Dysrhythmias Flashcards

1
Q

ventricular arrhythmias

A

tachycardia, fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

atrial arrhythmias

A

flutter, fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AV junction arrhythmias

A

AV nodal reentry, acute SVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Class I actions

A

all block sodium
IA- slows phase 0 depol
IB- shortens phase 3 repol
IC- markedly slows phase 0 depol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

class II actions

A

B Blocker

suppress phase 4 depol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

class III actions

A

K blocker

prolongs phase 3 repol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

class IV actions

A

Ca blocker

shortens AP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

indicated for atrial and vent arrhythmias, used to maintain rhythm post cardioversion. Class IA

A

quinidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

contraindicated in heart block, SA node dysfunction, cardiogenic shock, severe uncompensated HF, SLE

A

class IA antiarrhythmics (quinidine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ADRs include arrhythmias, N/V/D, cinchonism,

A

class IA antiarrhythmics (quinidine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

drug metab inhibited by cimetidine. Induced by phenytoin, rifampin, barbiturates. Decreases digoxin clearance

A

class IA antiarrhythmics (quinidine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

metabolized to N-acetylprocainamide, which prolongs duration of AP

A

procainamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ADRs: hypotension, lupus erythematosus like syndrome, aystole or ventricular arrhythmias, depression, hallucinations, psychosis

A

procainamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

produces negative inotropic effect- contraindicated in HF, causes peripheral vasoconstriction

A

disopyramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ADRs- anticholinergic, proarrhythmic

A

disopyramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

prototype and DOC for emergency treatment of cardiac arrhythmias post mI. No negative inotropic effect, no impairment of LV dysfunction

A

lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

extensive 1st pass metabolism, dose adjustment in liver failure

A

lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

contraindicated in SA disorders, AV block

A

lidocaine

19
Q

ADRs- confusion, slurred speech, drowsiness, parasthesias, agitation, cardiac arrhythmias

A

lidocaine

20
Q

used in chronic vent arrhythmias associated with previous MIs

A

mexiletine, tocainide

21
Q

associated with pulmonary toxicity that can lead to fibrosis

A

tocainide

22
Q

questionable safety- blocks Na channels, indicated for refractory ventricular arrhythmias (PVCs)

A

flecainide

23
Q

have negative inotropic effects (not used in CHF). ADRs include dizziness, blurred vision, HA, nausea, can aggravate pre-existing arrhythmias or induce life threatening vent tachy

A

class IC- flecainide

24
Q

indicated post MI vent arrhythmias, tachyarrhythmias caused by increased sympathetic activity, atrial flutter and fib, AV nodal reentrant tachycardia

A

class II- B Blockers

25
Q

block potassium channels, prolonging repolarization and duration or AP. Indicated in vent and supraventricular arrhythmias

A

class II- B Blockers

26
Q

effective in preventing arrhythmia recurrence and decreasing mortality in patients with sustained VTACH

A

sotalol

27
Q

ADR includes torsade de pointes

A

sotalol

28
Q

has class I, II, III, and IV actions (dominant class III). Antianginal and antiarrhythmic activity

A

amiodarone

29
Q

indicated for refractory SVT and ventricular tachyarrhythmias

A

amiodarone

30
Q

Long half life. ADRs include pulmonary fibrosis, GI intolerance, tremor, ataxia, hyper/hypo thyroidism, neuropathy, muscle weakness, blue skin discoloration

A

amiodarone

31
Q

slowed phase 4 spontaneous depol and slowed conduction in tissues dependent on calcium currents (AV node)

A

CCBs

32
Q

indicated for atrial arrhythmias, reentrant suprevent tachy, reducing vent rate in atrial flutter and fib, HTN, angina

A

CCB

33
Q

ADRs: hypotension. Contraindicated in pts with preexisting depressed cardiac function due to its negative inotropic properties

A

CCB

34
Q

endogenous nucleoside that acts at tissues in lungs, afferent nerves, and platelets

A

adenosine

35
Q

has a short DOA. Decreases conduction velocity, prolongs the refractory period and decreases automaticity in the AV node

A

adenosine

36
Q

contraindicated in 2nd and 3rd degree heart block

A

adenosine

37
Q

DOC for abolishing supraventricular tachycardia

A

adenosine

38
Q

ADRs- transient facial flushing, chest pain, dyspnea, bronchospasm

A

adenosine

39
Q

shortens refractory period in atrial/vent cells while prolonging effective refractory period and decreasing conduction velocity in purkinje fibers

A

digoxin

40
Q

indicated to control vent rate in Afib and Aflutter. ADRs include ectopic vent beats- VTACH and VFIN

A

digoxin

41
Q

this should be considered in all afib patients who are severely symptomatic or hemodynamically unstable

A

immediate DCC

42
Q

all afib patients need

A

anticoagulation
ventricular rate control
restoration of normal sinus rhythm

43
Q

when would you chose long term pharm rate control (rather than cardioversion)

A

no deterioration in sx w afib and HR controlled
normal LV function
duration of afib > 1 year
failure to maintain NSR despite cardioversion

44
Q

when would you chose cardioversion

A

symptomatic with NSR
LVH
duration of afib < 1 year
young, active patients