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FIRST AID > DRUGs miscellaneous > Flashcards

DRUGs miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

what drug is a pyrophosphate analog and what does it treat?

A

foscarnet and it treats CMV and HIV because it inhibits both DNA polymerase in herpes and Reverse transcriptase in HIV. It does not need intracellular activation. This drug is also good to give if the patient already suffers from thrombocytopenia

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2
Q

What drug is a guanine nucleoside analogue used for CMV retinitis but requires intracellular conversion?

A

ganciclovir

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3
Q

What drug is a nucleoside analog that needs to be converted to a triphosphate form intracellular to work against herpes dna polymerase?

A

acyclovir

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4
Q

What drug is a cytosine analog, and Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor ?

A

Lamuvidine

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5
Q

What drug does not need intracellular activation, is a siliac acid analogue and inhibitor of neuroaminidase?

A

oseltamivir for influenza A and B

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6
Q

What drug inhibits the nonstructural protein NS5B an RNA dependent RNA polymerase needed for hepatic C virus replication that requires intracellular activation?

A

sofosbuvir

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7
Q

What drugs can commonly cause gout?

A

diuretics like furosemide hydrochlorothiazide

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8
Q

What is the 1st line for syphillis?

A

penicillin G benzathine

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9
Q

Vitamin K gamma carboxylation is respobsible for what factors?

A

10,9,7,2 and protein C and S

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10
Q

what can inhibit Vitamin K gamma carboxylation?

A

warfarin

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11
Q

What drug is an endothelin antagonist used for pulmonary arterial hypertension?

A

bosentan

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12
Q

patient has TB and takes a drug that caused neurotoxicty what vitamin do you give patient?

A

pyridoxine (B6)

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13
Q

what Tb drug stops acid-fastness?

A

isoniazid- mycolic acid inhibitor

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14
Q

What TB drug acts by halting DNA depenent RNA polymerase, causing a halting of bacterial protein synthesis?

A

Rifampin

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15
Q

What are the AE of rifampin?

A

GI effect, rash, red orange body fluids, cytopenia

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16
Q

What TB drug causes inhibition of arabinosyl transferase and the AE is optic neuropathy?

A

ethambutol

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17
Q

What drug is a cardiac glycoside used to treat A-fib and systolic HF?

A

digoxin

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18
Q

How is digoxin cleared and how does this effect how it is used?

A

renal, reduce dose in elderly because of a renal decrease in clearance due to aging

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19
Q

What are the AE of digoxin?

A

Gi issues and yellow vision

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20
Q

what is the purpose of giving both primaquine and chloroquine to someone with P.Vivax or Ovale?

A

chloroquine- intraerythrocyte stage

primaquine- dormant hepatic stage to ensure eradication and prevent relapse

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21
Q

drugs that cause hemorrhagic cystitis

A

cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide

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22
Q

what treats hemorrhagic cystitis due to cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide

A

mesna ( a sulfhydral that binds to toxin acrolein), aggressive hydration, bladder irrigation

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23
Q

What drug is an antagonist of neprilysin and increases ANP and BNP?

A

sacubitril..

this is beneficial for HF because it promotes natuiresis ( release of sodium and water), and increases vasodilation

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24
Q

what is the purpose of giving both primaquine and chloroquine to someone with P.Vivax or Ovale?

A

chloroquine- intraerythrocyte stage

primaquine- dormant hepatic stage to ensure eradication and prevent relapse

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25
Q

Pt has meningitis with tumbling motility high lymphocytes and gram + rod what is the best treatment?

A

ampicillin/ listeria meningitis

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26
Q

Treatment for cryptococcus neoformans meningitis?

A

amphothecerin B and fluconazole

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27
Q

inhibits integration of viral DNA into host genome via integrase

A

raltegravir

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28
Q

what opioid can precipitate withdrawal in long-term opioid users?

A

buprenorphine ( opioid partial agonist)

acts as antagonist when other opioids are present

29
Q

what opioid can precipitate withdrawal in long-term opioid users?

A

buprenorphine ( opioid partial agonist)

acts as antagonist when other opioids are present

30
Q

what drug treats post-menopausal osteoporosis?

A

raloxifene

31
Q

Warfarin is used to treat atrial fibrillation, DVT, and pulmonary thromboembolism. AKA it is a long term anti-coagulant it inhibits the carboxylation of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors 10,9,7,2 protein C and S. what should be monitored when taking this treatment?

A

PT and INR

32
Q

what is monitored when treating with UFH

A

APTT

33
Q

______ should be used as emergency use against warfarin bleeding complication

A

Fresh frozen plasma if not emergency Vit K

34
Q

______ should be used as emergency use against warfarin bleeding complication

A

Fresh frozen plasma if not emergency Vit K

35
Q

What drug inhibits topoisomerase II/ DNA gyrase responsible for the negative supercoils done in DNA unwinding?

A

fluoroquinolone, ciprofloxacin “ floxacins”

36
Q

which NSAID is less likely to cause GI toxicity?

A

celecoxib because it only inhibits COX2, and COX1 and 2 are inhibited by ibuprofen, indomethacin, and naproxen.

COX1 has GI mucousal protectivity

COX 1 (constitutive)- GI mucous protection, increase renal percussion, platelet aggregation.
COX2 ( inducible)- vasodilaiton
37
Q

______ should be used as emergency use against warfarin bleeding complication

A

Fresh frozen plasma if not emergency Vit K

38
Q

what is the AE of loop diuretics?

A

hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, ototoxicity, and cause metabolic alkalosis

39
Q

which NSAID is less likely to cause GI toxicity?

A

celecoxib because it only inhibits COX2, and COX1 and 2 are inhibited by ibuprofen, indomethacin, and naproxen.

COX1 has GI mucousal protectivity

40
Q

What do you prescribe for a 3 Hz spike wave, absence seizure?

A

ethosuxomide

41
Q

what is the AE of loop diuretics?

A

hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, ototoxicity, and cause metabolic alkalosis

42
Q

what is a function of mannitol ? and AE?

A

decreases cerebral edema, and can cause pulmonary edema and HF. it decreases sodium and water reabsorption by PCT

43
Q

Drug used to treat bradycardia with acute chest pain diaphoresis and nausea?

A

atropine ( anticholinergic)

AE- mydriasis, narrowing of anterior chamber, diminished aqueous humor, can cause angle closure glaucoma ( unilateral eye pain plus halos)

44
Q

What drug instead of methimazole must you give pregnant woman their first trimester if they have hyperthyroidism?

A

PTU ( they both inhibit TPO but PTU also inhibits peripheral conversation of T4-T3)

45
Q

drug used for lice

A

permethrin and ivermectin

46
Q

Drug used to treat bradycardia with acute chest pain diaphoresis and nausea?

A

atropine ( anticholinergic)

AE- mydriasis, narrowing of anterior chamber, diminished aqueous humor, can cause angle closure glaucoma ( unilateral eye pain plus halos)

47
Q

What drug is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor used for patient with Peripheral vascular disease that has pain walking?

what should be given in unison to prevent coronary heart disease and stroke?

A

cilostazol ( it reduces platelet aggregation and vasodilator) decreases claudication symptoms

aspirin or clopidogrel ( anti platelet)

48
Q

drug used for lice

A

permethrin and ivermectin

49
Q

Drug to close PDA

A

indomethacin

50
Q

drug to treat cyanotic baby before surgery?

A

prostaglandins

51
Q

bile acid sequestrates, decrease enterohepatic circulation of bile acids, aka liver pulls cholesterol out of blood to convert it to more bile acid decreases serum LDL

A

colestipol, cholestyramine, colesvelam

52
Q

inhibits absorption of cholesterol through the small bowel wall at brush border

A

ezetimibe

53
Q

upregulated lipoprotein lipase and decreased VLDL, increasing TGA clearance out of blood, activate PARR, decreases recurrent risk of pancreatitis, and increase HDL ( for elevated triglycerides and LDL)

A

fibrates, gemfibrozil fenofibrates

54
Q

reversible inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase, increase of LDL receptors

A

statins ( increase HMG coa Mrna synthesis)

55
Q

pancreatic lipase inhibitor

A

orlistat ( treats obesity)

AE fat soluble vitamin def and steatorrhea

56
Q

PCSK9 inhibitors, enzyme breaks down LDL receptors

A

evolocumab and alirocumab

57
Q

digoxin tox treatment

A

normalize potassium ( it is low), give anti-digoxin Fab fragments, give Mg

58
Q

Tx for beta blocker overdose

A

glucagon

59
Q

patient has confusion after sodium nitropruisde was administered what was caysed

A

cyanide toxicity

60
Q

dopamine 1 receptor agonist that dilates both afferent and efferent arterioles to maintain renal perfusion in hypertensive emergency

A

fenoldopam

61
Q

Furosemide is used to unload fluid in pts with dyspnea in HF or peripheral edema what is used if that didnt work?

A

spironolactone

62
Q

for HF what is the order of meds?

A

ace inh, beta blocker then spironolactone

63
Q

what is an AE of the NSAID naproxen?

A

fluid retention/edema due to renal retention of sodium

64
Q

how to treat a fib

A

rate control first then rhythm,
rate- beta blocker or verapamil ( if beta needs to be avoided)

rhythm- flecainide ( or amiodarone)

65
Q

AE of fibrates

A

cholesterol gallstones. Elevations in liver enzymes from hepatotoxicity and myositis are also possible adverse effects.

66
Q

what are the two things beta blockers do that benefit hypertension

A

reduce myocardial contractility and HR and inhibit renin release

67
Q

what antiarrhythmics affect the PR interval?

A

beta blockers and calcium channel blockers+ amiodarone

68
Q

which antiarrhythmics affect qrs interval?

A

sodium channel blockers + amiodarone except lidocaine

69
Q

which antiarrhythmics affect QT interval

A

K+ channel inhibitors ( dofetilide, sotalol + amiodarone

FIRST AID (4 decks)

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