Drugs

Question 1

Brand name

Cimetidine

Answer 1

Tagamet HB / Targamet

Question 2

Brand name

Theophylline

Answer 2

Theo 24, Theochron, Elixophyllin, aminophylline, and Uniphyl.

Question 3

Drug class

Cimetidine

Answer 3

H2 antagonist / H2 blocker

Question 4

Medication forms

Theophylline

Answer 4

oral capsule, extended release capsule, liquid, tablet

Question 5

Uses

Theophylline

Answer 5

asthma, bronchitis, emphysema, and other breathing problems

Could be use for other unlisted reasons.

Is not a rescue medicine for asthma or bronchospasm attacks.

Question 6

What does it do?

Theophylline

Answer 6

bronchodilator

Question 7

mechanism of action

Theophylline

Answer 7

Competitively inhibits type III and type IV phosphodiesterase (PDE), the enzyme responsible for breaking down cyclic AMP in smooth muscle cells, possibly resulting in bronchodilation.

Also binds to the adenosine A2B receptor and blocks adenosine mediated bronchoconstriction.

Question 8

Drug class

Theophylline

Answer 8

Methylxanthines

Question 9

Medication forms

Cimetidine

Answer 9

liquid and oral

Question 10

Uses

Cimetidine

Answer 10

Gastritis/PUD, GERD

Question 11

What does it do?

Cimetidine

Answer 11

Is a stomach acid reducer to prevent stomach ulcers.

Question 12

Mechanism of action

Cimetidine

Answer 12

H2-receptor antagonist competitively blocks histamine from stimulating the H2-receptors located on the gastric parietal cells (these cells are responsible for hydrochloric acid secretion and secretion of the intrinsic factor).

Question 13

name anticholinergic agents

Question 14

name beta blockers

Answer 14

selective with isa:
- acebutolol

selective without isa:
- atenolol
- bisoprolol
- metoprolol

nonselective without isa:
- nadolol
- propranolol
- timolol

Question 15

name calcium channel blockers

Answer 15

diltiazepam
verapamil
amlodipine

Question 16

name bronchodilators

Answer 16

Theophylline

Question 17

name tricyclic antidepressants

Question 18

name macrolide antibiotics

Answer 18

erythromycin
azythromycin
clarithromycin
fidaxomycin

Question 19

What does it do?

Erythromycin

Answer 19

slow the growth of, or sometimes kill, sensitive bacteria by reducing the production of important proteins needed by the bacteria to survive.

Question 20

Drug forms

Erythromycin

Answer 20

oral, IV, chewable tablets

Question 21

Drug uses for macrolide antibiotics

Answer 21

Lower Resp infxns
Upper Resp Infxns
Reproductive Infxns
Throat infxns
GI Infxns (from mouth to intestines)
GU Infxns

STIs
Lyme and co-infections (babesia, bartonella, mycoplasma pneumonia)
Strep throat
pharyngitis
UTIs
Ear infxns
H. pylori
Toxoplasmosis
Sinusitis
Cystic fibrosis
Acute COPD
Dental abscess
C. difficile
gastroenteritis

Question 22

mechanism of action

macrolide antibiotics

Answer 22

inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria by reversibly binding to the P site of the 50S unit of the ribosome.

Question 23

What type of pathogens macrolide antibiotics are good for?

Answer 23

Mainly affect gram-positive cocci and intracellular pathogens

Question 24

Uses

Phenytoin

Answer 24

Controls seizures

Question 25

What does it do? Phenytoin

Answer 25

Works by slowing down impulses in the brain that cause seizures.

Question 26

Drug class Phenytoin

Answer 26

Hydantoin anticonvulsants

Question 27

Brand names Phenytoin

Answer 27

Dilantin, Phenytek

Question 28

Medication forms Phenytoin

Answer 28

oral, suspension, IV, IM

Question 29

Mechanism of action Phenytoin

Answer 29

A voltage-gated, sodium channel blocker, stabilizing the inactive state of the sodium channel and prolonging the neuronal refractory period. Acts on the sodium channels in both neuronal and cardiac tissue.

Question 30

Drug class Cyclosporine

Answer 30

Calcineurin inhibitors

Question 31

Brand names Cyclosporine

Answer 31

Gengraf, Neoral, SandIMMUNE

Question 32

What does it do? Cyclosporine

Answer 32

Weakens your body's immune system, to help keep it from "rejecting" a transplanted organ or in cases of autoimmune disease.

Question 33

Uses Cyclosporine

Answer 33

organ transplant (kd, heart, lv) autoimmune diseases (psoriasis, RA)

Question 34

Medication forms Cyclosporine

Answer 34

oral and injection, ophthalmic

Question 35

Mechanism of action Cyclosporine

Answer 35

Inhibits the production of cytokines, particularly interleukin-2 (IL-2), in T lymphocytes, primarily by binding to cyclophilin and blocking the activity of the enzyme calcineurin, which is crucial for T cell activation and transcription of cytokine genes; this effectively prevents T cells from proliferating and carrying out immune responses.

Question 36

name NSAIDs

Answer 36

naproxen sodium (Aleve, Anaprox) ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin)

Question 37

Name antipyretics drugs

Answer 37

ASA Acetaminophen Ibuprofen naproxen sodium

Question 38

Antipyretics drug classes

Answer 38

- NSAIDs - Para-aminophenol derivatives - Salicylates

Question 39

name ASA

Answer 39

aspirin, coated aspirin

Question 40

name para-aminiphenol derivatives

Answer 40

tylenol, tempra

Question 41

name serotonin antagonists (5-HT3RAs)

Answer 41

first generation: - granisetron - ondansetron second generation: - palonosetron

Question 42

serotonin antagonists (5-HT3RAs) side effects

Answer 42

constipation and HAs

Question 43

use serotonin antagonists (5-HT3RAs)

Answer 43

emetogenic therapy

Question 44

use neurokinin-1 receptor antagonists

Answer 44

emetogenic therapy bind substance-p

Question 45

Side effects neurokinin-1 receptor antagonists

Answer 45

aprepitant: fatigue, hiccups netupitant: constipation, fatigue, HAs

Question 46

name neurokinin-1 receptor antagonists

Answer 46

aprepitant fosaprepitant netupitant

Question 47

use coritcosteroids

Answer 47

emetogenic therapy in CINV

Question 48

name corticosteroids

Answer 48

dexamethasone methylprednisole

Question 49

interactions neurokinin-1 receptor antagonists

Answer 49

inhibit CYP3A4 interact with corticosteroids

Question 50

name dopamine antagonists

Answer 50

prochlorperazine metoclopramide haloperidol olanzapine (2nd gen antipsychotic)

Question 51

use dopamine antagonists

Answer 51

in chemotherapy with low emetogenicity or rescue agents

Question 52

name benzodiazepines

Answer 52

alprazolam lorazepam

Question 53

name cannabinoids

Answer 53

nabilone

Question 54

name ACEi

Answer 54

ramipril cilazapril enalapril fosinopril lisinopril perindopril quinapril transolapril captopril

Question 55

name statins

Answer 55

- fluvastatin - lovastatin - pravastatin - simvastatin - rosuvastatin * - atorvastatin *

Question 56

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Edema Drug induced Edema

Answer 56

NSAIDS, calcium channel blockers, corticosteroids, thiazolidinediones or drugs that interact with diuretic agents.

Question 57

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Electrolytes Imbalances Hypercalcemia

Answer 57

Androgens, antiestrogens, derivatives and analogues of vitamin A, estrogens, excess vitamin A or D, ingestion of >3g elemental calcium per day, lithium, parenteral nutrition, progestins, thiazide diuretics.

Question 58

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Electrolytes Imbalances Hypokalemia (low potassium)

Answer 58

Aminoglycosides, amphotericin B, antipseudomonal penicillins, beta2-agonists- salbutamol, caffeine, foscarnet, insulin, laxatives, licorice, long-term corticosteroid therapy, loop and thiazide diuretics, theophylline, tocolytic agents.

Question 59

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Electrolytes Imbalances Hypernatraemia

Answer 59

Sodium containing AB and antacids

Question 60

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Electrolytes Imbalances Hyponatraemia

Answer 60

SSRI, diuretics, lithium, chlorpromazine, carbamazepine, theophylline

Question 61

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Electrolytes Imbalances Hypocalcemia

Answer 61

Loop diuretics, bisphosphonates, phenytoin

Question 62

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Electrolytes Imbalances Hyperkalemia (high potassium)

Answer 62

ACE inhibitors, aliskiren, aminocaproic acid, angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), beta blockers, cyclosporine, digoxin overdose, dropirenone, heparin, K supplements, K sparing diuretics, ketoconazole, NSAIDS, penicillin G potassium, pentamidne, succinylcholine, tacrolimus, trimethoprim, or TMP/SMX (high dose or in susceptible patients ie elderly, renal failure), some herbal and nutritional supplements (eg alfalfa, nettle) especially in the presence of renal failure