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NCLEX > Drugs and Stuff > Flashcards

Drugs and Stuff Flashcards

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1
Q

imipramine

A

Antidepressant and nerve pain medication

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2
Q

Naloxone

A

narcotic antidote

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3
Q

Disulfiram

A

Alcoholism medication

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4
Q

Pyrazinamide

A

treats TB

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5
Q

Removing PPE 4 steps:

A
  1. Gloves
  2. Eyes
  3. Gown
  4. Mask
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6
Q

Doxepin HCL

A

antidepressant

watch for excitability and tremors

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7
Q

What diet for carbidopa-levodopa?

A

low protein

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8
Q

Meningitis should be in private room/droplet precautions until __

A

24 hrs after initiation of effective therapy

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9
Q

Sucralfate

A

short-term treatment for duodenal ulcer

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10
Q

A client receives packed RBCs. Several minutes after infusion is started, client reports nausea and low back pain. It’s most important for nurse to take which action?

A

obtain urine specimen

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11
Q

3 main lab values for nutritional assessment

A

HGB, HCT, albumin

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12
Q

What diet for constipation, large bowel disorders?

A

High-roughage, high fiber

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13
Q

Imipramine

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

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14
Q

Methimazole

A

antithyroid agent

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15
Q

Metformin should be held for ___hours prior to tomography with contrast media

A

48

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16
Q

No thrombolytic therapy if

A

trauma within last 2 months or significant head injury within past 3 months

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17
Q

Atenolol

A

beta blocker

used to treat HTN and angina

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18
Q

30 large squares on EKG = ___ seconds

A

6 seconds

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19
Q

With or without meals: acyclovir

A

with

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20
Q

PKU diet:

A

Lofenalac

low-protein for kids

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21
Q

Cytoprotective agents (Sucralfate) should be given when in relation to meals?

A

1 hr before

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22
Q

If client is having trouble breathing because trach tube has been dislodged, initial action is to

A

extend clients neck

then:
call for help
place supine
check breath sounds
use hemostat to open airway
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23
Q

If a client is getting a cardiac cath in their femoral artery/vein, which pulses do you check?

A

pedal

check the pulse that’s distal to the puncture site

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24
Q

What kind of pain med is ok for hemophilia A patients?

A

Percocet (oxy w/acetaminophen)

Codeine phosphate for school age kids

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25
Q

With or without meals: sucralfate

A

without (or before/after)

separate 2 hours with digoxin

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26
Q

Eye drops: OU means to put in ___

A

both eyes

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27
Q

what is the drug of choice for Tic douloureaux/trigeminal neuralgia?

A

carbamezapine

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28
Q

2 main early signs of hypovolemic shock:

A

cool, clammy skin

tachypnea

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29
Q

After amputation, expose residual limb to air daily and inspect skin daily – only elevate for

A

first 24 hours

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30
Q

Acute kidney injury, priority is to check

A

urine specific gravity

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31
Q

anterior fontanel closes at

A

18 months

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32
Q

If PN is running low and new solution not readily available, what do you use?

A

10% dextrose and water

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33
Q

Levothyroxine

A

hormone to treat hypothyroidism

take in morning to prevent insomnia

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34
Q

Should a woman bottle feeding newborn do warm showers?

A

no

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35
Q

NO grapefruit juice

A

Statins

Calcium channel blockers (nifedipine, verapamil, amlodipine)

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36
Q

Eye drops: OD means to put in the ___

A

right eye

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37
Q

Risperidone

A

antipsychotic

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38
Q

No aspirin for

A

kids, clients with concussion, pregnancy, GERD/ulcer people

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39
Q

Normal ESR range =

A

0-20mm/hr

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40
Q

If pH is low and PaCO2 is high =

A

respiratory acidosis

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41
Q

Flail chest: affected side goes __ with inspiration and ___ with expiration

A

down with I

up with E

opposite of normal

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42
Q

When is chickenpox contagious?

A

1 day before eruption of lesions until 6 days after rash disappears

Isolation until all vesicles are crusted

NO ASPIRIN

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43
Q

Phenelzine sulfate

A

MAO inhibitor

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44
Q

High bicarb (HCO3), high ph =

A

metabolic alkalosis (prolonged vomiting)

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45
Q

Phenelzine

A

MAOI

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46
Q

What diet for HTN, heart failure, cirrhosis

A

sodium restricted (no milk!)

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47
Q

Droplet precautions

A

private room
maintain separation of 3 feet
Wear mask
Door can be open

“Spiderman”

S: sepsis, scarlet fever, strep
P: pertussis, pneumonia
I: influenza
D: Diphtheria
E: epiglottis (croup)
R: Rubella
M: mumps and meningitis
AN: Adenovirus
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48
Q

Flu vaccine can be started at ___ months

A

6

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49
Q

cranial nerve VI

A

abducens (lateral movement of eyes)

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50
Q

If chest tube becomes dislodged from client, apply

A

tented dressing on one side

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51
Q

Isotonic fluids:

A

LR or NS

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52
Q

When do you give Sucralfate in relation to meals?

A

1 hour before or 2 hours after

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53
Q

What diet for acute or chronic kidney disease?

A

low protein
low potassium
low sodium

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54
Q

1 cause of chronic kidney disease

A

HTN

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55
Q

Hypertonic fluids

A

D5NS
D5LR
D51/2NS

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56
Q

Always start blood transfusion with

A

normal saline

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57
Q

Cisplatin

A

antineoplastic

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58
Q

With or without meals: beta blockers

A

with

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59
Q

EDT 20-35 years (young adulthood)

A

intimacy vs. isolation

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60
Q

With or without meals: tetracycline

A

without (or before/after)

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61
Q

cranial nerve V

A

trigeminal (jaw movement and sensation on face – pin and cotton ball)

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62
Q

Heart sound landmark: Pulmonic

A

2nd ICS, left sternal border

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63
Q

If pH is high and PaCO2 is low =

A

respiratory alkalosis (hyperventilating like asthma attack)

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64
Q

Morning or bedtime? levothyroxine, liothyronine

A

morning

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65
Q

EDT 6-12 years (school age)

A

industry vs. inferiority

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66
Q

Initial rate of PN infusion should be ___mL/hr then gradually increased to ___mL/hr

A

50

100-105

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67
Q

Cromolyn sodium

A

bronchodilator

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68
Q

Nuchel rigidity and photophobia = ___ precautions

A

droplet precautions

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69
Q

Which information is essential for nurse to gather before administering IV potassium supplement to 85 y/o?

A

adequacy of urine output

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70
Q

What blood type is universal donor?

A

O

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71
Q

terbutaline

A

leukotriene-receptor blocker (works as bronchodilator)

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72
Q

With or without meals: estrogen

A

without (or before/after)

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73
Q

For client with tracheostomy and on humidified oxygen, suction should be set at

A

80-120 mm hg

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74
Q

Morning or bedtime? cyclosporine

A

morning

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75
Q

Heart sound landmark: Mitral

A

5th ICS, left mid-clavicular line

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76
Q

Hypotonic fluids:

A

0.45% saline or D5W

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77
Q

Sequence for physical assessment (4 steps) - everywhere except abdomen

A
  1. Inspection
  2. Palpation
  3. Percussion
  4. Auscultation
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78
Q

Morning or bedtime? alendronate, risedronate, ibandronate

A

morning

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79
Q

cranial nerve VII

A

facial

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80
Q

Morning or bedtime? prenatal vitamins

A

bedtime

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81
Q

Paracentesis – need what tool?

A

BP cuff

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82
Q

Which inhaler do you use first: bronchodilator or steroid?

A

bronchodilator BEFORE steroid

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83
Q

Aminophylline

A

leukotriene-receptor blocker (works as bronchodilator)

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84
Q

EDT 1-3 years (toddler)

A

autonomy vs shame/doubt

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85
Q

Didanosine

A

antiviral

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86
Q

1 L fluid = __ kg = __ lbs

A

1 kg, 2.2 lbs

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87
Q

In Buck’s traction, weight should

A

hang freely at all times

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88
Q

Stage 3 of labor

A

birth to delivery of placenta

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89
Q

With or without meals: cipro

A

without (or before/after)

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90
Q

Stage 1 of labor

A

beginning of labor to full dilation (10cm)

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91
Q

IPV (inactivated polio) immunization schedule - 4 doses

A

2 months
4 months
6-18 months
4-6 years

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92
Q

Hepatitis diet

A

low fat

high calorie, carbs, protein

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93
Q

What diet for atherosclerosis, cystic fibrosis?

A

low-fat, cholesterol restricted
CF: high protein
high calorie

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94
Q

What diuretic is the only one that’s potassium sparing?

A

spironolactone

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95
Q

cranial nerve X

A

vagus (swallowing, speaking)

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96
Q

Use what kind of precautions for Hep A?

A

standard and contact

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97
Q

Where is the radial pulse palpated?

A

Along the thumb side of the inner wrist

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98
Q

fluid volume overload (3)

A

cool skin
resp crackles
pulse 86 and bounding

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99
Q

2 main signs of cardiovascular fluid overload

A

rales and tachycardia

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100
Q

With or without meals: diuretics

A

with

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101
Q

rifampin

A

antibiotic

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102
Q

Enlapril

A

ace inhibitor

remember the first dose of ace inhibitors increases risk of orthostatic hypotension, so no diuretics (i.e. furosemide) in combination

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103
Q

Radioactive iodine

A

antithyroid agent

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104
Q

Sertraline

A

SSRI

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105
Q

Hep A is contagious until

A

1 week after clinical symptoms arise

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106
Q

Allopurinol

A

inhibits production of uric acid

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107
Q

Fundal height at 20 weeks

A

at umbilicus or 20 cm

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108
Q

Effects of aminophylline include (5)

A 
nervousness
nausea
dizziness
tachycardia
seizures
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109
Q

Station: negative numbers are __, positive numbers are ___ ischial spine (0)

A

negative means ABOVE ischial spine

positive means BELOW ischial spine

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110
Q

2 main symptoms of aspirin OD:

A

tinnitus and GI distress

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111
Q

Acyclovir

A

antiviral used to treat herpes

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112
Q

Early signs of lithium toxicity

A
  • fine motor tremors
  • N/V
  • diarrhea
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113
Q

With or without meals: morphine sulfate

A

without (or before/after)

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114
Q

wet-to-dry dressing 5 steps:

A
  1. free dressing
  2. dry skin surrounding wound
  3. moisten clean gauze and wring out excess liquid
  4. apply wet gauze as single layer
  5. apply dry dressings
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115
Q

Chlorpromazine

A

Antipsychotic

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116
Q

Propylthiouracil

A

antithyroid agent

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117
Q

Digoxin therapeutic level

A

0.5-2.0

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118
Q

Prednisone/glucocorticoids/steroids affects (7)

A
  • Osteoporosis
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypernatremia
  • Fluid retention
  • Hyperglycemia and glycosuria
  • Increased risk of cataracts and glaucoma
  • Depressed immune response but not low WBC
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119
Q

Right-sided heart failure 3 main symptoms

A
  1. Dependent edema
  2. Distended jugular veins
  3. Weight gain
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120
Q

Diuretics S/E (5)

A 
dizziness
orthostatic hypotension
leukopenia
hypokalemia (except spironolactone)
thirst, dry mouth
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121
Q

PN tolerance is assessed by what 2 metrics?

A

urine output and blood glucose levels

122
Q

Morning or bedtime? prazosin, doxazosin

A

bedtime

123
Q

Morning or bedtime? oral steroids

A

morning

124
Q

Glipizide

A

Antidiabetic

for type 2

125
Q

Aminophylline

A

xanthine bronchodilator

126
Q

Total recommended weight gain for pregnancy

A

24-28 lbs

127
Q

With or without meals: ace inhibitors (captopril)

A

without (or before/after)

128
Q

Short-acting (regular) insulin onset and peak

A

Onset: 30-60 minutes

Peak: 1-5 hours

129
Q

cranial nerve XII

A

hypoglossal (tongue movements)

130
Q

3 main symptoms of heat stroke

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Tachypnea
  3. Tachycardia
131
Q

Elevated ASO titer indicates

A

glomerulonephritis

132
Q

Antacids should be given when in relation to meals?

A

1 hour before or 1 hour after

133
Q

Gerd patients should sleep on

A

left side with hob elevated 12 inches

134
Q

Rotavirus immunization schedule - 2 doses

A

2 months

4 months

135
Q

After 20 weeks, fundal height rises from umbilicus ___ cm/week until 36 weeks

A

1 cm

136
Q

Fluvoxamine

A

SSRI

treats OCD

137
Q

cranial nerve XI

A

spinal accessory (rotation of head, shoulders)

138
Q

Lithium therapeutic level

A

1.0-1.5

139
Q

Sign that salem sump tube (NG) is functioning effectively

A

hissing sound from blue lumen tube

140
Q

propranolol hydrochloride

A

beta-blocker

tx tremors, angina, HTN

141
Q

BUN of 35 and serum creatinine of 2.5 indicate

A

chronic kidney disease

142
Q

When caring for client over 65, most reliable sign of infection is

A

tachypnea

(and tachycardia and confusion) – not fever

143
Q

with IV potassium, do not give more than ___ mEq/L into peripheral IV. and always do what first?

A

no more than 40

cardiac monitor first

144
Q

Disseminated herpes zoster requires what precautions?

A

airborne and contact

145
Q

Amitryptyline

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

146
Q

most likely symptom of Hep A in children:

A

anorexia

147
Q

Heart sound landmark: Erb’s point

A

3rd ICS, left sternal border

148
Q

Famotidine

A

tx duodenal ulcer

149
Q

Early sign of increased ICP is

A

diminished LOC

150
Q

Trazodone

A

Heterocyclic antidepressant

151
Q

HIV positive patient can sometimes show ___ reaction to Mantoux test

A

false-negative

152
Q

Ethacrynic acid

A

Loop diuretic

153
Q

Isocarboxazid

A

MAOI

154
Q

Long-acting insulin (glargine) onset and peak

A

Onset: 3-4 hours

No peak, lasts 24 hrs

155
Q

Trifluoperazine

A

antipsychotic

156
Q

Sulindac

A

NSAID (anti-inflammatory)

157
Q

Cholecystitis, cholelithiasis

A

inflammation of gall bladder

formation of gall stones

158
Q

Morning or bedtime? ADHD (methylphenidate, dextroamphenatmine)

A

morning

159
Q

APGAR 5 categories, 2 points each:

A 
HR
Color
Muscle tone
Respiratory effort
Reflex irritability
160
Q

Butorphanol tartrate

A

narcotic pain relief (similar to morphine)

161
Q

Fundal height at 12-14 weeks

A

above symphysis

162
Q

cranial nerve IX

A

glossopharyngeal (swallowing and taste)

163
Q

With or without meals: ferrous sulfate/iron dextran

A

without (or before/after)

164
Q

Take with OJ (3)

A

furosemide and digoxin
iron supplements
prenatal vitamins

165
Q

Heart sound landmark: Aortic

A

2nd ICS, right sternal border

166
Q

During transitional phase of labor, if umbilical cord becomes prolapsed, it’s most important to put client in what position?

A

supine with foot of bed elevated

167
Q

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

A

given to treat hyperkalemia

168
Q

Stage 2 of labor

A

complete dilation to birth

169
Q

Heparin antidote

A

protamine sulfate

170
Q

Morning or bedtime? imipramine

A

morning

171
Q

Magnesium sulfate

A

treats preeclampsia

172
Q

Lugol’s solution

A

antithyroid agent

173
Q

Morning or bedtime? SSRIs

A

morning

174
Q

With or without meals: cephalosporins

A

with

175
Q

Pentamidine isethionate

A

antiprotozoal agent to prevent/treat a certain kind of pneumonia common in AIDS patients

176
Q

Montelukast sodium

A

bronchodilator

177
Q

With or without meals: penicillin

A

without (or before/after)

178
Q

With or without meals: antithyroid agents (PKU, metrimazole)

A

with

179
Q

Sodium and lithium

A

Need to maintain adequate levels of sodium – do not restrict sodium

180
Q

Clozapine

A

Antipsychotic

181
Q

___ is best indication of pain relief

A

nonverbal cues

182
Q

Where is the femoral pulse palpated?

A

Below the inguinal ligament, midway between symphysis pubis and anterosuperior iliac spine

183
Q

What blood type is universal recipient?

A

AB

184
Q

Liver disease diet (high AST and ALT)

A

increased carbs, low protein, low sodium

185
Q

Prednisone

A

steroid

should be increased before surgery

186
Q

Renal impairment symptoms (6)

A 
Elevated bun and creatinine
Oliguria
Edema
Fatigue
Altered electrolytes
Decreased HCT
187
Q

With or without meals: oral steroids (prednisone, fludrocortisone)

A

with

188
Q

Superficial partial thickness burns

A

pink to red, painful

189
Q

pneumothorax

A

think tachypnea –> rapid respirations

190
Q

Morning or bedtime? glargine (lantus)

A

bedtime

191
Q

Priority nursing action for patient with cushion’s:

A

prevent fluid overload

192
Q

2 Early effects of dig toxicity are

A

nausea and vomiting

193
Q

What diet for burns, infection, hyperthyroidism?

A

high protein diet

194
Q

EDT 35-65 years (middle adulthood)

A

generatively vs stagnation

195
Q

Iron dextran

A

tx iron-deficiency anemia

196
Q

Oxycodone is contraindicated for patient with ___

A

bleeding disorders

197
Q

If watery diarrhea after 7 days of antibiotic therapy, think

A

c. diff

198
Q

Which is a higher priority in blood transfusion reactions: hemolytic or allergic/sensitivity

A

hemolytic

vomiting***

199
Q

With or without meals: anti platelets (clopidogrel, plavix, aspirin, dipyridamole)

A

with

200
Q

Chlorothiazide

A

thiazide diuretic

201
Q

Contact precautions

A

Gloves and gown when entering, and take off before leaving room
Private room

“Mrs. Wee”

M: MRSA/multidrug resistant organism
R: RSV
S: Scabies

W: wound infections
E: Enteric (C. diff)
E: Eye infection - conjunctivitis

202
Q

PPIs like Omeprazole, Lansoprazole should be given when?

A

bedtime

203
Q

MMR + Varicella immunization schedule - 2 doses

A

12-15 months

4-6 years

204
Q

Clomiphene citrate

A

induces ovulation

205
Q

With or without meals: gemfibrozil

A

without (or before/after)

206
Q

Furosemide

A

diuretic

207
Q

Hydroxyzine

A

antihistamine

208
Q

Heart sound landmark: Tricuspid

A

5th ICS, left sternal border

209
Q

HPV and Meningococcal vaccines start at ___ years

A

11-12

210
Q

What is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock?

A

epinephrine

211
Q

Deep full thickness burns

A

black, painless

212
Q

After surgery, you should notify the provider if the patient is unable to void within ___ hours

A

8

213
Q

Dexamethasone

A

steroid

214
Q

Eye drops: OS means to put in the ___

A

left eye

215
Q

Probenecid

A

prevents reoccurrence of gouty arthritis

Uric acid reducer

216
Q

For a cuffed tracheostomy, cuff pressure should always be LESS THAN ___mm Hg

A

20

217
Q

Airborne precautions

A

Private room
negative air pressure
Keep door closed
N-95 mask

“My chick hez TB”

Measles
Chickenpox (Varicella)
Herpes Zoster (shingles)
TB

218
Q

How often should you change the PN tubing and filter?

A

Every 24 hours

219
Q

Clonidine

A

centrally acting alpha-adrenergic used to treat HTN

220
Q

What does cortisol do?

A

converts proteins and fat into glucose

anti-inflammatory agent

221
Q

Nifedipine

A

calcium channel blocker (for HTN)

222
Q

posterior fontanel closes at

A

6-8 month

223
Q

Mannitol

A

osmotic diuretic

224
Q

For Alzheimer’s patient, remember what 3 things

A

safety
orientation
stimulation

225
Q

Olanzapine

A

Antipsychotic

226
Q

cranial nerve IV

A

trochlear (downward and inward movement of eyes)

227
Q

gentamicin toxicity

A

decreased hearing and vertigo

228
Q

After surgery, Clients should be NPO until

A

gag relex or bowel sounds have returned

229
Q

Beclomethasone

A

steroid

230
Q

Client develops v fib and has no pulse or respirations. CPR is initiated. After unsuccessful defib attempts, which med should nurse deliver?

A

epinephrine

231
Q

duodenal ulcer pain happens when? what’s the impact of food?

A

2-3 hours after meal
nighttime

food intake relieves pain

232
Q

EDT 12-20 years (adolescence)

A

identity vs. role diffusion

233
Q

Rapid acting insulin onset and peak

A

Onset: 5-15 min

Peak: 1-2 hours

234
Q

Stage 4 of labor

A

first 4 hours after delivery of placenta

235
Q

____ is priority for client in sickle cell crisis

A

hydration

236
Q

Surgery-related infection will typically occur ___ days postop

A

3-5

237
Q

Morning or bedtime? tamsulosin, tetrazosin

A

bedtime

238
Q

EDT Birth-1 yr (infancy)

A

trust vs mistrust

239
Q

Headaches in spinal cord injury =

A

autonomic dysreflexia = elevate HOB all the way to sitting

240
Q

Hep B immunization schedule - 3 doses

A

Birth
1-2 months
6-18 months

241
Q

Colchicine

A

treats acute attack of gout

242
Q

Deep partial thickness burns

A

red to white, BLISTERS, painful

243
Q

ipratropium

A

leukotriene-receptor blocker (works as bronchodilator)

244
Q

Point of maximal impulse for heart

A

5th ICS left midclavicular line

245
Q

Morning or bedtime? diuretics

A

morning

246
Q

EDT 3-6 years (preschool)

A

initiative vs. guilt

247
Q

MAOI must be discontinued __ days prior to surgery/general anesthesia

A

10

248
Q

Digoxin

A

Cardiac glycoside

Antiarrhythmic and blood pressure support

249
Q

COPD exacerbation and aminophylline should not be given

A

propranolol

250
Q

Low bicarb (HCO3), low ph =

A

metabolic acidosis (DKA, diarrhea)

251
Q

Tranylcypromine

A

MAOI

252
Q

After liver biopsy, patient will lie on

A

RIGHT

253
Q

What diet for GERD?

A

low-residue (low fat, non-acidic)

254
Q

Ranitidine hydrochloride

A

short-term treatment for duodenal and gastric ulcers

255
Q

Lidocaine

A

antiarrhytmic

256
Q

Patients on levodopa should be on what kind of diet?

A

Low protein

257
Q

cranial nerve VIII

A

acoustic (hearing and balance)

258
Q

Isoniazid

A

Antibiotic for TB

259
Q

Sequence for abdominal physical assessment (4 steps)

A
  1. Inspection
  2. Auscultation
  3. Percussion
  4. Palpation
260
Q

With or without meals: insulin

A

without (or before/after)

261
Q

Acetylcysteine

A

bronchodilator

262
Q

gastric ulcer pain happens when? what’s the impact of food?

A

30 min to 1 hour after meal or when fasting

food does NOT help
vomiting gives relief

263
Q

Metoclopramide hydrochloride

A

tx nausea of chemotherapy

stimulates motility of upper gastro tract

264
Q

Walker, crutches, cane – how do you go up and down stairs? How many inches in front? Elbows at what degree?

A

up with the good, down with the bad,

8-10 inches in front,

elbows at 20-30 degrees

265
Q

Full thickness burns

A

Charred, white, waxy, PAINLESS

266
Q

Fluoxetine

A

SSRI

treat depressive/anxiety disorders

267
Q

With or without meals: sulfonamides

A

with

268
Q

physiologic vs pathologic jaundice

A

physiologic: after 24 hours, peaks at 72 hours, no TX necessary
pathologic: onset within the first 24 hours, phototherapy

269
Q

Glomerulonephritis occurs ___ days after beta hemolytic strep throat (or after impetigo). What kind of diet?

A

21

high calorie, low protein diet

270
Q

What treats metabolic acidosis?

A

sodium bicarb

271
Q

Hypothyroidism (myxedema) treatment is effective if what?

A

mental processes are improved

remember the disease causes slowed mental functioning

272
Q

Paroxetine

A

SSRI

273
Q

If redness and tenderness at IV site

A

remove IV and start warm soaks

274
Q

With or without meals: bromocriptine

A

with

275
Q

Captopril

A

ACE inhibitor

treats HTN and heart failure

276
Q

Intermediate acting insulin (NPH) onset and peak

A

Onset: 1-2 hours

Peak: 6-12 hours

277
Q

Buproprion

A

Heterocyclic antidepressant

278
Q

Addison’s 3 main signs:

A

muscle cramps, fatigue, hypotension

tetany, low calcium

279
Q

Naegele rule:

A

add 7 days to first day of LMP then subtract 3 months

280
Q

Potassium iodine

A

antithyroid agent

281
Q

Early findings of hypoxemia:

A

tachycardia and restlessness

282
Q

narcotic withdrawal looks like

A

flu

283
Q

Verapamil

A

calcium channel blocker

treats HTN, angina, SVT

assess heart rate first

284
Q

Carbamazepine

A

Anticonvulsant and mood stabiliser

tegretol

285
Q

Phenotyin

A

anticonvulsant

286
Q

With or without meals: cimetidine and ranitidine

A

with

287
Q

DTaP immunization schedule - 5 doses

A 
2 months
4 months
6 months
15-18 months
4-6 years
288
Q

Indomethacin

A

NSAID

289
Q

Warfarin antidote

A

vitamin k

290
Q

Citalopram

A

SSRI

291
Q

Antidote for magnesium sulfate

A

calcium gluconate

292
Q

best time to take rantidine

A

sleep

293
Q

Promethazine hydrochloride

A

tx n/v from surgery, allergic reactions (antihistamine), sedation

294
Q

Can losartan and hydrocholorthiazide be taken with food or without food?

A

yes, either

295
Q

Client diagnosed in stage I chronic kidney disease. Expect client to make which statement?

A

I urinate more at night

296
Q

5 signs of HTN crisis:

A 
Headache
Sweating
Palpitations
Stiff neck
Seizures
297
Q

Constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a chest tube means

A

there’s an air leak

298
Q

Aluminum hydroxide

A

antacid

299
Q

Are cold compresses appropriate for sickle cell patient?

A

no

300
Q

Cimetidine

A

Antacid and antihistamine

301
Q

Diphenhydramine

A

antihistamine (benadryl)

NCLEX (4 decks)

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