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USMLE Step 1 > Drugs > Flashcards

Drugs Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Amifostine

A

prevent nephrotoxicity with cisplatin/carboplatin by scavenging free radicals

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2
Q

Aminocaproic Acid

A

TPA OD

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3
Q

p450 inhibitors

A 
Ciprofloxacin
Ritonavir (Protease Inhibitors)
Amiodarone
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Acute EtOH
Macrolides
INH
Grapefruit Juice
Omeprazole
Sulfonamides
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4
Q

problem with phenytoin or sulfonamide + warfarin

A

displacement off albumin= increased hemorrhage

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5
Q

sulfonamide + sulfonylureas

A

displacement of albumin, risk of hypoglycemia

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6
Q

pregnancy in woman takin OCP who had a nail fungus

A

griseofulvin induce p450, decreased efficacy of OCP

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7
Q

why is aspirin not used in gout

A

competition in renal tubule secretion

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8
Q

INH, Halothane

A

Hepatotoxicity

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9
Q

Bone marrow suppression

A

chloramphenicol, ganciclovir, zidovudine

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10
Q

Bactericidal Antibiotics

A

Penicillin, Cephalosporin, Vancomycin, aminoglycosides, quinolones

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11
Q

which opioid receptor responsible for respiratory depression and site of naloxone action?

A

Mu receptor responsible for the scary effects, Kappa for Miosis

Naloxone has effect on mu, kappa, and delta, but most on mu

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12
Q

NMDA antagonist with strange dreams

A

Ketamine

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13
Q

salmonella, shigella tx

A

TMP-SMX

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14
Q

Staph skin infection tx

A

dicloxacillin

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15
Q

name the first gen ceph

A

cefazolin, cephalexin-

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16
Q

opioid with some antagonistic activity, can precipitate opioid withdrawal

A

pentazocine

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17
Q

chagas treatment

A

nifurtimox

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18
Q

meperidine, fentanyl, levorphanol

A

mu opiods (fentanyl doesnt induce histamine)

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19
Q

Ergot and Non ergot dopamine agonists

A

Ergot: Bromocriptine, Pergolide

Non Ergot: Pramipexole, Ropinerole

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20
Q

inhibits 23S of 30S blocking inititation

A

aminoglycosides

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21
Q

inhibits binding of all other tRNAs by affecting 30S

A

Tetracyclines

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22
Q

inhibits bacterial peptidyl transferase

A

Chloramphenicol

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23
Q

Inhibits translocation on 50S

A

Erythromycin (MACROSLIDES)

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24
Q

antiviral that increases endogenous dopamine effect helping parkinsons

A

amantadine

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25
Q

antiepileptic that is metabolized to phenobarbital

A

primidone

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26
Q

Focal neuro defects after SAH. Cause and prevention?

A

due to release of substances in SAH which cause vasospasm. Nimodipine (calcium channel blocker) to decrease vasospasm

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27
Q

Drugs that inhibit

1) mammalina folate synthesis
2) bacterial folate synthesis
3) protozoan folate synthesis

A

1) MTX
2) Trimethoprim
3) Pyrimethamine

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28
Q

MOA of actinomycin D

A

DNA binding, inhibit replication

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29
Q

cardiomyopathy causing drug that intercalates DNA pairs

A

doxorubicin

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30
Q

1) Ca2+ channel blocker contraindicated in
2) B blocker contraindicated in
3) Thiazides contra
4) ACE_i

A

1) CHF
2) asthma, acute CHF, diabetes (hypoglycemia masker)
3) Diabetes (hyperglycemia), hypertriglyceride
4) pregnancy

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31
Q

Drug that leads to arterial dilation + inhibit platelet aggregation (use for peripheral vascular disease intermittent claudication)

A

Cilostozol

inhibit PDE= Increased cAMP= inhibit platelet aggregation (Dipyridamole also in this category but not an arterial dilator, Implicated in CORONARY STEAL)

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32
Q

diuretic used for calcium kidney stones and diabetes insipidus

A

thiazides

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33
Q

how can angina get worse with nitroglycerin

A

in high doses, can dilate arterioles= reflex tachycardia

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34
Q

orally active nitrate

A

isosorbide mononitrate (dinatrate undergoes extensive metabolism)

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35
Q

used for Prinzmetal’s angina

A

nifedipine

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36
Q

how is tpa more selective than streptokinase

A

only activated plasminogen already bound to fibrin

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37
Q

used for digitalis induced arrhythmias

A

Na/K blocked, so use 1B- Lidocaine

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38
Q

entacapone, tolcapone

A

COMT inhibitors, prevent levodopa peripheral methylation

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39
Q

Amrinone, Milrinone

A

PDE inhibitros that can be inotropic. Amrinone- thrombocytopenia

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40
Q

Toxicity of cardiac glycosides is increased by

A

hypokalemia, alkalosis, hypoxia

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41
Q

aminoglycosides + anti-nicotinic drugs

A

BAD COMBO- will enhance block

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42
Q

tubocurarine SE

A

histamine release= bronchospasm

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43
Q

action on which channels cause TCA effect of arrhythmias and hypotension

A

cardiac fast Na channels

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44
Q

drug causes arteriolar dilation, naturesis, and increased renal perfusion. Good for shock, heart failure

A

Fenoldopam - selective D1 agonist can increase cAMP -cause vascular SM relaxation

little alpha and beta effect

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45
Q

antiarrhythmic class that prefers activated and inactivated Na channnels, not resting Na channels. very fast attachment and detachment, decreased AP duration

A

IB- lidocaine, mexiletine, TOCAINIDE

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46
Q

neonate presents with shrill crying, rhinorrhea, small pupils, and seizures to mom who lives on the street. what to give?

A

acute neonatal opiate withdrawal

give tincture of opium until stabilized

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47
Q

recurrence of drug effect without drug, brilliant color hallucinations

A

LSD (“flashbacks”)

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48
Q

met-enkephalin
leu-enkephalin
dynorphin

A 
met= mu= euphoria, analgesia, respiratory 
leu= delta= mood changes
dynorphin=kappa= miosis, sedation
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49
Q

fentanyl

A

high potency opiod

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50
Q

teenager with sudden arrhythmic movements, aggravated by sleep deprivation. 1st line tx

A

valproic acid for myoclonic seizures (others 1st line are carbamazepine, phenytoin, and valproic)

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51
Q

SE of epilepsy drug: hirsutism, coarse facial features, gingival hyperplasia, Cervical lymphadenopathy

A

phenytoin

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52
Q

how long does response to antidepressants take

A

3-4 wks

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53
Q

inhibitor of serotonin uptake, used for insomnia (5HT2). Gives you priapism

A

Trazodone

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54
Q

low dose vs high dose nicotine

A

low dose: ganglion stimulating, BP increase

high dose: ganglion blockade, BP decrease

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55
Q

short half life benzos

A

triazolam, lorazepam

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56
Q

why is ampicillin added to ceftriaxone for 2 month old with CSF pleocytosis and irritability

A

cover for listeria meningitis

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57
Q

meclizine

A

anti histamine used for motion sickness and nausea

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58
Q

high MAC

high blood solubility

A

low potency, low conc sufficient but onset and termination can be slow.
N2O>enflurane>halothane

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59
Q

use for children with febrile seizures

A

phenobarbital

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60
Q

drug of choice for anti-emetic action after chemotherapy, promotes gastric emptying

A

metoclopramide (D2 block)

SE: parkinsonian

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61
Q

laxatives acting like irritants, increasing motility

A

senna, castor oil

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62
Q

what to give for CV toxicity of TCA (quinidine like QT prolong)

A

sodium bicarb (alkalinize urine)

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63
Q

patient with depressed mood is given a drug. mom had mood disorder. now comes in with grandiose thoughts

A

TCA given in depressed phase of bipolar can precipitate mania

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64
Q

first action in child who has a fever greater than 40 deg C, and hase seizures

A

cold blankets- need to cool, and give acetaminophen

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65
Q

Diphenoxylate, Mepiridine

A

anti-diarrheals (opiod agonist at mu)

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66
Q

patient who is depressed and very sensitive to rejection, with hyperphagia and hypersomnia. Tx

A

atypical depression- MAO-I (phenelzine, trancyclopromine, Isocarboxazid)

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67
Q

patient with knee pain giving analgesic has sudden RUQ pain

A

morphine opioid- contraction of SMOOTH MUSCLE (sphincter of ODDI) causes buildup behind= painful biliary colic)

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68
Q

feared SE of bupropion, esp in bulimia

A

increased seizures

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69
Q

SE of imipenem

A

seizures

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70
Q

mechanism of vasodilation by cholinergic

A

bind muscarinic receptor on endothelium (note no main effect on bv itself)= increased NO= increased cGMP= decreased MLCK

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71
Q

massive hepatic necrosis after surgery

A

halothane

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72
Q

MRSA tx with myopathy and increased CPK

A

daptomycin

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73
Q

nitrate SE

A

cutaenous flushing and headache

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74
Q

Alzheimers choline tx

A

want to give anti-cholinesterase to increase AcH,- donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine

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75
Q

antidote for organophosphate poisoning

A

pralidoxime (need to be given early) + atropine

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76
Q

tropicamide, cyclopentate

A

anti-cholinergics to produce mydriasis

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77
Q

oxybutynin, tolterodine, Darifenacin, Trospium

A

anti-cholinergic for bladder relaxation for urinary incontinence. DONT give in BPH

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78
Q

Hemacholinum

A

prevent choline/Na cotransport into preganglionic cell

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79
Q

Vesamicol

A

prevent choline acetyltransferase mediated Ach storage

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80
Q

Metyrosine

A

Block Tyrosine hydroxylase, cant make dopamine in pre-synaptic neuron

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81
Q

Metyrapone

A

block 11B hydroxylase= used for diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency, and maybe tx hypercortisolism

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82
Q

Guanethidine, Bretylium

A

Inhibit NE release

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83
Q

G protein pathways

A

activated alpha subunit- 2 pathways

1) adenylate cyclase—cAMP—PLA
2) Phospholipase C—IP3/DAG—-increase Ca, activate protein kinase C

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84
Q

Receptors and their G protein

A 
A1-q
A2- i
B1- s
B2-s
M1- q
M2- i
M3-q
D1- s
D2-i
H1-q
H2-s
V1-q
V2-s
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85
Q

alpha 1

A

increase bladder sphincter contractions, increase vascular resistance

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86
Q

alpha and beta agonist affect on insulin

A 
alpha= decrease insulin= hyperkalemia
beta= increase insulin= hypokalemia
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87
Q

B1 and Alpha 1 Blocker

A

Carvedilol and Labetalol

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88
Q

when do basic drugs get trapped in urine

A

in acidic env (like NH4+), pH<pka

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89
Q

when do acid drugs get trapped in urine

A

in basic env, pH>pka

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90
Q

Anticholinergic side effects

A

TCA, Amantadine, H1 blockers, Atropine, LOW potency neuroleptics (chlorpromazine and thiordiazine), digoxin

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91
Q

Coronary vasospasm side effect

A

cocaine, sumatriptan, amphetamine (increased NE)

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92
Q

cutaneous flushing

A

Vancomycin
Adenosine
Niacin
Ca channel blocker

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93
Q

Torsades

A

1A (increased QT), III (sotalol), also macrolides, protease, haloperidol

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94
Q

Agranulocytosis = 3 Cs

A

Clozapine, Carbamazepine, Colchicine, also THYROID drugs- PTU, Methimazole, and DAPSONE

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95
Q

Aplastic Anemia

A

Chloramphenicol, NSAID, PTU, Methimazole

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96
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Heparin

97
Q

Pulmonary fibrosis

A

Bleomycin, Busulfan, Amiodarone

98
Q

Massive hepatic necrosis causes a HAVAc

A

Halothane, Amanita phalloides, VALPROIC acid, Acetaminophen

99
Q

Hypothyroidism SE

A

amiodarone, lithium, sulfonamides

100
Q

Drug that can cause acute cholestatic hepatitis and jaundice

A

Erythromycin

101
Q

Direct Coombs positive hemolytic anemia

A

Methyldopa, peniciilin

102
Q

Drugs that can cause gout

A

Furosemide, Thiazides, Niacin, Cyclosporine

103
Q

SE of osteoporosis

A

corticosteroids, heparin

104
Q

Drugs that can cause Steven Johnsons

A

Seizure drugs (Lamotrigine, Phenyotin, Phenobab, Carbamazepine, Ethosuzimide) also ALLOPURINOL.penicillin

105
Q

,Drugs that can cause DI

A

Demeclocycline and Lithium (used to tx SIADH)

106
Q

Parkinson like symptoms

A

antipsychotics, reserpine (block dopamine storage), metoclopromide (D2 antagonist used for post op gastroparesis)

107
Q

Seizure causing drugs

A

Isoniazid, Bupropion, Imipenem, Tramadol, Enflurane, Metoclopramide (I BITE My tongue)

108
Q

tinnitus, dizziness, headache, GI distress

A

cinchonism= quinidine, quinine

109
Q

toxicity side effect of tinnitus. Tx?

A

aspirin! alkalinize urine with sodium bicarbonate

110
Q

tx for B-blocker or Ca channel blocker

A

glucagon (regenerate cAMP), calcium, atropine

111
Q

what stimulates, inhibits desmolase

A

stimulated by ACTH, inhibited by ketoconazole

112
Q

Sitagliptin, Saxagliptin, Linaglibtin

A

inhibit DPP-IV which usually metabolize GLP1. so end up with increased insulin action

113
Q

Exenatide, Liraglutide

A

GLP-1 analog- mimcrs incretins, decrease glucagon, increase insulin
SE: pancreatitis

114
Q

Pramlintide

A

amylin analoexag, decreases GLUCAGON (only used in pts taking insulin)

115
Q

potential hepatotoxic diabetic drugs

A

TZDs, metformin

116
Q

Diabetic drug that is not associated with weight gain, also has risk of lactic acidosis, esp with renal dysfunction

A

Metformin (should not be used with elevated creatinine clearance), also helps lower TG and LDL

117
Q

liver disease associated with obesity

A

NASH- insulin resistance at liver allows lipid accumulation, can progress to HCC, cirrhosis. Chronically elevated LFTs seen

118
Q

Tx of restless leg syndrome

A

pramipexole, ropinerole (dopamine agonists)

119
Q

drugs used to shorten N3 sleep (enuresis)

A

benzodiazepines, imipramine

120
Q

Hexamethonium

A

acts in autonomic ganglia by binding mostly in or on the NN receptor, no effect on muscarinic

121
Q

HIV drug causing pancreatitis

A

didanosine (nRTI)

122
Q

alkylating agent requiring activation in liver, how is its toxicity prevented

A

cyclophosphamide, give mesna to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis

123
Q

ursodial

A

tx of PBC- delays damage

124
Q

Aldesleukin

A

IL2 useful for renal cell carcinoma and melanoma

125
Q

decrease of Il2 via binding FKBP

A

Tacrolimus, Sirolimus (inhibit MTOR)

126
Q

affects TNFa, SE: of phocomelia

A

Thalidomide

127
Q

abdy that binds to CD3 on T cells

A

Muromonab

128
Q

Daclizumab

A

binds IL-2 receptor

129
Q

inhibits IMP dehydrogenase

A

Mycophenolate mofetil

130
Q

Metabolized by XO, increased toxicity with allopurinol

A

6-MP, Azathioprine

131
Q

tx of PNH, block complement mediated lysis

A

eculizumab

132
Q

Navirs side effects

A

GI intolerance, inhibit cyp 450 (ritonavir)
pancreatitis-Ritonavir
Kidney stones- idinavir, atazanavir

HYPERLIPIDEMIA, LIPODYSTROPHY (buffalo hump)

133
Q

nRTI with hepatic steatosis

A

didanosine (also pancreatitis), stavudine

134
Q

Nevirapine, Efavirenz, Delavirdine

A

neuro sx + teratogenic

135
Q

NRTI vs Tenofovir

A

NRTI= nucleoside, tenofovir= nucleotide inhib

136
Q

HIV drug SE: megaloblastic anemia, bone marrow suppression

A

zidovudine (used in preventing maternal transmission)

137
Q

Tx for neonatal infection (think meningitis)

A

ampicillin (listeria)+ gentamycin

138
Q

bacteria not responsive to cephalosporins

A

Listeria
Atypicals
MRSA
Enterobacter

139
Q

anti-cancer drug that needs to be activated

A

cytarabine via phosphorylation

140
Q

drug always given with imipenem

A

cilastatin

141
Q

Prophylaxis of MAC complex (CD4<50), tx?

A

Prophylaxis: azithryomycin
tx: clarithromycin + ethambutol

142
Q

H, influenza and meningitis

A

Rifampin

143
Q

diuretic used for psuedotumor cerebri

A

acetazolamide

144
Q

MOA of linezolid

A

bind 23S of 50S

145
Q

avoid taking these with teracyclines

A

antacids, iron containing foods- ions interfere with absorption

146
Q

Quinupristin/Dalfopristin

A

streptogramins, bind peptidyltransferase of 50S (like chloramphenicol). uses: MRSA, VRE, staph and strep infections

147
Q

abx with detergent like action which inactivates bacterial endotoxin. for resistant gram negatives

A

polymyxins

148
Q

nephrotoxic esp with cephalosporins, ototoxicity esp with loop diuretics

A

aminoglycosides

149
Q

general dx treated by macrolides

A

PUS= pneumonia (atypical), URI, STD

150
Q

Eptifibatide, tirofiban

A

along with abciximab, inhib Gp2b/3a

151
Q

anticancer drug for choriocarcinoma, hydatidiform mole

A

MTX

152
Q

anticancer drug used topically for basal cell cancer, actinic keratosis

A

5FU

153
Q

intercalated DNA, produces free radicals, cardiotoxic

A

doxyrubicin, daunorubicin

154
Q

DNA alkylating agents used in brain cancer

A

nitrosureas

155
Q

cyproheptadine

A

first gen antihistamine used as appetite stimulant, also has anti 5HT= for serotonin syndrome

156
Q

meclizine

A

antihistamine used for vertigo

157
Q

enfuvirtide

A

fusion inhib fror HIV- interfere with gp41

158
Q

Maraviroc

A

anti-CCR5 for HIV, prevent initial infection

159
Q

antihypertensive- vasodilation, also slows/stops hair growth

A

minoxidil- opens K+ channels, hyperpolarize smooth muscle

160
Q

anti-hypertensive with dry mouth, sedation, severe rebound HTN

A

clonidine

161
Q

can ARBs still be implicated in angioedema?

A

yes,arbs stil can have angioedema, dont have cough

162
Q

fixes atropine overdose

A

Physostigmine

163
Q

why should hydralazine be avoided in person with coronary disease, but can be used for HTN in pregnancy, emergency

A

has huge effect on lowering BP- will increase HR—increased demand if have coronary disease= more ischemia

164
Q

antihypertensive to avoid in bilateral renal stenosis

A

ACE-I, ARBS which decrease ang2- so actually will increase creatinine more

165
Q

difference between Nitrates and Ach/Alpha 2 agonist/serotonin/histamine mediated vasodilation

A

both have same end effect

Bradykinin/Alpha 2 agonist/Histamine/Serotonin act on ENDOTHELIAL cell- increase NO production from arginine, which then can go to smooht muscle cell- activated cGMP- activate myosin PHOSPHATASE

Nitrates and LPS directly upregulate NO on smooth muscle cell. Sildenafil prevents cGMP breakdown

166
Q

meds for acute heart failure

A

LMNO= loop diuretic, morphine, nitrates, oxygen, also digoxin

167
Q

swan ganz catheter sites

A

right IJ>left SC>right SC>left IJ

168
Q

Antiarrhythmics- 1A

Increase AP duration, work on active phase 0

A

Disopyramide, Quinidine, Procainamide
SE of quinine: cinchonism
-procainamide used for WPW, SE: SLE

169
Q

1B blockers

decrease AP duration

A

Lidocaine, Tocainide, Mexilitine, PHENYTOIN

used for acute ventricular tach, POST MI tachycardia

170
Q

1C blockers

no change AP duration

A

Fleicanide, Propaffenone

171
Q

which drugs would decrease slope of phase 4 of pacemaker of heart

A

B blocker

172
Q

Fetilide, Sotalol, Amiodarone , DOFETILIDE, BRETYLIUM

A

class 3, elongate QT and AP duration

173
Q

drugs for WPW

A

procainamide, amiodarone

174
Q

patient with SVT comes in. He is given a drug that stops his heart for 10 seconds, and then his heart starts back again at a slower rate.

its effects can be stopped by which drugs?

A

Adenosine
- K+ out= hyperpolarization

effects stopped by theophylline

175
Q

Rhythm and rate control of chronic afib

A

rate control: B blocker, digoxin, calcium channel blocker

rhythm control: amiodarone, sotalol

176
Q

SE: erosive esophagitis and osteonecrosis of jaw

A

bisphosphonates

177
Q

Acne tx

1) hyperkeratosis
2) Sebum
3) P. acnes

A

1) isoretinoin
2) spironolactone
3) erythromycin, tetracycline

178
Q

what kind of meds should never be given in psoriasis

A

oral steroids

179
Q

calcipotriene

A

vitamin D3 analog, inhibits epidermal cell proliferation. single agent of choice for psoriasis

180
Q

tx of ADHD

A

methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine

atomexetine= NE reuptake inhib

181
Q

weak opiod used for chronic pain control

A

tramadolol - works on all NTs (tram it all!)

182
Q

high potency neuroleptics

A

haloperidol, flupherazine, loxapine, trifluoperazine- more EPS signs

183
Q

low potency neuroleptics, deposit locations

A 
chlorpromazine= corneal deposits
thioridazine= retinal deposits

can be anticholinergic, anti-histamine, anti-alpha

184
Q

atypical antipsychotics

A

wt gain effects, for + and - sx

-olanzapine (wt gain), clozapine, queti, reisperidone, aripiprazole

185
Q

Fever, encephalopathy, vitals unstable, elevated enzymes, rigid muscles

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome= FEVER

tx: dantrolene

186
Q

sertraline, citalopram, paroxetine

A

SSRI (fluoxetine is the well known one)

dont confuse sertraline and selegeline!

187
Q

venlafazine, duloxetine

A

snri

188
Q

-typtiline or -pramine

A

TCA

weird one- doxepin

189
Q

Tranylcypromine, Phenelzine, Selegeline, Isocarboxazid

Tranny stole my Phen-Phen and was SELLING it in a boxcar

A

MAO-I

190
Q

a2 antagonist=increase NE. Weight gain and sedation

Used for depressed patient with insomnia

A

Mirtazapine

191
Q

TCA overdos

A

C= convulsions, coma, cardiotoxicity

192
Q

which substance needed for active secretion of organic anion

A

alpha -ketoglutarate

193
Q

metolazone, chlorthalidone

A

thiazide diuretics

194
Q

K+ shift out of cells

A

beta blockers, acidosis, digoxin, cell lysis

195
Q

K+ into cells

A

insulin, B-agonist, alkalosis

196
Q

treatment for lithium induced nephrogenic DI

A

amiloride (can block Enac so Li cant be taken in)

197
Q

tx of eclampsia

A

IV magnesium sulfate for seizures

198
Q

how is estrogen helpful with heart disease but bad with strokes?

A

increases HDL, decreases LDL

but also increases liver synthesis- so increased clotting factors

199
Q

Medroxyprogesterone

A

IM every 3 mos, assoc with long term bone density loss

200
Q

Danazol

A

androgen derivative that may be used in endometriosis to inhibit HPA

201
Q

clomiphene

A

bind estrogen receptor in hypothalamus= decreased negative feedback so increase gnRH

202
Q

Anastrozole/Exemestane

A

Aromatase inhibitors used in breast cancer, PCOS

203
Q

most common cause of increased AFP on amniocentesis

A

incorrect pregnancy dating!

204
Q

OB safe meds: Categories

A

A= safe, B= safe based on animal studies, C= no studies show adverse studies D=risk, but benefit may outweigh, X=contraindicated

205
Q

Mifepristone

A

antagonist at progesterone= abortificant. given with misoprostol

206
Q

tx of hyperammonemia

A

benzoate, phenylbutyrate, lactulose

207
Q

Palivizumab

A

against paramyxovirus F protein that causes fusion of epithelial cells and latency. for rsv in children

208
Q

HIV integrase inhibitor

A

Raltegravir (SE: hypercholesterolemia)

209
Q

cyclosporine toxicity

A

nephrotoxic, gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism

210
Q

cholinomimetic resistant to AchE

A

Pilocarpine (sweat, drool)- used for glaucoma

211
Q

glycopyrorolate

A

post op reduction of airway secretions

212
Q

terbutaline, ritodrine

A

B2 agonist- reduce uterine contractions

213
Q

diazoxide

A

K+ channel blocker- can hyperpolarize and vasodilate

SE: reduces insulin release leading to hyperglycemia

214
Q

why are Pindolol and Acebutol contraindicated in angina

A

PAPA- have partial B agonist activity- would increase heart demand even more

215
Q

reasons for using Thiazides, Indomethacin, amiloride in DI

A

Thiazide, Amiloride- act in distal parts of nephron, so actually increase PCT water reabsorption

indomethacin counters prostaglandin mediated decreased ADH action

216
Q

prevent daunorubicin/doxorubucin toxicity

A

dexrazoxane (iron chelator)

217
Q

IV anesthetic associated with rapid onset and recovery but high TG content= risk of pancreatitis

A

propofol

218
Q

decreased blood flow- good anesthetics for brain surgery

A

opiods

219
Q

how to reverse pancuronium block

A

=non depolarizing block antagonized with neostigmine (ache inhib= increased Ach)

220
Q

Sumatriptan contraindicated in

A

Prinzmetal’s angina, coronary artery disease

221
Q

methotrexate SE

A

stomatitis- painful mouth ulcers , hepatotoxicity. myelosuppression

222
Q

sulfasalazine SE

A

reversible oligospermia

223
Q

ticlopidine

A

neutropenia, ADP inhib

224
Q

cancer drug- neurotoxicity, paralytic ileus

A

vincritsine

225
Q

vemurafinib

A

anti-BRAF

226
Q

brimonidine

A

alpha agonist used in open angle glaucoma to cause vasoconstriction= decreased aqueous humor production

227
Q

cholinergics used in glaucoma

A

carbachol, pilocarpine, physostigmine- will open up trabecular meshwork to increase outflow of humor

228
Q

Latanoprost for glaucoma

A

prostaglandin analong increase outflow of humor

229
Q

butorphanol

A

partial opiod agonist, lesser resp depression. can act as antagonist in presence of full agonist

230
Q

vigabatrin

A

epilepsy drug, inhibit gaba transaminase

231
Q

Zolpidem, Zaleplon, esZopiclone

A

at benzo receptor, for sleeping, less dependence

232
Q

tx of Huntington

low ACH and Gaba, high dopamine

A

Tetrabenazine- VMAT inhib= decrease dopamine

reserpine- prevent dopamine packaging

233
Q

which psych diseases should SSRI not be used in?

A

Schizophrenia and Bipolar- can exacerbate mania

234
Q

ariprazole

A

lesser EPS sx for atypical antipsychotic- partial dopamine agonist

235
Q

wt gain atypical antipsychotics

A

olanzapine and clozapine

236
Q

clomipramine

A

TCA used for OCD

237
Q

toxicity of mannitol

A

pulmonary edema, contraindicated in CHF

238
Q

how can loop diuretics dilate afferent arteriole

A

induce pge release

USMLE Step 1 (2 decks)

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