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ND Ontario Prescribing Exam > Drugs > Flashcards

Drugs Flashcards

Associate generic names, brand names, forms of prescription, class, CI, INT, what they are used for

1
Q

Brand name

Cimetidine

A

Tagamet HB / Targamet

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2
Q

Brand name

Theophylline

A

Theo 24, Theochron, Elixophyllin, aminophylline, and Uniphyl.

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3
Q

Drug class

Cimetidine

A

H2 antagonist / H2 blocker

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4
Q

Medication forms

Theophylline

A

oral capsule, extended release capsule, liquid, tablet

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5
Q

Uses

Theophylline

A

asthma, bronchitis, emphysema, and other breathing problems

Could be use for other unlisted reasons.

Is not a rescue medicine for asthma or bronchospasm attacks.

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6
Q

What does it do?

Theophylline

A

bronchodilator

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7
Q

mechanism of action

Theophylline

A

Competitively inhibits type III and type IV phosphodiesterase (PDE), the enzyme responsible for breaking down cyclic AMP in smooth muscle cells, possibly resulting in bronchodilation.

Also binds to the adenosine A2B receptor and blocks adenosine mediated bronchoconstriction.

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8
Q

Drug class

Theophylline

A

Methylxanthines

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9
Q

Medication forms

Cimetidine

A

liquid and oral

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10
Q

Uses

Cimetidine

A

Gastritis/PUD, GERD

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11
Q

What does it do?

Cimetidine

A

Is a stomach acid reducer to prevent stomach ulcers.

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12
Q

Mechanism of action

Cimetidine

A

H2-receptor antagonist competitively blocks histamine from stimulating the H2-receptors located on the gastric parietal cells (these cells are responsible for hydrochloric acid secretion and secretion of the intrinsic factor).

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13
Q

name anticholinergic agents

A
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14
Q

name beta blockers

A

selective with isa:
- acebutolol

selective without isa:
- atenolol
- bisoprolol
- metoprolol

nonselective without isa:
- nadolol
- propranolol
- timolol

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15
Q

name calcium channel blockers

A

diltiazepam
verapamil
amlodipine

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16
Q

name bronchodilators

A

Theophylline

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17
Q

name tricyclic antidepressants

A
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18
Q

name macrolide antibiotics

A

erythromycin
azythromycin
clarithromycin
fidaxomycin

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19
Q

What does it do?

Erythromycin

A

slow the growth of, or sometimes kill, sensitive bacteria by reducing the production of important proteins needed by the bacteria to survive.

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20
Q

Drug forms

Erythromycin

A

oral, IV, chewable tablets

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21
Q

Drug uses for macrolide antibiotics

A

Lower Resp infxns
Upper Resp Infxns
Reproductive Infxns
Throat infxns
GI Infxns (from mouth to intestines)
GU Infxns

STIs
Lyme and co-infections (babesia, bartonella, mycoplasma pneumonia)
Strep throat
pharyngitis
UTIs
Ear infxns
H. pylori
Toxoplasmosis
Sinusitis
Cystic fibrosis
Acute COPD
Dental abscess
C. difficile
gastroenteritis

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22
Q

mechanism of action

macrolide antibiotics

A

inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria by reversibly binding to the P site of the 50S unit of the ribosome.

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23
Q

What type of pathogens macrolide antibiotics are good for?

A

Mainly affect gram-positive cocci and intracellular pathogens

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24
Q

Uses

Phenytoin

A

Controls seizures

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25
Q

What does it do?

Phenytoin

A

Works by slowing down impulses in the brain that cause seizures.

26
Q

Drug class

Phenytoin

A

Hydantoin anticonvulsants

27
Q

Brand names

Phenytoin

A

Dilantin, Phenytek

28
Q

Medication forms

Phenytoin

A

oral, suspension, IV, IM

29
Q

Mechanism of action

Phenytoin

A

A voltage-gated, sodium channel blocker, stabilizing the inactive state of the sodium channel and prolonging the neuronal refractory period.

Acts on the sodium channels in both neuronal and cardiac tissue.

30
Q

Drug class

Cyclosporine

A

Calcineurin inhibitors

31
Q

Brand names

Cyclosporine

A

Gengraf, Neoral, SandIMMUNE

32
Q

What does it do?

Cyclosporine

A

Weakens your body’s immune system, to help keep it from “rejecting” a transplanted organ or in cases of autoimmune disease.

33
Q

Uses

Cyclosporine

A

organ transplant (kd, heart, lv)
autoimmune diseases (psoriasis, RA)

34
Q

Medication forms

Cyclosporine

A

oral and injection, ophthalmic

35
Q

Mechanism of action

Cyclosporine

A

Inhibits the production of cytokines, particularly interleukin-2 (IL-2), in T lymphocytes, primarily by binding to cyclophilin and blocking the activity of the enzyme calcineurin, which is crucial for T cell activation and transcription of cytokine genes; this effectively prevents T cells from proliferating and carrying out immune responses.

36
Q

name NSAIDs

A

naproxen sodium (Aleve, Anaprox)
ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin)

37
Q

Name antipyretics drugs

A

ASA
Acetaminophen
Ibuprofen
naproxen sodium

38
Q

Antipyretics drug classes

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Para-aminophenol derivatives
  • Salicylates
39
Q

name ASA

A

aspirin, coated aspirin

40
Q

name para-aminiphenol derivatives

A

tylenol, tempra

41
Q

name serotonin antagonists (5-HT3RAs)

A

first generation:
- granisetron
- ondansetron

second generation:
- palonosetron

42
Q

serotonin antagonists (5-HT3RAs) side effects

A

constipation and HAs

43
Q

use
serotonin antagonists (5-HT3RAs)

A

emetogenic therapy

44
Q

use
neurokinin-1 receptor antagonists

A

emetogenic therapy
bind substance-p

45
Q

Side effects
neurokinin-1 receptor antagonists

A

aprepitant: fatigue, hiccups
netupitant: constipation, fatigue, HAs

46
Q

name
neurokinin-1 receptor antagonists

A

aprepitant
fosaprepitant
netupitant

47
Q

use
coritcosteroids

A

emetogenic therapy in CINV

48
Q

name corticosteroids

A

dexamethasone
methylprednisole

49
Q

interactions
neurokinin-1 receptor antagonists

A

inhibit CYP3A4
interact with corticosteroids

50
Q

name
dopamine antagonists

A

prochlorperazine
metoclopramide
haloperidol
olanzapine (2nd gen antipsychotic)

51
Q

use
dopamine antagonists

A

in chemotherapy with low emetogenicity or rescue agents

52
Q

name benzodiazepines

A

alprazolam
lorazepam

53
Q

name cannabinoids

54
Q

name ACEi

A

ramipril
cilazapril
enalapril
fosinopril
lisinopril
perindopril
quinapril
transolapril
captopril

55
Q

name statins

A
  • fluvastatin
  • lovastatin
  • pravastatin
  • simvastatin
  • rosuvastatin *
  • atorvastatin *
56
Q

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Edema

Drug induced Edema

A

NSAIDS, calcium channel blockers, corticosteroids, thiazolidinediones or drugs that interact with diuretic agents.

57
Q

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Electrolytes Imbalances

Hypercalcemia

A

Androgens, antiestrogens, derivatives and analogues of vitamin A, estrogens, excess vitamin A or D, ingestion of >3g elemental calcium per day, lithium, parenteral nutrition, progestins, thiazide diuretics.

58
Q

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Electrolytes Imbalances

Hypokalemia (low potassium)

A

Aminoglycosides, amphotericin B, antipseudomonal penicillins, beta2-agonists- salbutamol, caffeine, foscarnet, insulin, laxatives, licorice, long-term corticosteroid therapy, loop and thiazide diuretics, theophylline, tocolytic agents.

59
Q

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Electrolytes Imbalances

Hypernatraemia

A

Sodium containing AB and antacids

60
Q

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Electrolytes Imbalances

Hyponatraemia

A

SSRI, diuretics, lithium, chlorpromazine, carbamazepine, theophylline

61
Q

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Electrolytes Imbalances

Hypocalcemia

A

Loop diuretics, bisphosphonates, phenytoin

62
Q

Red Flags by condition and drug induced conditions: Electrolytes Imbalances

Hyperkalemia (high potassium)

A

ACE inhibitors, aliskiren, aminocaproic acid, angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), beta blockers, cyclosporine, digoxin overdose, dropirenone, heparin, K supplements, K sparing diuretics, ketoconazole, NSAIDS, penicillin G potassium, pentamidne, succinylcholine, tacrolimus, trimethoprim, or TMP/SMX (high dose or in susceptible patients ie elderly, renal failure), some herbal and nutritional supplements (eg alfalfa, nettle) especially in the presence of renal failure

ND Ontario Prescribing Exam (21 decks)

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