Drug questions Flashcards

1
Q

When is the offence complete?

A

The offence is complete once the prohibited substance is created, whether or not it is in a useable form.

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2
Q

What activities does the term ‘supplying a drug’ cover?

A

Supplying drugs includes distributing, giving or selling drugs.

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3
Q

What are the elements of the offence of offering to supply?

A

The elements of the offence of offering to supply are:

  • the use of words that convey an offer
  • the intention to make the other person believe the offer that has been made is real

The offender need not have the drugs nor even intend to sell them to be guilty of the offence.

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4
Q

What difference does age make to the offence involving Class C controlled drugs?

A

The difference in age regarding drug offence means that, when the receiver is:

  • under 18 years of age, it is illegal to supply or administer, or offer to supply or administer, a Class C controlled drug to them
  • Over 18 years of age, the only offences are to sell, or offer to sell, them a Class C controlled drug.
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5
Q

List the four things you have to prove to convict someone of possessing a controlled drug?

A

To convict someone of possessing a controlled drug, you must prove, beyond reasonable doubt, that the offender:

  • had complete physical control of the drug
  • knew that the drug existed, where it was and what its qualities were
  • received the drug from a person who intended to hand over possession
  • held the drug with the intention to possess it exclusively of others.
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6
Q

In relation to an offence against s9 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1975, what must you prove?

A

You must prove the identity of the suspect and that he or she cultivated a prohibited plant.

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7
Q

What is the difference between the offence of obstruction contained in the Summary Offences Act 1981 and the Misuse of Drugs Act 1975?

A

The offence of obstruction in the Misuse of Drugs Act relates specifically to obstructing anyone who is executing powers under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1975.

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8
Q

In relation to a charge of possession of a prescription medicine, who does the burden of proof lie with?

A

The burden of proof that he or she was lawfully entitled to be in possession of the prescription medicine lies with the defendant.

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9
Q

Who is exempt from charges relating to the sale or supply of needles or syringes?

A

Pharmacies, medical practitioners and authorised representatives of the Health Department.

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10
Q

Describe the two different types of controlled deliveries.

A

There are two options with controlled deliveries.

One is a “clean controlled delivery”, where no drugs are left within the consignment. This eliminates any risk of the drugs being lost but also gives greater freedom in organising the surveillance of the consignment and reduces the risk of alarming the targets who may have arranged counter-surveillance. However, at the termination of the operation only “importation” and/or “conspiracy” charges are likely to be filed for those apprehended.

The second option is to leave an amount of the drug within the consignment to enable the option of charging an offender with a “possession for supply” charge and also provides the availability of emergency powers should the drugs move to people or places that are not covered by search warrants. The remainder of the drugs are substituted.

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11
Q

Name the two main types of tracking devices.

A

The two main forms of tracking devices are Beacon and GPS.

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12
Q

If a tracking device is installed without a warrant, what is the time period in which it either needs to be removed or a tracking device warrant should be obtained?

A

48 hours.

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13
Q

In which schedule of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1975 would you find the pre-cursor substance pseudoephedrine?

A

Pseudoephedrine is found in Part 2 of Schedule 2 of this act (as it is re-classified as a Class B Controlled Drug).

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14
Q

What is meant by the term ‘private communication’?

A

Private communication

(a) means a communication (whether in oral or written form, or in the form of a telecommunication, or otherwise) made under circumstances that may reasonably be taken to indicate that any party to the communication desires it to be confined to the parties to the communication; but
(b) does not include a communication of that kind occurring in circumstances in which any party to the communication ought reasonably to expect that the communication may be intercepted by some other person without having the express or implied consent of any party to do so.

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15
Q

Of what does the judge need to be satisfied before granting you a surveillance device warrant?

A

The conditions for issuing a surveillance device warrant are that-

(a) there are reasonable grounds-
(i) to suspect that an offence has been committed, or is being committed, or will be committed in respect of which this Act or any enactment specified in column 2 of the Schedule authorises the enforcement officer to apply for a warrant to enter premises for the purpose of obtaining evidence about the suspected offence; and
(i) to believe that the proposed use of the surveillance device will obtain information that is evidential material in respect of the offence; and;
(b) the restrictions in section 45 do not prevent the issuing of a surveillance device warrant in the circumstances.

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16
Q

What has been held by the courts in relation to the protection of informers and owners/occupiers of premises used for surveillance?

A

R v Rankine [1986] 2 All ER 566

“It is in the public interest that nothing should be done to discourage members of the public from coming forward to provide information to the Police. The reasons which give rise to the rule that an informer is not to be identified, apply with equal force to the identification of the owner or occupier of the premises used for surveillance and to the identification of the premises themselves”.

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17
Q

List four key activities the telephone investigator should undertake in the first 24 hours of a major operation.

A

The four key activities the telephone investigator should undertake in the first 24 hours of a major operation are:

  • ‘Trapping’ or ‘pre loading’ phone data
  • TSP Liaison
  • Draft a production order application early
  • Proving phone ownership / use (attribution)
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18
Q

Name the three processes or stages of Clan Labs.

A

Extraction, Conversion and Synthesis.

19
Q

What is the definition of ‘emergency’ in s135 of the Hazardous Substances and New Organisms Act 1996?

A
  1. Interpretation:

In this Part of this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, “Emergency” means:

(a) Actual or imminent danger to human health or safety; or
(b) A danger to the environment or chattels so significant that immediate action is required to remove the danger - arising from a hazardous substance or new organism.

20
Q

Name six symptoms that may result from exposure to a Clan Lab.

A

Any six of the following:

  • headaches
  • watery or burning eyes
  • nausea
  • burning skin
  • coughing or choking
  • pain in diaphragm
  • feeling of coldness or weakness
  • shortness of breath / dizziness
  • decrease in cognitive function, vertigo and convulsions.
21
Q

Which drug offences are deemed to be category three offences?

A

Offences against s6 of the Misuse of Drugs Act 1975 are category three offences.

These include:

  • importing or exporting
  • producing or manufacturing
  • supplying or administering or offering to supply or administer
  • selling or offering to sell (Class C only)
  • possessing for any of the above purposes any controlled drug.
22
Q

When can a defendant charged with a drug offence elect trial by jury?

A

If the offence is a category three offence (punishable by imprisonment of two years or more) the defendant will have the right to elect trial by jury.

23
Q

What are the general time limits for filing charges regarding drug offences?

A

The general rule regarding offences against the Misuse of Drugs Act 1975 or Regulations is that you must file charging documents within four years of the offence being committed (section 28(b))

Section 28(a) allows you to file charging documents at any time for offences of:

  • dealing (s6)
  • cultivating (s9)
  • aiding offences against corresponding law in another country (s10).
24
Q

List the criteria that must be satisfied for an Analyst’s Certificate to be admissible at court.

A

For the evidence in the certificate to be admissible, certain procedures must be strictly followed.

These procedures ensure that:

  • the chain the evidence is unbroken
  • the material to be analysed is not tampered with or contaminated
  • the defence is aware of the analysis and the results and is given reasonable time to prepare a defence.
25
Q

Name two common examples of instruments of crime in drug dealing cases.

A

Two common examples of instruments of crime in drug dealing cases are:

  • a house used to manufacture methamphetamine;
  • a motor vehicle used to deliver drugs.
26
Q

Definition of dealing offence

A

a) Any offence against section 6 or 12C(1)(a) of the MODA in relation to class A or B controlled drug; And
b) An attempt to commit an offence in paragraph (a).

27
Q

s.45 Restrictions on some trespass surveillance and use of interception device

A

Nothing authorises any enforcement officer to undertake trespass surveillance(other by means of a tracking device), or intercept device, except in order to obtain evidential material in relation to an offence:

  1. that is punishable by imprisonment of 7 years or more
  2. offences against the Arms Act 1983
  3. s.25,s.26, s.70 against the Psychoactive Substance Act 2013.
28
Q

Otherwise deals in

A

The term “otherwise deals” in paragraph (c) is aimed at dealing in a drug by some means other than by distributing, giving or selling it, administering it or offering to supply or administer it.

29
Q

Who leads the controlled drug delivery operation?

A

Customs have the power invested in them under s.12, MODAA 78, to lead the controlled drug delivery. Police assist with the operation, arrest the targets and conduct the prosecution.

30
Q

What are 4 ways controlled deliveries can come about?

A
  1. International mail centre - inside a mail article
  2. International airport - arriving courier using either body packing, internal concealment or concealed within luggage.
  3. Imported air freight - within a freight consignment which can be either commercial or private.
  4. Imported sea freight - as with air freight but arrive via sea.
31
Q

What are 4 things to consider with an observation post for controlled delivery?

A
  1. Unobstructed line of sight to target address
  2. Phone lines available in street
  3. Proximity to target address - close enough to be effective, far enough away to be unobstructed
  4. Ability to beam signals and/or tap into Telecom cables (video and audio interception)
32
Q

Requirement for using a surveillance device for interception or trespass.

A

When obtaining evidential material in relation to an offence:

  • A serious offence punishable by imprisonment of 7 years or more
  • Against certain sections of the Arms Act 1983
  • Against s.25, s.26, and s.70 of the Psychoactive Substances Act 2013.
33
Q

Internal search differences

A
  1. S.13A, MODAA 78 - any Constable or Customs Officer may request, if they have reasonable grounds to believe they have a Class A or Class B controlled drug (not under arrest).
  2. S.23, SSA 12 - Constable may request, if they believe the person has secreted within body any property that may be evidence of the offence with which person is charged or other offence against s.6,s.7 or s.11, MODA 75 (must be arrested).
34
Q

Evidential material definition

A

In relation to an offence or a suspected offence, means evidence of the offence, or any other item, tangible or intangible, of relevance to the investigation of the offence.

35
Q

What is the term of equipment? and give 4 examples.

A

The term equipment is not defined by statute, but will include the implements, apparatus and other hardware used in the manufacturing, producing or cultivating process.

  1. glassware
  2. condensers
  3. timers
  4. water pumps
36
Q

What are 4 points for unplanned entry into a clan lab?

A
  1. Immediately remove persons of interest from the premises.
  2. Isolate the site and maintain a safety perimeter.
  3. Preserve the crime scene.
  4. Advise your Sgt, and contact the NCLRT.
37
Q

What is the 90 seconds rule?

A

This rule assumes that if the offender(s) are present and moving inside the laboratory then the atmosphere will sustain life. The IET (wearing PPE) will enter safely and extract suspects for a period of up to 90 seconds.

38
Q

Drug dealing offence definition.

A

Section 3, Bail Act 2000:
any offence against s.6 or 12C(1)(a) of the MODA 75 in relation to a Class A or B controlled drug; or an attempt to commit an offence referred in paragraph (a).

39
Q

4 types of evidence to look for in a SW involving controlled deliveries.

A
  1. Track and trace receipts
  2. Correspondence
  3. Computers, faxes and cellphones
  4. Emails
40
Q

4 signs of a clan lab (exterior).

A
  1. Chemical odours, coming from the building
  2. Exhaust fans running at odd times
  3. Frequent visitors at odd hours
  4. Windows blackened out or curtains always drawn.
41
Q

4 signs of a clan lab (interior).

A
  1. Laboratory glassware, equipment and documents
  2. Used coffee filters containing either a white pasty or reddish brown substance
  3. The presence of hot plates near chemicals
  4. Baking dishes or similar containing white crystalline substance.
42
Q

4 clan lab safety considerations.

A
  1. Leave the area immediately, your safety is paramount
  2. Never touch, taste or smell any chemicals or equipment
  3. Do not smoke in or near the clan lab
  4. Do not use tools, radios, cellphones, torches or devices
43
Q

6 initial action (must dos) at clan labs where C/YP are located

A
  1. Removal of the C/YP from the immediate scene
  2. Have the C/YP assessed by ambulance staff from injury, illness or respiratory distress
  3. Photographing of the C/YP at the scene
  4. Record the C/YP’s physical condition, injuries and mental state
  5. Conduct a prelim statement with C/YP
  6. Consider seizing the clothing worn by the C/YP as an exhibit.
44
Q

4 things to cover in initial interview with C/YP at clan lab (prelim statement)

A
  1. Basic health questions (signs), and occupant details
  2. Knowledge of drugs, manufacturing, dealing activities
  3. Details of other siblings, C/YP at the address
  4. The playing and eating areas.