ &_____

A

Neural tube

Forebrain
Midbrain
Hindbrain

172
Q

Hindbrain forms

A

8 rhombomeres

Bulges

173
Q

Rhombomeres define the

A

Origins of distinct populations of NCCs

174
Q

NCCs from midbrain and rhombomeres 1 and 2 contribute to

A

Branchial arch 1

175
Q

Hox TF genes

A

Ancient Rostral caudal patterning genes that define body segments

176
Q

NCCs that migrate from mid brain and rhombomeres 1 and 2 to the face and first branchial arch are

A

Hox free

177
Q

All transcription factors include

A

A DNA binding doain that allows them to interact with genes

178
Q

Homeboy TFs include

A

180 base pair homeboy with specific sequence

179
Q

Hox TFs Are a subset

A

Of homeobox genes that are very ancient body patterning directors

180
Q

Pouch

A

Internal depression

181
Q

Groove/cleft

A

Separates arches externally

182
Q

Branchial Arch 1

A

Mandible
Maxilla
Outer and middle ear

183
Q

Treacher Collins Syndrome

A

Failure of NCC migration to facial region

184
Q

Sequential

A

Orderly sequence of eve3nts determine whether cells are ready to receive the signal and how they respond

185
Q

Reiterative

A

Cells use same signaling pathways again and again at different stages

186
Q

Major signal pathways

A

BMP
FGF
SHH
WNT

187
Q

Reciprocal

A

EM signals back and forth

188
Q

Stomatodeum day

A

Day 26

189
Q

Odontogenic epithelium day

A

27 day

4th week

190
Q

Nasal pits bound by LNP MNP day

A

34 day

5th week

191
Q

Dental lamina stage initiating odontogenesis process fusing day

A

Day 36

6th week

192
Q

Fusion complete

A

Day 38

193
Q

Tooth type determination Field model

A

Epithelial: signals induce mesenchymal expression of TFs

mesenchymal: TF expression in overlapping domains

194
Q

Tooth type determination Clone theory

A

Each tooth type derived from a clone of mesenchymal cells programmed by epithelium

When clone of cells reaches a critical mass a tooth bud initiates

Next bud does not initiate until clone moves outside of inhibitory zone

195
Q

Bud stage ___ growth of dental lamina into bud

A

Down

196
Q

Bud stage _____ growth of mesenchyme packing into condensation

A

Up

197
Q

Cap stage epithelial growth

A

Forms concavace cap like structure

198
Q

Cap stage dental papilla =

A

Condensed ectomesenchyme

199
Q

Cap stage surrounding ectomesenchyme =

A

Dental follicle

200
Q

Primary enamel knot

A

Non dividing enamel organ cells in cap stage

Directs proliferation of surrounding epithleial cells

201
Q

Bell stage enamel organ has _____ components

A

4

202
Q

Bell Stage: Outer enamel epithelium

A

Cuboidal cells

203
Q

Bell Stage: Inner enamel epithelium

A

Columnar cells

204
Q

Bell Stage: Stratum intermedium

A

2-3 cell thick layer adjacent to IEE

205
Q

Bell Stage: Stellate reticulum

A

Star shaped cells space between hem

206
Q

Late Bell stage: Secondary Enamel Knot

A

No divine enamel organ cells in bells etage appearing at sites of cups (NOT in incisors )

207
Q

Secondary enamel knots stimulate

A

Terminal differentiation of odontoblasts to being dentinogeneiss

208
Q

Secondary enamel knots direct proliferation

A

Of surrounding epithelial cells—-> IEE completes folding determines number and location of cusps

209
Q

Anodontia

A

Absence of all primary or secondary teeth

210
Q

Oliogodontia

A

6 or more missing teeth

211
Q

Hypodontia

A

1-5 missing teeth

212
Q

Hyperdontia

A

More than the normal numbers of teeth

213
Q

PAX9 mutation

A

Most affected individuals missing maxillary and mandibular 2nd and 3rd molars

214
Q

The tooth has 4 tissues only one is not connective

A

Enamel

215
Q

Enamel is _____ derived and formed by specialized _____ cells

A
Ectodermal
Epithelial cells (ameloblast)
216
Q

Of the four mineralized tissues enamel is the only one that does not have

A

An unmineralized or preenamel formation stage

-immature or mature stages

217
Q

First mineralized tissue to appear

A

Dentin

218
Q

Second mineralized tissue to appear

A

Enamel

219
Q

Enamel does not contain

A

Collagen fibers

220
Q

Amelogenin

A

A seed protein for normal mineralization

221
Q

Enamel proteins are arranged in

A

A lace like pattern throughout the volume of enamel and closely associated with the surface of the crystals

222
Q

Hydration Shell

A

Water forming around crystals and proteins in enamel

223
Q

Strae of Retzius

A

Growth lines of enamel

224
Q

Perikymata

A

Numerous small transverse ridges on the exposed surfaces of enamel

225
Q

Each perikymata is thought to take aprox ____ days and thus can be used to estimate how long the tooth took to form

A

8-10 days

226
Q

Perikymata are most noticeable on

A

Canines

227
Q

Enamel Rods

A

Structural unit of enamel

228
Q

Hydroxyapatite crystals are most dense in the

A

Core or center of enamel rods and run parallel to long axis of rod

229
Q

Each enamel rod is formed by

A

One ameloblast

230
Q

Enamel Sheath

A

The outer surface of the rod

231
Q

Crystals in the enamel sheath are less dense than those of core and run

A

In different directions

Higher % of organic substances (Amelin)

232
Q

Interrod substance

A

Between the sheaths of rods

Crystals are more dense and run at different directions than those of the sheath

233
Q

_______ secreted interrod substance

A

2 or more ameloblasts secrete the interrod substance

234
Q

Interrod striations

A

Each enamel rod is built up of segments separated by dark lines that give a striated appearance

235
Q

A rod is segmented because

A

It’s secreted in a rhythmic manner

236
Q

Enamel Lamella

A

Lamellae extend for varying depths from the surface of enamel and consist of longitudinally oriented defects filled with enamel protein or organic debris from the organ cavity

237
Q

Enamel Tuft

A

Tufts project from the dentinoenmale junction for a short distance into enamel and contain greater concentration of enamel protein

238
Q

Enamel Spindle

A

Spindles extend from the dentin cross the dentinoenamel junction into the enamel for a short distance

239
Q

Hunter-Schreager Bands

A

Alternating dark and light bands of varying width

Originate at the DEJ border and pass outward ending at some distance from the outer enamel surface

240
Q

Hunter Schreager bands are caused by

A

Different direction of enamel rods in adjacent layers

241
Q

Change in rod direction minimizes risk of

A

Cleavage in the axial direction under the influence of masticatory forces. Clinically significant when performing operative dentistry

242
Q

Pulp is _____ but not_______

A

Vascular but not calcified

243
Q

Functions of pulp

A

Hydrates dentin
Protective
Defensive
Reparative

244
Q

Pulp origin

A

Ectoderm-neural crest ectomesnechyme

245
Q

Pulp Functions in development: Inductive

A

Send BMP to enamel organ

246
Q

Pulp Functions in development: Formative

A

Odontoblasts secrete organic matrix

Participate in mineralization by transportin ca ions and DSPP

247
Q

Dentin poshophoprotein

A

Specific to dentin
Binding sites for collagen
Very acidic

248
Q

DSP binds to_______ pulls out _______ and _______ mineralization

A

Collagen
Ca
Initiation

249
Q

Dentinogenesis begins during what stage

A

Bell stage

250
Q

What induces odontoblasts differentiation

A

Enamel organ-inner enamel epithelium

Or 2 enamel knots in molars

251
Q

2 prominent induction molecules

A

BMP

WNT

252
Q

DSPP presences is a signe of

A

Odontoblast differentiation

253
Q

Signaling cascade

A

Complex many targets for manipulation

254
Q

GSK3

A

A kinase has inhibitory effect on transcription

255
Q

When WNT bound to receptor, GSK

A

GSK becomes inactivate

Bcatenin relased travels to nucleus and initiates transcription

256
Q

When there is more WNT signal there is more

A

Reparative dentin

257
Q

If dentin is bulging into pulp chamber

A

Tertiary dentin

258
Q

2 ectopic calcifactions of pulp

A

Pulp stones

Diffuse calcifactions

259
Q

Pulp stones

A

Usually in pulp chambers a

260
Q

Diffuse calcifactions

A

Usually in canals

261
Q

Odontoblast differentiation in the tooth crown

A

Is induced by signaling molecules secreted by the cells of the enamel organ specifically inner enamel epithelium or enamel knot

262
Q

Odontoblasts secrete dentin before

A

Any enamel layed down

263
Q

WNT10a can be

A

Released from pulp cells in adulat pulp after injury

264
Q

Is WNT10a a transcription factor

A

Not its secreted TF are in cells

265
Q

Odontogenic zone surrounds

A

Central core

266
Q

Odontogenic zone

A

Odontoblast layer
Cell free zone
Cell rich zone

267
Q

Cells of the pulp

A

Odontoblasts

fibroblast

268
Q

Cells of the pulp: resident

A
Macrophage 
T lymphocytes
Eosinophils
Dendritic cells
PMN
269
Q

Cells of the pulp: inflammation

A

B lymphocytes plasma cells masts cells

270
Q

Stem cells in pulp

A

Source for replacement of odontoblasts or fibroblasts

271
Q

Proteoglycans in the pulp

A

Are numerous
Allow diffusion
Water retention

272
Q

Glycoproteins in pulp

A

Fibronectin

Role in cell adhesion of ECM
Holds cells in orderly fashion

273
Q

Collagen of pulp

A

I and III

provides tensile strength

274
Q

Mature pulp does not contain

A

DSPP

275
Q

Stem cells have

A

High capacity for self renewal

Plastic

276
Q

Stems cells are plastic

A

Can generate multiple cell types

277
Q

GCSF

A

Keeps discs in the area
Attract other stem cells from other tissues
Anti apoptosic

278
Q

DPSC

A

Are multipotent providing raw material for new pulp tissues BUT they have other importation functions:
Anti inflamatory
Secrete tropic factors promoting angiogenesis and neurogenic

279
Q

Junctions between odontoblasts

A

Desmosoem and adherents junctions-maintain position and polarity

280
Q

Gap junctions

A

Channel between cells coordinate dentinogenesis s

281
Q

Tight apical weld junctions

A

Complete to compromise a partial barrier from things diffusion from dentin to pulp

282
Q

Pulp is

A

Highly vascularized
Has a lymph system
Presence of blood and lympahativ vessels distinguish it from other tooth tissues

283
Q

ADelta Fibers

A

Sensory pain fibers

284
Q

C fibers

A

Some are sensory pain fibers

Others are sympathetic

285
Q

Abeta fibers

A

Sensory pain fibers

286
Q

Innervation begins at

A

Bell stage

287
Q

Are both primary and secondary dentition innervated

A

Yes

288
Q

Nerves enter though _______ and terminate in ________

A

Apical foramen

Pulp dentin border zone and dentin

289
Q

Rashkovs plexus

A

Plexus of nerves in crown near cell free zone

290
Q

Mechanically activated ion channels

A

Are embedded in the membranes of nerve fiber endings of Adelt and Abeta fibers in the pulp dentin border region

291
Q

When the nerve fiber endings are deformed

A

Ion channels open

Sodium flows into the nerve endings

Depolarizing them and giving rise to action potention

292
Q

PIEZO2

A

Identify of mechanorecepots

A unique class of stretch sensitive ion channels recently identified as underlying touch sensation and proprioception throughout the body

293
Q

Classic odontoblast receptor theory

A

Out of favors

However the odontoblast most likely has some function in dentinal sensitivity

294
Q

Pain also arise directly

A

From stimuli in pulp

295
Q

TRP receptors

A

A family of transmembrane receptors for thermal and inflammatory pain in many regions

296
Q

Dental stimuli—->hydrodynamic forces—>

A

Abeta ADelta fibers—->shape pain

297
Q

Abeta ADelta location

A

Dentinal tubules

Superficial pulp

298
Q

Infection or trauma—>Inflammationm—>

A

C fibers—> dull pain

299
Q

C fibers located

A

Pulp only

Superficial and deep

300
Q

Sensory(pain) never also have

A

Inflammatory and immune function

301
Q

Epinephrine added to lidocaine for dental anesthesia would be expected to

A

Reduce blood flow to pump limit to bleeing

302
Q

Inflammatory meditators cause tooth pain mainly be engaging the hydrodynamic mechanism

A

False

Acting directly like TRP don’t need hydrodynamic

303
Q

Activation of nerve fibers in dentin and pulp:

A

Can lead to reals of neuropeptides in the pulp that have pro-inflammatory effects

Can lead to the resale of neuropeptides in the brain that give rise to pain sensations