E-5 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Where are deadlines for Personal Data Extract (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?

A

ALCOAST (Review the message)

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2
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), Time in Rating and Time in Service are computed up to what point?

A

UP to TED (Terminal eligibility date). The TED is 1 January of the year following the May SWEs.

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3
Q

On your Personal Data Extract, award points are earned up to what point?

A

Award Points up to SWE Eligibility Date (SED) is the point value of all awards earned between your Points
Start Date up to the SWE Eligibility Date (SED.)

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4
Q

Sea Time points on a Personal Data Extract (PDE)are calculatedat what rate?

A

Sea Time for Points up to SED is credited at 2 points per year, or 0.166 points per month, retroactive to
1FEB1994.

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5
Q

On your PDE you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first advancement on or after what date?

A
  • 01JAN2000

https: //www.dcms.uscg.mil/Portals/10/CG-1/PPC/ADV/PointStartDate.pdf?ver=2017-03-02-094915-733

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6
Q

What should you do if you find errors on your Personal Data Extract (PDE)?

A

If errors are found, note them on the printed copy of this form, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel.

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7
Q

What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume?

A

After ranking positions in order of preference, click Return to previous page.

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8
Q

What is your next step once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for your eResume?

A

Check the Job Basket box for the desired Job posting. After all desired Job Basket boxes are checked, click
Save to Job Basket.

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9
Q

You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections?

A

Submit and save new eResume

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10
Q

What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Development Plan (IDP)?

A

CG-5357

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11
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is _____.

A

A tool to facilitate a conversation that the supervisor, and mentor if desired, uses to discuss professional and personal goals.

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12
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) isNOT _____.

A

A performance evaluation method, a contract for training, or a means for clarifying or revising a position description. The IDP is not intended to be solely filled out by the individual nor handed to the individual
to return at a later date.

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13
Q

A first term enlisted member's Individual Development Plan (IDP) must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor within _____ days of reporting to the unit.

A

30 Days

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14
Q

What does analysis of mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?

A

A lack of deliberate and systematic RM during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and
activities.

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15
Q

What does the Risk Management (RM) process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage
potential hazards?

A

Effective teamwork and communication

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16
Q

Which of the following is the foundation of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Hazard Identification

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17
Q

In step 1 of the Risk Management (RM) process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be
performed, what model can be used?

A

Use the PEACE model (Planning, Event complexity, Asset selection, Communications, and Environmental
conditions)

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18
Q

In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, “Why” analysis is used in which action?

A

Action 3 – List Causes

19
Q

How is risk defined within Risk Management?

A
  • The possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard
20
Q

Which of the following is a risk assessment pitfall?

A

Over optimism, misrepresentation, alarmism, ((indiscrimination)), prejudice, inaccuracy, enumeration

21
Q

Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make Risk Decisions

22
Q

Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task, to another individual, unit or platform
that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using the _____ approach.

A

STAAR - Transfer

23
Q

The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

STAAR – Spread Out

24
Q

What is the controloption used for specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a
different way?

A

STAAR - Avoid

25
Q

Within the Risk Management (RM) process, which is a type of control thatcan be applied to hazards to
mitigate the risk?

A

Develop Controls – Engineering controls, physical controls, administrative controls, educational controls, operational controls

26
Q

What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce
risk?

27
Q

In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member establish accountability?

A

Step 4 – Implement Controls
Action 2 – Establish Accountability

28
Q

Which of the following is an action in step 4 of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Action 1 - Make Implementation Clear, Action 2 – Establish Accountability, Action 3 – Provide Support

29
Q

Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Step 5- Supervise and Evaluate/Review

30
Q

How many actions are there in the last step of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Action 1 – Monitor, Action 2 – Evaluate, Action 3 - Feedback

31
Q

In step 5 of the Risk Management (RM) process, ensure changes requiring further RM are identified, is part of
which action?

A

Action 1 - Monitor

32
Q

In the Risk Management (RM) process, what action follows an evaluation?

A

Action 3 – Feedback
**Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations
**Risk Management (RM) 3500.3A

33
Q

What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?

A

Define Conflict

34
Q

What is the third stage of conflict?

A

Escalation

https: //cg.portal.uscg.mil/sites/externaldata/Directives/CI_3500_3A.pdf

35
Q

What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict?

A

a. Your peer may try to avoid interaction with you or avoid eye contact, unless necessary.

b. Previous outgoing interactions with you, as their peer either before, during, or after a
job, task, or project completion have quickly stopped, decreased, or have ceased to exist all together.

c. You hear rumors throughout the shop, team, unit, about a certain person, whom you recognize as equal in rank/grade to you, is having a rough time at the unit and seems to have hard feelings or concerns regarding your peer workplace relationship. This
person, however, has not yet come forward to you to discuss.

d. This person has significant decreases in what is normally a very congenial and professional daily verbal interaction with yourself.

e. This person has a decreased involvement in unit activities, athletics, after work events, social gatherings.

36
Q

What is the first stage of conflict escalation?

A

Disagreement

37
Q

Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become
increasingly aggressive?

A

Escalation

38
Q

Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?

A

De-Escalation

39
Q

The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is _____.

A

Collaborating

40
Q

In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other
person’s desires.

41
Q

In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own
desires.

A

Accommodating

42
Q

In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they
want.

A

Compromising

43
Q

What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?

A

Facilitate a resolution