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DWWF Questions Flashcards

1
Q

which one of the following families lack hemoglobin and myoglobin?

  • Muraenidae (moray eel)
  • chaetontidae (butterfly fish)
  • Mordaciidae (lampreys)
  • Myxinidae (hagfish)
  • Channichthyidae (icefish)
A

Channichthyidae (icefish)

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2
Q

Most teleosts have how many chambers in their heart?

A

two

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3
Q

which organ is used to help with buoyancy in most elasmobranchs?

A

liver

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4
Q

which organ is used to help with buoyancy in most elasmobranchs?

A

posterior kidney

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5
Q

red, gill-like tissue located on the underside of the operculum is most likely

A

a ripped gill arch

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6
Q

what best describes the function of the Leydig and Epigonal Organs in elasmobranch species

A

lymphomyeloid tissues

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7
Q

the heart of the hagfish is not innervated and the rate at which the heart beats is under _______ control

A

hormonal

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8
Q

a rich yellow opaque fluid in the uterus of a stingray is definitive for pyometra

A

true

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9
Q

vaccination is a method of increasing the host immune response to a specific pathogen

A

true

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10
Q

the spleen is a site for blood cell formation in teleosts

A

true

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11
Q

physoclistis fish

A

fish that don’t have a direct connection between the swim bladder and the GI tract; the ovale resorbs oxygen back into the bloodstream

ovale is a vascularized chamber of the swim bladder that is separated from the rest of the bladder by a sphincter which relaxes to deflate the swim bladder allowing oxygen to enter the ovale

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12
Q

four main categories of infectious disease

A

viral, bacterial, fungal and parasitic

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13
Q
A
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14
Q

physostomous fish

A

fish that have a pneumatic duct (direction connection) between the esophagus and the gas bladder

excess gas is excreted through the pneumatic duct

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15
Q

what organism causes an enteric coccidial infection in Weedy seadragons?

A

Eimeria phyllopteryx

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16
Q

what is the most recommended site for sampling blood in sharks when using an I-STAT?

A

ventral tail

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17
Q

what may be considered the most appropriate options for the treatment of subcutaneous emphysema in seahorses?

A

aspiration and acetazolamide

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18
Q

cross-species blood transfusions are likely to be most compatible between which species of elasmobranchs?

A

sandtiger and sandbar sharks

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19
Q

1 mg/L =

A

1 ppm

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20
Q

which one of the following fihs is the most sensitive to nitrite toxicity?

A

channel catfish

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21
Q

what is the most common cause of mortality of fish living in ponds?

A

low D.O.

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22
Q

what can increased levels of ammonia cause in fish

A

increased oxygen demand

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23
Q

what is the common name of the fish disease caused by nitrite toxicity?

A

Brown Blood Disease

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24
Q

what is the largest source of D.O. in an outdoor pond?

A

phytoplankton

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25
Q

what is the toxic form of ammonia

A

NH3

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26
Q

gas bubble disease is caused by what problem in the water?

A

supersaturation

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27
Q

as temperature increases in a system, oxygen solubility

A

decreases

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28
Q

nitrate is harmful to invertebrates at relatively low levels

A

true

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29
Q

chloramine

A

compound of chlorine and ammonia

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30
Q

plastic containers can interact with chorine/chloramines

A

true

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31
Q

alkalinity

A

buffering capacity of water

low alkalinity can cause extremem pH fluctuation because of the reduced ability to buffer the increased concentration of hydrogen ions

CO2 is the most important factor for pH, increased CO2 causes a decrease in pH

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32
Q

total hardness

A

measure of the concentration of divalent metal cations like calcium and magnesium in water

Ca and Mg are needed for osmoregulation

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33
Q

what are 2 water quality problems that can cause fish to “pipe” at the surface?

A

low D.O.

nitrite toxicity

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34
Q

what gas is usually of greatest concern during a supersaturation event?

A

nitrogen

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35
Q

which filter is a type of chemical filter?

sand filter, carbon, canister filter, under gravel filter, bead filter

A

carbon

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36
Q

what, in high levels, could cause methemoglobinemia in fish?

A

nitrite

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37
Q

what, in high levels, may be goitrogenic in some species of fish?

A

nitrate

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38
Q

which of the following is an example of a thin film reactor?

sponge filter, wet/dry filter, undergravel filter, fluidized bed, all of the above

A

fluidized bed

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39
Q

which one of the following is UV sterilization least effective at controlling (unless it is used at extremely high doses)?

Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Trichodina, Pseudomonas, Icthyophthirius

A

Icthyophthirius

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40
Q

pH decreases may be associated with which of the following changes in water quality parameters?

A

decreases in alkalinity and increases in CO2

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41
Q

chemical filtration is the type of filtration primarily responsible for the nitrogen cycle to occur

A

false

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42
Q

__________ ammonia is the most toxic form of ammonia

A

unionized

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43
Q

over time if a tank is maintained by simply “topping it off” rather than appropriate water change, the pH and total alkalinity will

A

decrease

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44
Q

a sponge film is an example of a thick film reactor

A

true

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45
Q

heterotrophic bacteria and thick film reactors are more desirable than autotrophic bacteria and thin film reactors and optimal nitrification

A

false

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46
Q

what methods can be used to maintain bicarbonate in a system

A

add sodium bicarbonate

agricultural limestome

water exchange

calcium carbonate

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47
Q

two methods for nitrate removal in a system

A

anaerobic denitrification in a system

uptake by plants

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48
Q

what two water quality parameters affect how much of the TAN is in the toxic form

A

higher pH and water temperatures favor the toxic form (NH3)

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49
Q

denitrification is an ______ process and requires a _______ source

A

aerobic

carbon

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50
Q

oxygen is ______ soluble in water while carbon dioxide is _____ soluble in water

A

poorly

highly

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51
Q

after dechloraminating, you must control for the left over ammonia

A

true

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52
Q

a ______ biofilm retention of autotrophic bacteria is desirable for optimal nitrification

A

high

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53
Q

what is the minimal quarantine time period for fish with no obvious health problems and no known diseases of concern?

A

30 d

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54
Q

deformation of gill cartilage, visible on wet mounts of gill tissue, may indicate what nutritional deficiency?

A

Vitamin C deficiency

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55
Q

deficiencies in what vitamins can result in anemia?

A

vitamins E and K

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56
Q

acute fish deaths in a system due to ozone toxicity (>500mV) would be most consisitent with what type of mortality event/curve?

A

Type I Mortality Event

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57
Q

which one of the following is usually the treatment of choice for leeches but is not routinely used in quarantine protocols?

A

organophosphates

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58
Q

foam fractionators only work in freshwater environments

A

false

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59
Q

aquatic species, such as corals, can recruit and utilize certain microbes to help fend off pathogens

A

true

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60
Q

crystal clear water is ideal for maintaining healthy fish

A

false

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61
Q

essential amino acids can be synthesized by the fish and do not need to be provided in the diet

A

false

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62
Q

biofilms will remain unchanged even as the surrounding environmental parameters change

A

false

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63
Q

name the 3 states of aquatic microbes

the majority of aquatic microbial cells are present in what phases?

A

planktonic, sessile, sessile particulate

majority are present in sessile and sessile particulate

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64
Q

factors that should be considered when deciding on amount of food that should be fed to fish

A

water temperature, water quality, health of fish, whether fish is “stressed” or not

65
Q

what is the cause of Nutritional Gill Disease

A

deficiency of Vitamine B4 or Pantothenic Acid

66
Q

which one of the following is a confirmed cause of HLLE lesions in Ocean Surgeonfish?

A

full-stream carbon filtration

67
Q

which one of the following can usually be diagnosed by use of an unstained external skin scrape?

Eimeria southwelli, Cryptobia iubilans, Mycobacteria, Lymphocystis, Hepatic lipidosis

A

Lymphocystis

68
Q

what disease dondiition is associated with causing hepatocellular carcinomas in Rainbow trout?

A

aflatoxicosis

69
Q

exposure to high environmental nitrate has been shown to cause changes in the thyroid gland of some sharks and can be attributed to what possible mech?

A

nitrate blocks the Sodium-idodide symporter and prevents the transport of iodide into the thyroid gland

70
Q

what are the primary causative agents for zoonotic infections in humans that develop from direct contact with fish?

A

bacteria

71
Q

goiter, while multifactorial, can occur due to a dietary deficiency of

A

iodine

72
Q

columnaris can’t be seen on a skin scrape

A

false

73
Q

skin, fin and gill diagnostic samples should be obtained prior to sedation in a calm fish whenever possible

A

true

74
Q

during necropsy of a saltwater fish, it is best to use freshwater for squash mounts of internal tissues

A

true

75
Q

before obtaining a blood sample from a live fish, you shoud clean the skin with alcohol to prevent bacterial contamination

A

false

76
Q

iodate is a bio-available form of iodine for use in thyroid hormone synthesis

A

false

77
Q

bamboo sharks seem highly sensitive to the formation of goiter

A

true

78
Q

there have been no confirmed human infections with fish viral agents

A

true

79
Q

most fish pathogens should be cultured at room temp rather than at the typical bacterial culture temrperatures for mammalian specimens

A

yes at 28*C not 37*C

80
Q

why is it preferable to take bx samples before sedating fish with MS-222?

A

the anesthetic can make parasites fall off so that you won’t have a representative diagnostic

81
Q

what are two methods or approaches for obtaining a coelomic wash from a cownose ray?

what disease are you usually screening for when performing this procedure?

A
  1. intracoelomic 2. coelomic pores

usually screening for Eimeria southwelli when doing a coelomic wash

82
Q

name causes for granulomas in fish

A
  • Mycobacteria*
  • Cryptobia iubilans*
  • Franciscella*

foreign bodies (parasites)

83
Q

praziquantel is most effective for the control of

A

neobenidinia

84
Q

what is most likely the safest and best choice for control of Ichthyophthirius multifiliis in channel catfish production ponds?

A

copper sulfate

85
Q

how many abx are legal and available for use in foodfish in the US at the present?

A

3

86
Q

chloroquin would be the tx of choice for which of the following parasites in a marine exhibit?

Laeches, Neobenedinia, Spironucleus, Amyloodinium, Gyrodactylids

A

Amylooodinium

87
Q

each 5 mg/L of Formalin added to a system removes ____ of ____ from the water

A

1 mg/L of oxygen

88
Q

the use of vaccines and biologics for animals in the USA is regulated by the

A

USDA

89
Q

what is the approximte amout of salt that you would need to add to a 2000 gal FW recirculating system in a pet store to create a concentration of 3 ppt?

A

23,000 g

90
Q

what is the approx amt of prazi that you would need to add to a 500 gal aquarium if you are treating with a dose of 5 ppm?

A

9.5 g

91
Q

potassium permanganate is for use in ________ only

A

freshwater

92
Q

there must be a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship for Extra Label use of medications

A

true

93
Q

avoid the use of anti-caking agents when selecting a type of salt because they may contain cyanide

A

true

94
Q

What is a Veterinary Feed Directive (VFD)?

What medication approved for use in aquaculture is a VFD?

What is the withdrawal time of this medication in catfish?

A

VFD is a category of drug that controls the use of drugs in animal feed, usually in regards to antimicrobials used in food animals and delivered in the animals’ food. It requires a valid relationship with a licensed vet.

Aquaflor (Florfenicol) is a Type A medicated feed approve for use in aquaculture.

the withdrawal time is 15 d in catfish

95
Q

which one of the following immersion anesthetics is less soluble in water and must be dissolved in ethanol or acetone?

tricaine-S, eugenol, isoeugenol, clove oil, benzocaine

A

benzocaine

96
Q

which one of the following should not be used alone as an anesthetic for surgical procedures in fish?

propofol, isoeugenol, tricaine-S, metomidate, benzocaine

A

metomidate

97
Q

Saprolgenia

A

oomycete that occurs only in freshwater and usually causes superficial damage to the skin or gills

98
Q

“Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome” is caused by what organism?

A

Aphanomyces invadens

99
Q

What would you use to treat Fusarium solani in bonnethead sharks?

A

Heater

100
Q

Veronaea botryosa infection in sturgeons is associated with

A

high levels of acute morts

101
Q

what Ichthyophthirius multifiliis life cycle is most susceptible to tx?

A

theront

102
Q

quinaldine is contraindicated for use in what species?

A

Large Mouth Bass

103
Q

concentrations of eugenol > ______ are contraindicated

A

30 mg/L

104
Q

low dose immersions of formalin have been used to treat parasitic infections in FW discus fish without adverse side effects

A

true

105
Q

the dose of MS-222 is usually _______ as salinity and water hardness _______

A

increased

increase

106
Q

Currently, what can be used to sedate fish in the wild for immediate release? What are the disadvantages?

A

carbon dioxide

causes rapid drop in blood pH, causes hypoxemia and cerebral hypoxia by decreasing the transport of oxygen to tissue, should not be used as an anesthetic for invasive or surgical procedures, slow acting, logistical difficulties

107
Q

common methods of humaely restraining and/or immobilizing sharks for examination at an aquarium facility

A

anesthesia

tonic-clonic (species-specific)

oxygen narcosis

behavioral/trained

manual (sling)

108
Q

Branchiomycosis is usually associated with warm water (> 68F)

A

true

109
Q

some cultured species, including tilapia, milkfish, and Chinese carp, appear to be resistant to Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome

A

true

110
Q

the dose of MS-222 is usually lowered as temperature increases

A

true

111
Q

Veronaea botryosa infection has zoonotic potential

A

true

112
Q

the treatment of choice for Spironucleus in freshwater angelfish is usually metronidazole

A

true

113
Q

which water quality parameter is most important to consider when treating FW fish with copper?

A

total alkalinity

114
Q

which one of the following mycotic infetions in fish is OIE reportable as of 2014?

A

Aphanomyces invadens

115
Q

praziquantel is most effective for the control of which one of the following parasitic diseases?

Ich, monogeneans, trichodina, capillaria, ergasilus

A

monogeneans

116
Q

which of the following is highly sensitive to Cu txs, even if used correctly and at the proper concentration?

channel catfish, clown fish, nurse sharks, moray eels, northern pike

A

nurse sharks

117
Q

Fusarium is of greatest concern in which of the following species:

tilapia, channel catfish, bonnet head sharks, koi, largemouth bass

A

bonnet head sharks

118
Q

If the total alkalinity is over 250 ppm, you do NOT use more than ____ ppm of copper sulfate

A

2.5

119
Q

what can be used as a bioindicator of degrading environmental conditions?

A

large numbers of Trichodina on gill or skin biopsies

120
Q

Ichthyophornus infects

A

a wide range of fish species throughout the world

121
Q

what parasitic organism causes “Proliferative Kidney Disease”, anemia and splenomegaly in rainbow trout?

A

Tetracapsuloides bryosalmonae

122
Q

what is the intermediate host for Myxobolus cerebralis?

A

Tubifex tubifex worm

123
Q

what is the infective stage of Amyloodinium and is most susceptible to treatment?

A

dinospore

124
Q

what parasitic disease is commonly associated with a mixed infection of gram negative bacteria (esp Aeromonas hydrophilia) causing red sore disease in pond-raised fish?

A

Epistylis

125
Q

Which one of the following parasitic organisms can cause renal hypertrophy and abdominal distension in pond-raised gold?

A

Hoferellus carassii

126
Q

what organism causes “Hamburger Gill Disease” or “Proliferative Gill Disease” in channel catfish causing pale, thickened “clubbed”, and broken gill lamellae?

A

Henneguya ictaluri

127
Q

what is the freshwater counterpart of Uronemia?

A

Tetrahymena

128
Q

piscinoodinium is classified as what type of group of parasites?

A

dinoflagellate

129
Q

Trichodina has a _______ life cycle.

A

direct

130
Q

actinospores are the infective stage of myxozoan parasites which are released from the invertebrate host and penetrate the epidermis or gill of the fish

A

true

131
Q

Spironucleus (hexamita) is commonly found in the GI tract of which one of the following fish?

LMB, channel catfish, discus, koi, triggerfish

A

discus

132
Q

amyloodinium is commonly found in which of the following tissues of clown fish?

A

gill

133
Q

Turbellarian infections (Paravoretx sp) are most commonly found on which one of the following fish species?

parrotfish, queen angelfish, rock beauty, yellow tang, blue tangs

A

yellow tang

134
Q

which one of the following parasites can be found on FW AND SW fish?

A

Trichodina

135
Q

Name 3 diseases or syndromes caused y Myxosporidians

A

Proliferative Gill Disease in channel catfish

Kidney Enlargement Disease in pond-raised goldfish

Whirling Disease in salmonids

136
Q

the causative organism of motile Aeromonas septicemia is most commonly a secondary or opportunistic invader

A

true

137
Q

what is the marine counterpart to Flavobacterium columnare?

A

Tenacibaculum maritimum

138
Q

what obligate intracellular bacterial disease is of concern in the Chilean salmon farming industry and may present grossly with anemia and internally with multifocal nodules and deressions in the liver?

A

Pisciirickettsia salmonis

139
Q

what is the primary cause of Enteric Septicemia and hole-in-head disease of catfish?

A

Edwardsiella ictaluri

140
Q

what is usually considered the most important determinant of pathogenicity for Koi Herpesvirus?

A

water temperature

141
Q

what disease do you suspect when you identify long, thin rods with a flexing and gliding motion forming “haystacks” on a skin scrape of a warm water freshwater fish?

A

columnaris

142
Q

what is the cause of Emphysematous Putrefactive Disease of catfish?

A

Edwardsiella tarda

143
Q

what is the cause of Bacterial Kidney Disease in cultured salmonids?

A

Renibacterium salmoninarium

144
Q

what organism causes “Bacterial Gill Disease” resulting in hyperplasia, deformity and adhesions of the gill lamellae in young cultured freshwater salmonids?

A

Flavobacterium branchiophilum

145
Q

what disease causes abnormal swimming, hyperinflation of the swim bladder and vacuolation of the CNS in larval marine fish?

A

Betanodavirus

146
Q

Viral Hemorrhagic Septicemia Virus is in the ___________ family

A

Rhabdoviridae

147
Q

what is the most common clinical sign associated with infection of koi with KHV?

A

gill rot (gill necrosis)

148
Q

which one of the following viral diseases can you obtain a presumptive diagnosis simply by observing hypertrophy of dermal fibroblasts on a wet mount?

SVC, lymphocystis, Viral Nervous Necrosis, Channel Catfish Virus, Carp Pox

A

Lymphocystis

149
Q

what media would you select to isolate Flavobacterium columnare?

A

Ordal’s media

150
Q

which one of the following fish pathogens is a gram positive bacterium?

Flavobacterium, Vibrosis, Streptococcus, Piscirickettsia, Aeromonas

A

Streptococcus

151
Q

carp pox is caused by a herpesvirus and dose not usually result in mortality of affect fish

A

true

152
Q

channel catfish virus is caused by a herpesvirus and most deaths occur in _______ months when fish are _________

A

summer

< 6 in, young/small fish

153
Q

erratic swimming, spinning and skin hemorrhage are clinical signs consistent with a diagnosis of Streptococcus

A

true

154
Q

betanodaviral infections in fish target the

A

CNS and eye

155
Q

Vibriosis mainly infects _________ fish, but also can infect _________.

A

saltwater

freshwater

156
Q

Edwarsiella ictaluri can infect fish either by entering through the nasal cavity or by ingestion

A

true

157
Q

when present in biofilms, Mycobacteria are much more resistant to disinfection.

A

true

158
Q

japanese eels are particularly sensitive to Edwardsiella tarda infections

A

true

159
Q

Red Seabream Iridovirus causes disease in ________

A

Red Seabream and 30+ cultured marine fish species

TAL (6 decks)

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