DVT/PE Flashcards

1
Q

If a patient has a low clinical likelihood of DVT, what is the next step?
A) Perform an imaging test.
B) Measure D-dimer levels.
C) Diagnose as “No DVT.”
D) Refer for specialist evaluation.

A

Measure D-dimer levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If the D-dimer result is normal in a patient with low clinical likelihood of DVT, what is the diagnosis?
A) Imaging test needed.
B) No DVT.
C) Possible PE.
D) Repeat clinical assessment.

A

No DVT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What should you do if a patient has a high D-dimer result and a low clinical likelihood of DVT?
A) Perform an imaging test.
B) Diagnose as “No DVT.”
C) Prescribe anticoagulation therapy.
D) Refer for surgery.

A

Perform an imaging test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

For PE, what is the next step if the clinical likelihood is not high?
A) Measure D-dimer levels.
B) Order imaging tests.
C) Diagnose as “No PE.”
D) Start anticoagulation treatment immediately.

A

Measure D-dimer levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In a patient with a high clinical likelihood of PE, what is the appropriate next step?
A) Perform imaging tests.
B) Measure D-dimer levels.
C) Rule out PE based on symptoms.
D) Monitor without intervention.

A

Perform imaging tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common genetic mutation associated with venous thromboembolism (VTE)?
A) Factor V Leiden
B) Prothrombin gene mutation
C) Protein C deficiency
D) Both A and B

A

Both A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which naturally occurring coagulation inhibitors are associated with VTE when deficient?
A) Protein C, protein S, and antithrombin
B) Factor V, protein C, and fibrin
C) Prothrombin, fibrinogen, and protein S
D) Antithrombin, fibrinogen, and plasmin

A

Protein C, protein S, and antithrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is NOT a clinical risk factor for VTE?
A) Estrogen-containing contraceptives
B) Long-haul air travel
C) High-protein diet
D) Obesity

A

High-protein diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What increased likelihood of fatal PE is associated with every additional 2 hours of daily television watching?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 40%
D) 50%

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the MOST COMMON gas exchange abnormality in PE?
A) Decreased pulmonary compliance
B) Increased alveolar-arterial O2 tension gradient
C) Increased physiologic dead space
D) Alveolar hyperventilation

A

Increased alveolar-arterial O2 tension gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common symptom of DVT?
A) Unexplained breathlessness
B) Persistent lower calf cramp (“charley horse”)
C) Chest pain
D) Cyanosis

A

Persistent lower calf cramp (“charley horse”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the primary diagnostic imaging modality for PE?
A) Lung scanning
B) Venous ultrasonography
C) Chest CT scan with intravenous contrast
D) Chest X-ray

A

Chest CT scan with intravenous contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which chest X-ray sign is associated with PE?
A) McConnell’s sign
B) Westermark’s sign
C) Rouleaux formation
D) Hampton’s hump

A

Westermark’s sign and D) Hampton’s hump (both are correct)

* Westermark’s sign - Focal oligemia
* Hampton’s hump - a peripheral wedge-shaped density usually located at the pleural base
* Palla’s sign - an enlarged right descending pulmonary artery 
* McConnell’s sign -  best-known indirect sign of PE on transthoracic echocardiography
    * hypokinesis of the RV free wall with normal or hyperkinetic motion of the RV apex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following medications requires laboratory monitoring?
A) Fondaparinux
B) Warfarin
C) Rivaroxaban
D) Apixaban

A

Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the first-line vasopressor for treating PE-related shock?
A) Dobutamine
B) Dopamine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Epinephrine

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common symptom of pulmonary embolism?
A) Chest pain
B) Hemoptysis
C) Unexplained breathlessness
D) Fever

A

Unexplained breathlessness

17
Q

Which ECG finding is most commonly cited in PE, in addition to sinus tachycardia?
A) S1Q3T3 sign
B) ST-segment elevation in lead II
C) Prolonged QT interval
D) Left bundle branch block

A

S1Q3T3 sign

18
Q

What is the target INR for patients treated with warfarin for VTE?
A) 1.0–2.0
B) 2.0–3.0
C) 3.0–4.0
D) 4.0–5.0

A

2.0–3.0

19
Q

What antidote is used for dabigatran-associated bleeding?
A) Protamine sulfate
B) Idarucizumab
C) Andexanet
D) Vitamin K

A

Idarucizumab

20
Q

What is the standard dose of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) for PE thrombolysis?
A) 50 mg over 1 hour
B) 100 mg over 2 hours
C) 25 mg over 4 hours
D) 10 mg bolus followed by infusion

A

100 mg over 2 hours

21
Q

A 62-year-old female presents to the hospital with an acute upper gastrointestinal bleed, and anticoagulation therapy is immediately stopped. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) but cannot receive anticoagulation due to the active bleeding. What is the most appropriate management step to prevent a pulmonary embolism (PE) in this patient?

A) Administer intravenous heparin
B) Insert an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter
C) Start low molecular weight heparin
D) Perform a thrombectomy

A

Insert an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter

**Two principal indications for insertion of an IVC filter:
1. active bleeding that precludes anticoagulation
2. recurrent venous thrombosis despite intensive anticoagulation