driver simple_csv Flashcards

1
Q

qualities and skills needed by driver/operators? intro 1

A

safe driving techniques, types of pumping apparatus, positioning the apparatus to maximize efficiency and water supply, fire pump theory and operations, hydraulic calculations, water shuttle procedures, foam system operations, hydraulic calculations, and apparatus testing and maintenance.

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2
Q

fire apparatus are classified according to?p13

A

the primary function for which they are designed

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3
Q

main purpose of the fire department pumper is to?p13

A

provide adequate water pressure for effective water streams

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4
Q

nfpa 1901 standard for automotive and fire apparatus requirements for pumper design?p14

A

minimum pump capacity of 750 gpm and a water tank with capacity of at least 300 gpm

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5
Q

most municipal FD operating pumpers?p14

A

2000 gpm or less (250 gpm increments)

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6
Q

pumpers must have?p14

A

fire pump, intake and discharge pump connections, pump control and gauges, variety of hoses types and sizes.

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7
Q

nfpa 1901 specifies the portable equipment that must be carried on pumpers?p14

A

ground ladders, SCBA, forcible entry tools, salvage tools and equip., portable water tank, emergency medical equip.

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8
Q

rescue pumper?p14

A

combines the functions of both a rescue vehicle and a fire department pumper

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9
Q

what are the pumper foam capabilities?p15

A

discharge foam on class A(ordinary combustible) and class B(flammable and combustible liquid/gas) fires

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10
Q

compressed air foam systems (CAFS)p15

A

high-energy foam-generation system consisting of a water pump, foam proportioning system, and an air compressor (or other air source) that injects air into foam solution before it enters hose line

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11
Q

size foam tanks on municipal fire pumpers?p16

A

20-100 gallons

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12
Q

types of elevating devices that apply fire streams on pumpers are?p16

A

articulating and telescoping 50-75 ft

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13
Q

initial attack fire apparatusp16

A

primary purpose is to initiate a fire attack on structural, wildland, and support fd actions

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14
Q

characteristics of initial attack fire apparatus? p16

A

scaled-down versions of full-size pumpers(smaller chassis, pump, and agent tank sizes) aka mini-pumper or midi-pumper.

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15
Q

mini-pumperp16

A

small fire apparatus mounted on a pick-up truck size chassis, pump rated 500 fpm or less(speed and mobility)

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16
Q

midi-pumperp16

A

sized between mini-pumper and full sized, gross vehicle weight 12000 lbs, pump rated 1000gpm or less

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17
Q

system NIMS-ICS uses categorizes apparatus based on capabilities?p17

A

apparatus typing

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18
Q

used to transport water to areas where a water system is nonexistent or inadequate?p17

A

water supply apparatus(water tenders or tankers)

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19
Q

capacity of mobile water supply apparatus operating in a particular jurisdiction is based on?p17

A

terrain, bridge and weight limits, monetary constraints, interoperability

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20
Q

mobile water supply apparatus tank capacity per nfpa 1901?p17

A

1000 gpm or greater(greater capacity accommodated by tandem rear axles, tri-axles, or tractor trailer)

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21
Q

design and construction process of water supply apparatus should meet safety and efficiency requirements?p18

A

1 adequate/reasonable water capacity2 efficient fill/dump time3 suspension/steering matched to terrain4 properly sized chassis5 adequately sized engine for vehicle/terrain6 sufficient breaking ability (vehicle/terrain)7 proper tank mounting and baffling8 adequate tank venting system9 ability to dump water sides and rear

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22
Q

mobile water supply has two basic function on the fire ground?p18

A

mobile shuttle operation or stationary reservoir(nurse tender)

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23
Q

wildland fire apparatus design?p19

A

brush trucks, brush breakers, or booster apparatus-lightweight, highly maneuverable, all-terrain, one-ton or larger chassis, all-wheel drive, pump capacities and water tank of 500 fpm or less(up to 1000 gpm also available), pump and roll system

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24
Q

pump and roll system?p19

A

allows the apparatus to be driven while discharging water(separate motor or power take off PTO to power fire pump)

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25
Q

*riding on the outside of the apparatus may result in?p20

A

death or severe injury.

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26
Q

what is extremely effective in attacking wildland fires and protecting exposures?p20

A

class a foam agents

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27
Q

used to provide immediate suppression of flammable liquid fires and vapors from fuel spills?p20

A

aircraft rescue and fire fighting (ARFF) apparatus

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28
Q

ARFF units will respond off airport to assist municipal FD with?p20

A

large scale flammable liquid incidents

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29
Q

requirements for ARFF apparatus are found in?p20

A

nfpa 14 standard for aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles

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30
Q

nfpa 14 classifies apparatus by?p20

A

type of suppression agent(s) carriedagent capacitynumber of drive wheels

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31
Q

local jurisdictions devide apparatus into three categories:p20

A

major fire fighting vehicles rapid intervention vehiclescombined agent vehicles

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32
Q

fireboatp21

A

vessel or watercraft designed for fighting fires in marine environment(capacities as high as 50000 gpm)

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33
Q

functions of fireboat?p21

A

protect hazards on and adjacent to waterwaysice/water rescueemergency medical servicesfire fighting/relay pumping to land based apparatus

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34
Q

aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps may? p21

A

function with the capabilities of an engine or ladder company

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35
Q

always consider the placement of an aerial because it is limited by its?p21

A

reach

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36
Q

quintp22

A

serves as an engine and ladder, equipped with fire pump, water tank, ground ladders, hose bed, and aerial device

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37
Q

nfpa 1901 standard for automotive fire apparatus, the vehicle(quint) must be equipped with?p22

A

pump rated at 1000 fpm or greater and water tank of 300 gallons or greater

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38
Q

rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumpsp22

A

small fire pump/tank=small fires/protective hose line extrication;do not have fire fighting capability of rescue pumpers

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39
Q

trailer mounted fire pumpsp22

A

long term pumping operations-petroleum storage facilities

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40
Q

responsible for operation of specialized mounted equipment as well as the fire pump?p22

A

driver/operator

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41
Q

step-up transformer the converts a vehicles 12- or 24-volt DC current into 110- or 220- volt AC current?p23

A

inverter

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42
Q

characteristics of inverter?p23

A

fuel efficient nearly noiseless operationmoved only short distancesmall power supply capabilitiestypically used to power vehicle-mounted flood lights

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43
Q

most common power source used for emergency services?p23

A

generators

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44
Q

powered by small gas/diesel engines 110-220 volt capacity, used when power is needed remote from apparatus, various capacities 5000 watts is typically highestp23

A

portable generators

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45
Q

larger capacity than portable units; power floodlights/any portable electrically operated equipment; powered by gas/diesel, pro, hydraulic system; 110-220 volt; capacities up to 12000 wattsp23

A

vehicle mounted generator

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46
Q

capacity up 50000 watts or greater, noisyp23

A

fixed generator systems

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47
Q

types of lighting equipment carried on pumping apparatus?p23

A

portable or fixed 300-1000 watts

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48
Q

advantageous when illumination is needed some distance away or additional lights requiredp23-24

A

portable lights

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49
Q

provide general lighting around the apparatus and nearby scene; raised, lowered or turned; banks of lights mounted on booms powered by electrical, pneumatic, or hydraulic; 500-1500 watts per lightp24

A

fixed lights(mounted)

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50
Q

commonly used during incident operations; stored on coils, portable reels, or fixed automatic rewind reels; 12-guage 3-wire 600 volt insulation and twist lock receptaclesp24

A

extension cords

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51
Q

most common rescues tool found on apparatus?p24

A

extrication(spreaders/shears)combination spread /shearsextension rams

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52
Q

rescue tools are powered by ?p24

A

hydraulic pressure, compressed air, or apparatus power take-off system

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53
Q

requires that driver/operator be skilled in the performance of certain maintenance tasks?p29

A

nfpa 1002

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54
Q

in many jurisdictions who is required to perform routine maintenance checks and functions?p29

A

driver/operators

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55
Q

keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness?p29

A

maintenance

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56
Q

to restore that which has become inoperable?p29

A

repair

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57
Q

provides a basis to train and certify fire apparatus and fire department maintenance officers?p29

A

nfpa 1071 standard for emergency vehicle technician professional qualifications

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58
Q

nfpa 1002 requires driver/operators to be able to perform routine tests, inspections, and servicing which systems?p30

A

batteries oilbreaking systems tires coolant system steering systemselectrical system beltsfuel system tools, apps, equiphydraulic fluids

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59
Q

repair work that involves complex tools, parts, or in-depth mechanical knowledge is left to a?p30

A

certified mechanic

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60
Q

inspection and maintenance check should be done ?p30

A

beginning of each tour of duty

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61
Q

more detailed inspection list may be completed on?p30

A

weekly or monthly basis

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62
Q

road salt during inclement weather?p32

A

corrosive effect on steel body components

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63
Q

most vulnerable areas to diesel fuel residue which leaves gummy residue?p32

A

engine compartments where linkages, fuel injectors, or other control may become inoperable

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64
Q

when washing the vehicle body and components care should be taken no to strip away?p33

A

necessary lubricants

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65
Q

new and unseasoned paint and protective coating should be washed frequently using cold water to harden the paint and keep it from spotting for how long?p33

A

first 6 months

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66
Q

clean automotive glass with?p34

A

warm soapy water or commercial glass cleaner

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67
Q

new apparatus have sensitive electronic equipment that can be damaged or destroyed by?p35

A

water or cleaning fluids

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68
Q

incoming driver/operator should consult the person being relieved for any pertinent information regarding?p35

A

incident activityequipment usageproblems

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69
Q

issued to individuals who demonstrate competence inspecting and driving vehicles with a gross vehicle rating of 26001 lbs or more?p36

A

commercial driver’s licence CDL

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70
Q

inspection method in which the driver/inspector starts at one point going clock/counter inspecting the entire apparatus?p36

A

circle or walk-around method

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71
Q

inspecting apparatus/equipment to ensure all equipment is in place, and ready for service?p36

A

operational readiness inspection

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72
Q

visual inspection of an apparatus to ensure the major components of the chassis are present and in proper working condition?p36

A

pre trip road worthiness inspection

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73
Q

inspection where a certain system or component of an apparatus is operated to ensure that it is functioning properly?p36

A

functional check

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74
Q

helps ensure that all required items are checked each time an inspection is completed?p36

A

systematic approach

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75
Q

whenever the apparatus is parked, be sure to?p37

A

chock the wheels

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76
Q

*do not run engines in ____ areas for any period of time , because diesel exhaust may contain up to ____ ?p37

A

unvented; 100 harmful chemicals and compunds

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77
Q

maximum amount of weight that an axle system can safely carry?p38

A

gross axle weight rating

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78
Q

*left and right orientation?p38

A

driver side/officer side; street side/curb side

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79
Q

is it acceptable to mix radial tires with bias-ply tires, or have different size and weight ratings?p38

A

always same type, size and weight

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80
Q

when examining tire condition check for?p39

A

proper tread depth and separationcuppingexcessive wear on sidewalls cutsdry rottingcracking tiresimpaled objects

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81
Q

nfpa 1911 requires all tires be replaced regardless of their condition every?p39

A

7 years

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82
Q

*inflate tires to there commended ____ tire pressure?p39

A

operating and not maximum

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83
Q

electrical monitoring system that will shed electrical load in a predetermined order if the chassis voltage begins to drop below a predetermined level? p40

A

load management system

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84
Q

operation of equipment or a conductor in excess of its rated capacity?p40

A

overload

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85
Q

device in an electrical system that turns lights on at specified intervals, so that the start-up load for all the devices does not occur at the same time?p40

A

load sequencer

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86
Q

device that “watches” an electrical system for added loads that may threaten to overload the system?p40

A

load monitor

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87
Q

when the overload condition occurs, the load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment to prevent overload?p40

A

load shedding

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88
Q

component of the power train that receives torque from the engine and converts it to rotation to the wheels?p41

A

manual shift transmission

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89
Q

amount of travel the clutch has before it begins to disengage the engine from the transmission?p41

A

free play

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90
Q

component used to push on the internal clutch fingers connected to the clutch pedal and when activated, disengages the clutch from the engine?p41

A

throw-out bearing

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91
Q

in a steering system, the amount of travel between turning the wheel and when the steering system moves?p41

A

steering wheel play

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92
Q

steering wheel play should be no more than?p41

A

10 degrees either direction; 20 inch steering wheel=2 inches

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93
Q

maximum weight at which a vehicle can be safely operated on roadway in ideal conditions?p41

A

gross vehicle weight rating GVWR

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94
Q

braking system that uses a fluid in a closed system to pressurize wheels cylinders when activated?p42

A

hydraulic braking system

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95
Q

electronic system that monitors wheel spin and when wheel is sensed to begin locking up, the brake on that wheel is temporarily released to prevent skidding?p42

A

antilock braking system ABS

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96
Q

braking system that uses compressed air to hold off a spring brake(parking brake) and applies air pressure to a service brake for vehicle stopping?p42

A

air-actuated braking system

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97
Q

per nfpa 1901 and 1911 a side-to-side variance in weight should not exceed?p42

A

7.00%

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98
Q

in cab fire/rescue equipment should be?p42

A

in good working order and securely stowed

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99
Q

apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an _____ that prevents air horns or other nonessential devices from being used when pressure drops below ____?p43

A

air pressure protection device; 80 psi

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100
Q

apparatus brakes should be tested at least ____ using methods outlined in____?p43

A

annually; nfpa 1911

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101
Q

a series of tests used to ensure the serviceability of air braking system?p43

A

air break test

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102
Q

devices used in the air brake system that connect between the activation pads and the brake pads that compensate for brake pad wear?p43

A

slack adjusters

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103
Q

truck that uses a cab that lowers over the power train?p44

A

tilt cab

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104
Q

*before ____, be sure that there is adequate vertical clearance and secure all loose equipment in the cab?p44

A

lifting the cab

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105
Q

ifsta considers the air brake testing procedures outlined in the manual to be the ____________?p44

A

minimum acceptable daily air brake test

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106
Q

most fluid checks can be done be done before or after the engine has been run but not while the vehicle is running with the exception of ?p44

A

transmission fluid level

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107
Q

device designed to remove diesel particulate matter or soot from the exhaust gas of a diesel engine?p45

A

diesel particulate filter DPF

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108
Q

applying grease and other lubricants to specific parts of the chassis to reduce wear, noise, and binding?p45

A

chassis lubrication

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109
Q

cab should be tilted on a ____ basis for a thorough inspection of the engine compartment?p45

A

weekly

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110
Q

in addition to DPF system, engines produced after January 1, 2010, may be equipped with an exhaust after treatment system called?p45

A

selective catalyst reductant SCR

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111
Q

failure to use the proper engine oil per manufacturer’s recommendation can lead to _____ and _____ damage?p46

A

costly engine and emission system

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112
Q

most modern truck batteries are ______, where older ones require the addition of ________ to replenish the cell’s fluid as it evaporates over time?p46

A

maintenance free; distilled water

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113
Q

most automotive batteries contain ?p47

A

lead and sulfuric acid

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114
Q

*batteries give off explosive hydrogen gas which can injure/kill, driver/operator should?p47

A

ventilate area, wear safety goggles, and wear acid resistant gloves

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115
Q

before attempting to jump-start a vehicle:p47-48

A

vehicles have same voltage verify which battery to use in operations manualcables are connect in recommended manner

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116
Q

specific inspection to an area of the chassis or apparatus to ensure that the unit i operating properly in accordance with the manufacturer’s initial design?p48

A

port-maintenace/repair inspection

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117
Q

fire pumps are tested at?p48

A

regularly scheduled intervals

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118
Q

anytime a pump has been operated at draft from saltwater source, lake, pond, or areas served by older water mains:p48

A

pump and piping should be thoroughly flushed.

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119
Q

who is responsible for the safe transport of firefighters, apparatus, and equipment to and from the scene of an incident?p79

A

driver/operator

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120
Q

___ has established minimum qualifications for apparatus driver/operators?p79

A

nfpa 1002

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121
Q

driver/operators should possess the following abilities and skills:p80-82

A

reading,computer, writing, and mathematical skillsphysical fitness, victual acuity, and adequate hearing

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122
Q

*while driving, the driver/operator should no operate a _____, focus on driving only!p81

A

mobile computer

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123
Q

periodic medical evaluation should be administered to establish and maintain fitness for duty in accordance with?p82

A

nfpa 1500

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124
Q

provides specific standards that contain information and specific details on uncorrected vision and diseases of the eye?p82

A

nfpa 1582

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125
Q

contains a list of frequencies that a driver must be able to hear/recommends rejecting those that don’t?p82

A

nfpa 1582

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126
Q

who establishes the basic requirements for licensing a driver in the US? Canada?p82

A

department of transportation DOTtransport canada TC

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127
Q

you are subject to all traffic regulations when driving under?p83

A

nonemergency conditions

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128
Q

regulate driver/operator in their duties?p83

A

federal lawstate/provincial motor vehicle codescity ordinancesnfpa standardsdepartment policies

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129
Q

act of proceeding to do something with a conscious awareness of danger, while ignoring any consequences?p84

A

reckless regard

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130
Q

breach of duty in which a person or organization fails to perform at the standard required by law or as expected by a reasonable person under similar circumstances?p84

A

negligence

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131
Q

willful and wanton disregard?p84

A

gross negligence

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132
Q

drive with due regard for the safety of others?p84

A

due regard

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133
Q

when responding to an emergency lights and sirens may be exempt from:p84

A

speed limitdirection of traveldirection of turnsparking statues and ordinaces

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134
Q

drivers who do not obey driving regulations can be subject to ____ if involved in an accident?p84

A

civil or criminal prosecution

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135
Q

perception of one’s surrounding environment and the ability to anticipate future events?p85

A

situational awareness

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136
Q

most common place for a collision to occur is at?p85

A

intersection

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137
Q

before allowing drivers to drive on public they should have?p85

A

completed training in a practice area/controlled environment

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138
Q

collision en route to an emergency will ?p85

A

end response of apparatus involved

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139
Q

fire apparatus collision are grouped into 7 basic causes which reflect the lack of due regard and situational awareness?p86

A

improper backingreckless driving excessive speedlack of skill/experienceoverloading and misusemechanical failurepersonal readiness

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140
Q

loss of braking function which occurs due to excessive use of the brakes?p87

A

brake fade

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141
Q

must not put yourself or members of the public in a position where there is no alternative to a ?p87

A

collision

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142
Q

lack of driving skills may result from:p88

A

overconfidenceinability to recognize a dangerous situationfalse sense of security-good driving recordmisunderstanding apparatus capabilitiesinsufficient training

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143
Q

in _____ of all collisions the driver was not aware of the problem until it was too late to correct?p88

A

42.00%

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144
Q

difference in weight empty/full of apparatus with a tank of 1000 gallons ?p88

A

8000lbs

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145
Q

apparatus with a properly baffled tank that is ____ may be more dangerous than ________ tank?p88

A

partially filled; empty/full

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146
Q

accidents occur because(apparatus)?p88

A

overloading, non engineered modification, and misuse

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147
Q

driver must be prepared to report to duty without any compromise of _____ or _____ ?p89

A

physical/mental ability

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148
Q

driver must always ensure the safety of_____ riding on the apparatus?p90

A

all personel

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149
Q

all riders on the apparatus must be ____ within the cab/body and wearing their _____ before apparatus is put in motion.p90

A

seated; seat belts

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150
Q

*driver is responsible for confirming all personnel have seat belts fastened, confirmation must be done ____?p90

A

verbally

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151
Q

nfpa 1500 provides the following direction on loading hose while driving:p91

A

train all member, fd must have SOPleast 1 safety observer, visual and voice comm with D/Eclose of are to trafficdrive forward only, 5 mph or lessno standing on apparatus while in motion

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152
Q

*fire fighters must ____ride on the outside of a moving apparatus for any reason.p92

A

never

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153
Q

____allows a detachable seat to be placed next to the tiller operator’s position in which an instructor may sit. p93

A

nfpa 1500

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154
Q

drivers must be capable of ___, ___ and ___the apparatus in a safe and efficient manner.p93

A

starting, idling, shutting down

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155
Q

when preparing to start the apparatus whether for emergency or routine trip driver must first known the ?p94

A

destination and route of travel

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156
Q

allowing a diesel engine to idle unnecessarily will waste fuel and may lead to the buildup of ____ in the injectors, valves, and piston causing damage to internal engine components and emission system.p94

A

carbon

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157
Q

lights when the exhaust system is very hot, usually due to an active regeneration in process.p94

A

high exhaust system temperature (HEST) indicator

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158
Q

lights up to indicate that the DPF is loading up with soot.p94

A

PDF indicator

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159
Q

allows driver to manually initiate an active regeneration to burn off the DPF soot loadp94

A

manual(parked) regeneration switch

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160
Q

allows driver to keep the engine from initiating an active regeneration process. parked on dry grass or combustible material.p94

A

regeneration inhibit switch

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161
Q

force that tends to create a rotational or twisting motion.p95

A

torque

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162
Q

the exhaust may never get hot enough to burn out the soot and an active regeneration is required if ?p95

A

frequent short run or in very cold climates

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163
Q

allows the cleaning of the DPF in stationary truck operations and requires operator involvement to initiate?p95

A

parked regeneration

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164
Q

parked regeneration cannot be initiated during?p95

A

pumping operations

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165
Q

apparatus equipped with selective catalyst reductant (SCR) has an additional tanked and must be filled with?p95

A

diesel exhaust fluid DEF

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166
Q

failing to keep the DEF tank full may _____ the apparatus engine, or limit the vehicle speed.p95

A

derate(reduce its torque output)

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167
Q

never shut down an engine immediately after full load operation, idle for?p95

A

3-5 minutes

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168
Q

*never rev a diesel engine immediately before shutting it down because damage to _______ may occur?p96

A

internal components

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169
Q

never shut down engine while apparatus is in ?p96

A

motion

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170
Q

mirrors help minimize blind spots and should be adjusted ?p96

A

beginning of shift/new driver assigned

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171
Q

apparatus equipped with _____ transmissions becoming the norm for many fd.p97

A

automatic

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172
Q

because of large size of aerials there are several points of potential contact under, so be cautious of:p97

A

steep rampscurbsspeed bumpsetc

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173
Q

angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus.p97

A

angle of approach

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174
Q

angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the rear of the apparatus.p97

A

angle of departure

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175
Q

angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the at the wheelbase midpoint.p97

A

breakover angle

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176
Q

weight transfer follows the law of inertia:p98

A

objects in motion stay in motion, objects at rest stay at rest unless acted upon by outside force

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177
Q

ensure axle loading is balanced within ___ percent side to side and with the ____ front to back.p98

A

7%; weight ratings

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178
Q

limit downhill speed to lower than maximum rpm to prevent ?p98

A

engine damage

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179
Q

unsafe and may be illegal to allow apparatus to coast out of gear or ____ while driving downhill.p98

A

freewheel

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180
Q

process of injecting or supplying the diesel engine with more fuel than can be burned?p99

A

over-throttling

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181
Q

when the throttle is applied when a manual transmission is too high a gear for the demand on the engine?p99

A

engine lugging

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182
Q

what results in an excessive amount of carbon particles in the exhaust, oil dilution, and additional fuel consumption?p99

A

over-throttling

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183
Q

when determining travel route avoid ?p99

A

low overpasses and incompatible bridges

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184
Q

19824 locations in the US where there less than 100 feet following the railroad track and account for an average of?p99

A

122 accidents annually

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185
Q

it may take ______ times greater distance for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow/ice than it does on dry pavement?p99

A

15-Mar

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186
Q

civilian drivers when encounter emergency vehicles with lights and sirens must:p100

A

pull to rightstopclear intersectionsremain motionless until emergency vehicle passes

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187
Q

guidelines to help avoid potential collisions:p100

A

aim high in steeringget the big picturekeep your eyes movingleave yourself an “out”maintain distance from front vehiclemake sure others can hear and see you

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188
Q

use of warning devices should be limited to response to?p100

A

true emergencies

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189
Q

electronic or mechanical sirens as well as air horns are?p101

A

audible warning

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190
Q

what is the best way to get the attention of motorists?p101

A

short air horn blasts and constant up and down oscillation of siren

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191
Q

above what speeds may you outrun the affective range of audible warning devices?p101

A

above 50 mph

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192
Q

in some instances increasing speed by 20 mph can decrease the audible distance by ?p101

A

250 feet or more

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193
Q

when multiple apparatus are responding together they should travel?p101

A

300-500 feet apart

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194
Q

*in-cab ___ ____ may make it more difficult to hear ambient noise or sirens of other emergency vehicles.p101

A

intercom headseats

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195
Q

driver should turn on headlights as part of the response because white lights are ?p101

A

readily visible even during daylight

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196
Q

the presence of traffic control devices(street light) does not relieve the driver from using?p102

A

defensive driving techniques

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197
Q

traffic signals in front of fire stations allow the apparatus to enter the roadway more _____?p102

A

safely

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198
Q

generates an optical signal that is received by the street light as apparatus approaches?p102

A

strobe lights (emitters)

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199
Q

activated by vehicles siren from several hundred feet to about half mile away, device will have 3 inch white and blue lights mounted?p103

A

traffic signal preemption device

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200
Q

data can be transmitted to a radio receiver on the traffic light using a gps device and radio transmitter?p103

A

gps based traffic signal preemption

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201
Q

many _____ as well as ____ require fire apparatus to come to a full stop and account for vehicles in all lanes before crossing the intersection.p104

A

jurisdictions; nfpa1500

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202
Q

when driver release pressure from the accelerator, the ____is activated?p105

A

engine break or retarder

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203
Q

distance vehicle travel from time the brakes are applied to until it comes to a complete stop?p105

A

braking distance

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204
Q

sum of the driver reaction distance and the vehicle braking distance?p105

A

total stopping distance

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205
Q

distance a vehicle travels while a driver transfers a foot from accelerator to break?p105

A

reaction distance

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206
Q

time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at current speed?p105

A

visual lead time

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207
Q

factor’s affecting the driver’s ability to stop the apparatus?p105

A

road conditionsspeed of apparatus weight of vehicletype/condition of tires/braking system

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208
Q

an uncontrolled slide across a surface in a wheeled vehicle?p107

A

skid

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209
Q

*using ordinary parking lots to conduct fire apparatus skid training may result in?p108

A

rollover accidents

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210
Q

*use extreme caution at minimal speeds for skid training using ?p108

A

tractor-drawn aerials

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211
Q

occurs when the gas pedal is applied too quickly?p108

A

acceleration skid

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212
Q

caused by braking too hard at a high rate of speed and locking the wheels?p108

A

locked wheel skid

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213
Q

should not apply the brakes, ease off the accelerator, and straighten out the front wheels?p108

A

acceleration skid

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214
Q

ease off the brake to unlock the drive wheels and then straighten the front wheels as the apparatus begins to respond to control?p108

A

locked wheel skid

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215
Q

losing control when descending grades most common causes involving driver error?p108

A

driving too fastfailing to anticipated obstaclesimproper use of auxiliary brakesimproper tire pressure/depth

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216
Q

____ system minimize the chance of the vehicle skidding when brakes are applied forcefully?p108

A

antilock braking system ABS

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217
Q

vehicles equipped with ABS driver should not pump the break pedal but rather ?p109

A

maintain steady pressure on the break pedal until stop

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218
Q

____ requires that all apparatus with a GVWR of _____ or greater be equipped with an auxiliary braking system.p109

A

nfpa 1901; 36000 lbs

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219
Q

four types of auxiliary brakes?p109

A

exhaust brakeengine compression brake transmission output retarderelectromagnetic retarder

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220
Q

_____ and _____ provide the highest level of braking torque and are unaffected by transmission gear shift changes.p109

A

transmission output retarders and electromagnetic retarders

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221
Q

*drivers should remember to ____ and ____ in inclement weather.p109

A

turn off the auxiliary brake and reduce speed

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222
Q

any device that uses the engine and transmission to impede the forward motion by compression of the engine?p110

A

engine compression brake

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223
Q

uses a valve to restrict the flow of the exhaust, which creates back pressure that adds to the engine ‘s inherent braking ability.p110

A

exhaust brakes

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224
Q

least capable of the 4 auxiliary brake devices?p110

A

exhaust brakes

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225
Q

electronically-actuated mechanical system added to the engine valve train; has no impact on engine temperature?p110

A

engine compression brake

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226
Q

mounted in the driveline, or supplied as an integral part of the rear axle; loss of effectiveness at high temperatures?p110

A

electromagnetic retarders

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227
Q

an electromagnetic field is created by supplying electrical power to a rise of coils in the retarder, inhibits the the rotation of rotor=braking torque rear wheels?p110

A

electromagnetic retarders

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228
Q

uses viscous property of the automatic transmission fluid to retard the driveline?p110

A

transmission retarders

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229
Q

can provide high braking capacity but are limited in high ambient environments by the capacity of vehicle cooling system?p110

A

transmission retarders

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230
Q

traction device which may be ineffective in snow deeper than 3-6 inches?p110-111

A

automatic chains

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231
Q

automatically reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction and begin to spin; found in vehicles with ABS?p111

A

automatic traction control (ATC)

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232
Q

improves traction and handling by locking the differential during off-road and wet weather conditions?p111

A

driver controlled differential lock

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233
Q

allows operator to lock out the interaxle differential action between the rear tandem driving axles, creating one solid drive line between rear axles?p111

A

interaxle defferential lock

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234
Q

designed to help prevent roll-overs and tipping caused by cornering or sudden changes in direction?p112

A

stability control systems

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235
Q

integrated into ABS system; beside ABS sensor there is also a lateral accelerometer that sense when the side force caused by concerning approach to the roll over threshold?p112

A

roll stability control (RSC)

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236
Q

applies the brakes independently to aim the vehicle in the direction that the operator positions the steering wheel?p112

A

electronic stability control (ESC)

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237
Q

more capable than RSC: RSC merely slow down vehicle; has steering wheel sensor in addition to lateral accelerator?p112

A

electronic stability control (ESC)

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238
Q

*drivers must not rely solely on backup cameras to provide a full and accurate view of the scene, ___ are still required?p113

A

spotters

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239
Q

to safely back an apparatus drivers should use all means including scanning between ?p113

A

direct field of vision, video screens, and spotters

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240
Q

methods of communication between driver and spotter can be accomplished via?p114

A

radio and/or hand signals

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241
Q

*upon losing sight of the spotter, the driver must ____ ____ because the spotter could be killed or injured by the apparatus.p114

A

stop immediately

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242
Q

when backing spotter should be positioned in the vision of the driver:p114

A

preferably left mirror, 8-10 feet behind and slightly to the left of apparatus

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243
Q

how should hand signals be executed?p115

A

slow and exaggerated motion

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244
Q

permits tillering of the tractor-trailor apparatus in and out of traffic and around turns that would be difficult or impossible for other vehicles?p117

A

tiller axle

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245
Q

must be qualified to operate the aerial ladder and be familiar with the assigned to all truck company personnel?p117

A

tiller operator

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246
Q

tiller operator driving assignments:p117

A

straight line divingturning and backingproper placement of trailer at fires

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247
Q

provides specific directions on driver/op candidates’s evaluation, should be followed to certify personnel to the standard?p118

A

nfpa 1002

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248
Q

all fire apparatus training and testing should follow?p118

A

nfpa 1451 standard for fire and emergency service vehicle operations training program

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249
Q

always close ___ or ___ ____ ____ to reduce the potential for personnel to be injured from accidentally walking into doors left open.p119

A

swing-up or swing-out compartment doors

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250
Q

*stepping on open compartment doors can cause serious injury or death because they do not?p119

A

support heavy weight

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251
Q

always have a second person present when ?p119

A

working on, around, or under apparatus

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252
Q

when working on top of the apparatus wear?p120

A

PPE including helmet

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253
Q

before placing apparatus in motion driver must ensure that any hose carried will not ?p120

A

come loose during travel

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254
Q

*loose hose my drag behind vehicle and?p120

A

injure or kill

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255
Q

take special care to lay the hose in a manner conductive to the ____ design and keep apparatus very slow during deployment.p120

A

chute or trough

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256
Q

guidelines for hose loading and deployment:p120

A

couplings=pulled straight out not flippingnever cross hose over itself5 mph or less5 mph=7 ft hose per second

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257
Q

specifies that any equipment not needed while driving to scene must be secured?p120

A

nfpa 1901

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258
Q

securing bracket or cabinet must be capable of restraining the equipment against a force up to ____ the equipments weight?p120

A

10 times

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259
Q

*secure equipment in the ___ ___ before placing vehicle in motion, unsecured equip can cause serious injury or death in a crash.p121

A

crew areas(cab)

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260
Q

hydraulic fluids can leak from hoses at high temps and pressures causing?p121

A

burns or other injuries(toxic to human tissue)

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261
Q

*release pressure before working on system because high pressure fluid leak will pierce skin with pressures as low as?p122

A

100 psi

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262
Q

never attempt to remove any inlet or discharge cap on an apparatus until making certain there is no?p122

A

trapped pressure

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263
Q

*always open drain/bleeder valve before removing inlet or discharge cap, it can blow off with ____?p123

A

explosive force=injury or death

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264
Q

drivers should position the apparatus for the safest most advantageous use of the ?p135

A

features of the apparatus

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265
Q

act of preparing to manage an incident at a particular location/type of incident before it occurs?p136

A

pre-incident planning

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266
Q

ongoing evaluation of influential factors at the scene of an incident?p136

A

size-up

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267
Q

person in charge of the ICS and responsible for the management of all incident operations during an emergency?p136

A

incident commander (IC)

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268
Q

fire pumper’s primary function on the foreground is?p136

A

provide water directly for fire streams or to support other pumpers/earials

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269
Q

fire conditions upon arrival place apparatus:p136

A

safe positionbest tactical advantageexit route

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270
Q

pull past front of the building to view three sides?p136

A

no fire evident(investigation mode)

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271
Q

position apparatus to facilitate the most efficient deployment of ground ladders or aerial?p137

A

rescue situations

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272
Q

spot so that fire streams can be deployed to protect exposure avoiding high levels of radiant heat, falling embers, or other products of combustion.p137

A

exposures

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273
Q

area of limited access first arriving should consider laying their own supply line and laying out of the way of later arriving units.p137

A

water supply

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274
Q

considering wind direction, position apparatus ___ whenever possible.p138

A

upwind

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275
Q

regarding terrain always attempt to park ?p138

A

hard surfacesuphill(except wildland fires)

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276
Q

spot in location safe from incident hazards, protect personnel from traffic by blocking lanes where fire fighter operate plus 1 additional lane?p138

A

roadway response

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277
Q

spot either at corner of the building or 1 1/2 the height of the building away?p138

A

structural collapse or suspected

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278
Q

aids in identifying buildings with high potential for collapse?p139

A

pre-incident planning

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279
Q

old and poorly maintained, interior collapse, reinforcement rods identified by ornamental stars or bolts, bulging walls, traveling exterior cracks and falling brick indicate?p139

A

large scale structural collapse

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280
Q

apparatus, equipment, and personnel operating within ____ of the base of a high-rise fire may need protection from falling debris.p139

A

200 feet

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281
Q

pumpers yield an optimum position close to a building for ?p140

A

aerials

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282
Q

aerials are of no use beyond their?p140

A

maximum reach

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283
Q

“inside/outside” method building less than 5 stories tall?p140

A

pumper/aerial

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284
Q

“inside/outside” method building greater than 5 stories tall?p140

A

aerial/pumper

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285
Q

point which FD can connect into sprinkler/standpipe to boost water pressure and flow in the system?p141

A

fire department connection (FDC)

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286
Q

connection consist of a clappered siamese with 2+ 2 1/2 inch intakes or 1 ldh (4 in+) intake?p141

A

fire department connection (FDC)

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287
Q

to shuttle water between a source and an emergency scene using mobile water supply apparatus?p141

A

relay

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288
Q

acquiring water from a static source and transferring it into a pump that is above the source’s level?p141

A

drafting

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289
Q

atmospheric pressure on the water surface forces the water into the pump where a partial vacuum was created during?p141

A

drafting

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290
Q

supply of water at rest that does not provide a pressure head for fire suppression but may be employed as a suction source for fire pumps?p141

A

static water supply

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291
Q

water in a reservoir, pond, or cistern are examples of?p141

A

static water supply

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292
Q

friction loss due to distance and elevation are major considerations when supporting?p141

A

elevated streams

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293
Q

to supply a FDC most efficiently, a pumper should position as closely as possible to the?p141

A

water source

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294
Q

hydrants are usually in close proximity to FDC, if distance is great other options are?p141

A

relay or water shuttle

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295
Q

drivers should not _____ a non potable(non drinkable) and a potable(drinkable) water source.p141

A

cross-contaminate

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296
Q

may supply apparatus at the fireground directly or may serve as source pumpers for relay or water shuttle ops?p141

A

drafting pumper

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297
Q

permanently installed pipe that has a pumper suction connections installed at the static water sources to speed drafting operations?p142

A

dry hydrant

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298
Q

*any personnel working near the edge of bodies of water are required to wear a?p142

A

personal flotation device (PFD)

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299
Q

most common source of water?p142

A

fire hydrant

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300
Q

not designed/intended to be used under positive pressure conditions(coupling failure or hose rupture)?p142

A

hard intake hose

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301
Q

*only hard intake hose that has been designed to withstand ___ ___ should be connected to a fire hydrant.p143

A

positive pressure

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302
Q

hose used to connect a fire department pumper/or a portable pump to a nearby water source; may be soft/hard?p143

A

intake hose 10-50ft, 100ft

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303
Q

operation where a strong hydrant is used to supply two pumpers by connecting the pumpers intake-to-intake, 2nd pumper uses excess water.p144

A

dual pumping

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304
Q

short relay operation in which the pumper taking in water from the supply source pumps into the intake of the second which boosts pressure even higher?p144

A

tandem pumping

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305
Q

when opening hydrants stand _____ to prevent injury should a coupling disconnect/fail.p144

A

behind

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306
Q

2 pumpers are in close proximity and both are being used as attack pumpers?p144

A

dual pumping

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307
Q

form of relay pumping, pumpers close together rather than evenly spaced, when pressures higher than a single engine can supply?p144

A

tandem pumping

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308
Q

supplying high-rise sprinkler/standpipe; short distance from water source, but great from fire (up to 300ft)= ___ pumping?p145

A

tandem pumping

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309
Q

line, area, or zone where undeveloped wildland area meets a human development area?p146

A

wildland/urban interface

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310
Q

___ pumping is generally used to increase volume, while ___ pumping is most often undertaken to increase pressure.p146

A

relay; tandem

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311
Q

positioning apparatus for fighting wildland fires differs greatly from structural fire fighting considerations:p146

A

reposition often

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312
Q

point from which a fire line is begun; usually natural or man-made barrier that prevents fire spread and the possibility of the crew being “flanked” while constructing fire line?p147

A

anchor point

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313
Q

roads, lakes, ponds, or previously burned areas?p147

A

anchor points

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314
Q

ability of an apparatus to traverse a body of standing water?p148

A

fording

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315
Q

-the act of making a fire safe after it is controlled by extinguishing/removing burning material along/near the control line;overhaul of fire/hazmat scenep148

A

mop-up

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316
Q

driving the shoulders of railroad beds is dangerous tactic as coarse rock making up these beds may cause?p148

A

tire damage, sliding and rollovers

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317
Q

while wildland fire fighting a portion of the onboard water tank should be reserved for?p148

A

protection of vehicle and crew

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318
Q

resources responding to an incident are held in reserve at an away location while awaiting assignment?p150

A

staging

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319
Q

used on all multi company incidents, first arriving of each type proceed to scene while others stage 1-2 blocks away(closest intersection)?p150

A

level 1 staging

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320
Q

used on large scale incidents where a larger number of companies are responding; are sent to a specified remote location to await assignment?p150

A

level 2 staging

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321
Q

company officer of the first arriving company at staging takes command?p150

A

staging area manager

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322
Q

location where incident management logistics functions are coordinated and administered; only 1 per incident?p150

A

base

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323
Q

policies that allow for orderly placement of vehicles and enable the IC to maximize the potential of each apparatus?p150

A

staging policies

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324
Q

apparatus should not travel opposing the normal flow of traffic on highways or ramps unless ?p151

A

police have closed roadway to traffic

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325
Q

use sirens only to clear ____ moving traffic?p151

A

slow

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326
Q

fire apparatus are often placed to act as a shield between ?p151

A

oncoming traffic and firefighters working on roadway

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327
Q

side mounted pump panels should be positioned facing the ___ ___?p153

A

incident scene

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328
Q

consider when responding to any potential hazmat incident:p153

A

wind speed/directionapproach upwind/uphillidentify before approachdistance until identified

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329
Q

system of barriers surrounding designated areas at emergency scene, intended to limit exposures and facilitate mitigation?p153

A

hazard-control zones

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330
Q

with the changing dynamics of an incident control zone may be ?p153

A

expanded or contracted

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331
Q

hazardous area immediately surrounding the incident site; ppe/equipment, tech-level personnel?p154

A

hot zone (restricted, exclusion, red)

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332
Q

area between the hot and cold zones that usually contains the decontamination corridor; lesser ppe than hot zone?p154

A

warm zone(limited access, yellow)

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333
Q

safe area outside the warm zone where no contamination is expected; IC post/support functions?p154

A

cold zone(support, green)

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334
Q

never position apparatus on or too close to tracks; FD personnel must consider all railroad tracks to be?p154

A

“live”

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335
Q

for a fully loaded train to come to a complete stop it may require?p154

A

1-2 miles

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336
Q

*apparatus should maintain a clear zone of at least ____ from railroad tracks to prevent contact with objects on railroad cars.p155

A

30 feet

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337
Q

when positioning apparatus at emergency medical incidents consider:p155

A

leave ambulance enough roomspot on stable surface that supports weightuse apparatus as shield between work area/traffic

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338
Q

H2O is a compound(molecule) formed by 2 hydrogen atoms combined with 1 oxygen atom?p167

A

water

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339
Q

below 32ä‹Š (0 ä‹€) the freezing point of water it converts to a solid state of matter?p167

A

ice

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340
Q

above 212ä‹Š(100ä‹€) the boiling point of water it converts to a gas?p167

A

water vapor or steam

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341
Q

for fire protection purposes ordinary fresh water is considered to weigh?p167

A

64.2 lb/ft3 or 8.3 lb/gal

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342
Q

it can cool/absorb heat from fires as well as smother(exclude oxygen) from fire?p168

A

ways water extinguishes fire

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343
Q

fire in a closed space where water converts to steam; combustible liquids whose specific gravity is higher that one(heavier than water) will be?p168

A

smothered by water

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344
Q

advantages of water:p169

A

heat-absorbing capacitylarge amount of heat required convert water to steamgreater area exposure to water=greater heat absorbedat 212ä‹Š water=steam 1700 x original volumeinexpensive and readily available

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345
Q

disadvantages of water:p169

A

high surface tensionreactive: fuels,metals, sodium metal, triethyl aluminumopacity/reflectivity-radiant heat passesfreezes in cold weather climate(<32ä‹Š)electrical conductorrelatively heave at 8.3 lbs/gal

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346
Q

force per unit area exerted by a liquid or gas measured in pound per square inch(psi) or kilopascals(kPa)?p170

A

pressure

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347
Q

simple measure of weight, usually expressed in pounds or kilograms?p170

A

force

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348
Q

speed at which a fluid travels through a hose/pipe is?p172

A

velocity

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349
Q

fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it acts?p172

A

1st principle of pressure

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350
Q

fluid pressure at a point in fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions?p172

A

2nd principle of pressure

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351
Q

pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions?p172

A

3rd principle of pressure

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352
Q

in a closed 100ft pipe at 100psi, top of the pipe is 100psi but the bottom is 143.4 psi?p172-173

A

weight of water

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353
Q

the pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is often proportional to its depth? taller=heavierp173

A

4th principle of pressure

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354
Q

the pressure of a liquid in an open vessels proportional to the density of the liquid? 1’ mercury=13.55’ water p173

A

5th principle of pressure

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355
Q

the pressure of a liquid at the bottom of a vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel?p174

A

6th principle of pressure

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356
Q

the ___ pressure the surrounds the earth has depth and density, exerting pressure on everything.p174

A

atmospheric

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357
Q

atmospheric pressure is greatest at ____ altitudes and least at very____ altitudes.p174

A

low; high

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358
Q

atmospheric pressure at sea level is?p174

A

14.7 psi(100 kPa)

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359
Q

notation for an actual atmospheric pressure reading is?p174

A

pounds per square inch absolute (psia)

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360
Q

for purpose of this text psi means psig(pounds per square in gauge).p174-175

A

sea level 10 psi = 10 psig + 14.7psi (AP), gauge is calibrated to zero at ambient pressure.

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361
Q

a pressure that is somewhat less than atmospheric pressure; needed to facilitate drafting from static source?p175

A

vacuum

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362
Q

alternative term for pressure, especially pressure due to elevation?p175

A

head1 foot äåÊ¥Ÿ = 0.434 psiäåÊ¥Ÿ

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363
Q

absolute zero pressure is called?p175

A

perfect vacuum

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364
Q

gauge read 10 inches of Hg of vacuum on the compound gauge, it actually indicates less than?p175

A

atmospheric pressure

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365
Q

water supply is 100 feet above the hydrant opening then is?p175

A

100ft of head

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366
Q

to convert head/ft to head/pressure divide feet by 2.304(# of feet 1 psi will raise 1 square inch column of water).p175

A

100 of head/2.304 = 43.4 psi

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367
Q

stored potential energy available to force water through pipes, fittings, hose, and adapters?p175

A

static pressure

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368
Q

rest or without motion?p175

A

static

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369
Q

water pressure may be produced by?p175

A

elevated water supply, atmospheric pressure, or pump

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370
Q

the portion of the total available pressure not used to overcome friction loss or gravity while forcing water through pipes, fittings, hoses, and adapters?p176

A

residual pressure

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371
Q

height of a point above sea level or other reference point?p176

A

elevation

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372
Q

geographic position of a location or object in relation to sea level, may be above, sea level, or below?p176

A

altitude

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373
Q

gain or loss of pressure in a hose line due to a change in elevation(aka elevation loss)?p176

A

elevation pressure

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374
Q

pressure found in water distribution system during normal consumption demands?p176

A

normal operating pressure

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375
Q

difference between static pressure and normal operating pressure is ____ caused by water flowing through pipes, valves, and fittings.p176

A

friction

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376
Q

while water is flowing from a discharge opening, the forward velocity pressure is considered?p176

A

flow pressure

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377
Q

above ____ the lessening of atmospheric pressure means FD pumpers must work increasing harder to produce pressures required for fire streams.p176

A

2000 ft (sea level - 2000ft little affect)

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378
Q

above sea level atmospheric pressure decreases approximately _____ for every _____.p176

A

0.5 psi; 1000 ft

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379
Q

loss of pressure created by the turbulence of water moving against the interior walls of the hose or pipe ?p177

A

friction loss

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380
Q

causes of friction loss in fire hose:p177

A

movement of water molecules against each otherlinings of hose/delaminating hosecouplingssharp bends/kinkschange in hose size/orifice by adaptersimproper gasket size

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381
Q

friction loss in older hose may be much greater that of brand new hose, as much as?p177

A

50% greater

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382
Q

cause of friction loss in piping:p177

A

movement of water molecules against each otherinside surface of pipingpipe fittings valves

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383
Q

if all conditions are the same, friction loss varies directly with the length of the hose or pipe.p178

A

1st principle of friction loss100’=10psi and 200’=20psi

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384
Q

when hoses are the same size, friction loss varies approximately with the square of the increase in the velocity of the flow.p178

A

2nd principle of friction losshose lenght/diameter =X flowing 200 gpm= 3.2psihose lenght/diameter =X flowing 400 gpm= 12.8psihose lenght/diameter =X flowing 600 gpm= 28.8psiflow doubles/friction loss squares

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385
Q

for the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the fifth power of the diameter of the hose.p179

A

3rd principle of friction lossFL 3’ hose is 0.4 that of 2 1/2’ (ground rules .5)2.5x2.5x2.5x2.5x2.5=97.66/3x3x3x3x3=243 =0.4FL 4’ hose is 0.24 that of 3’ 3x3x3x3x3=243 / 4x4x4x4x4=1024 243/1024 = 0.24

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386
Q

using 4 inch supply hose instead of 3 inch equates to a friction loss reduction of?p179

A

76% (FL 4’ is 0.24 that of 3’)

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387
Q

for given velocity, friction loss is approximately the same, regardless of the pressure on the water.p179

A

4th principle of friction loss

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388
Q

with water being virtually incompressible, a pressure of ___ is required to reduce its volume _____ percent?p179

A

30,000 psi; 1%

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389
Q

the smaller the hose, the ___ the velocity needed to deliver the same volume?p179

A

greater

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390
Q

produces a stream that normally has no use in fire fighting?p180

A

open fire hose (open butt)

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391
Q

if velocity is increase beyond practical limits, the friction will become so great that the entire system is agitated by resistance causing a degree of turbulence known as?p181

A

critical velocity

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392
Q

forced created by the rapid deceleration of water; causes a violent increase in pressure powerful enough to rupture piping or damage fixtures?p181

A

water hammer

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393
Q

to prevent water hammer when water is flowing ?p181

A

slowly close nozzles, valves, and hose clamps

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394
Q

when a large volume of water is needed, FD can request an increase to water pressure from?p182

A

water utility department

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395
Q

the primary water supply can be obtained from?p182-183

A

surface water(rivers and lakes) or ground water(wells or water producing springs)

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396
Q

engineer estimates of total amount of water needed for domestic, industrial and fire fighting use?p183

A

community water needs

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397
Q

in cities the domestic and industrial water requirements far exceed that for?p183

A

fire protection

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398
Q

in small towns the requirements for _____ may exceed that for domestic and industrial.p183

A

fire protection

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399
Q

three methods of moving water in a system?p183

A

direct pumping systemgravity systemcombination system

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400
Q

most community use a combination system of?p183

A

direct pumping and gravity

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401
Q

a dependable ____ ____ involves reliable, duplicated equipment and proper sized, strategically located storage containers.p184

A

combination system

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402
Q

part of an overall water supply system that receives the water from the pumping station and delivers it throughout the area to be served?p184

A

distribution system

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403
Q

water supply system that utilizes lateral feeders for improved distribution?p184

A

grid system

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404
Q

fire hydrant that receives water from only one direction is known as ?p184

A

dead-end hydrant

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405
Q

fire hydrant receives water from 2 or more directions it is said to have ?p184

A

circulating feed or a looped line

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406
Q

grid system consists of:p184-185

A

primary feederssecondary feedersdistributors

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407
Q

the function of a valve in a water distribution system is to provide means for controlling the?p185

A

flow os water through the distribution piping

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408
Q

type of valve use to control underground water mains found on the supply main of installed fire protection systems?p186

A

post indicator valve (PIV)

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409
Q

a type of valve for a sprinkler system in which the position of the center screw indicates whether the valve is open or closed?p186

A

outside screw and yoke (OS&Y) valve

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410
Q

to keep them in good condition valves should be inspected and operated at least?p186

A

once a year

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411
Q

one of the most important factors in the water supply system is the water department’s ability to promptly operate the valves during?p186

A

an emergency or breakdown of equipment

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412
Q

visually shows whether the gate or valve seat is open, closed, or partially closed?p186

A

indicating valvesPIV- “open” or “shut”OS&Y- threads out open, threads in closed

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413
Q

valves in the private fire protection system are usually of the?p186

A

indicating valves

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414
Q

most common type of valves used on most public distribution systems; installed in valve boxes or manholes?p186

A

nonindicating valves

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415
Q

control valves in the public water distribution system are generally?p187

A

gate valves

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416
Q

nonrising-stem gate valves should be marked with a number indicating the number of turns necessary to ?p187

A

completely close the valve

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417
Q

water pipe that is used underground is generally made of:p187

A

cast iron, ductile iron, asbestos cement, steel, plastic, or concrete

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418
Q

adverse effects of encrustation and sedimentation can be reduced by?p188

A

flushing hydrants periodically

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419
Q

average amount of water used per day based on the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over a period of one year?p188

A

average daily consumption (ADC)

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420
Q

maximum total amount of water that was used during a 24 hour interval within a 3 year period(unusual situations not considered)?p188

A

maximum daily consumption (MDC)

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421
Q

maximum amount of water used in any 1 hour interval over the course of a day?p188

A

peak hourly consumption (PHC)

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422
Q

in general the private water supply system exists to provide water:p188

A

strictly for fire protection purposesfor sanitary and fire protection purposesfor fire protection and manufacturing processes

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423
Q

most commonly private water supply systems receive their water from?p188

A

municipal water supply system

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424
Q

if private source of water for fire protection is non-potable then measures must be taken to prevent?p188

A

cross contamination of municipal water supply system (back flow prevention measures)

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425
Q

interconnecting potable and non-potable water systems is restricted by the ?p189

A

environmental protection agency(EPA) and numerous state and local water quality codes

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426
Q

advantages to having separate piping arrangements in a private water supply system?p189

A

control over the water supply sourcefire protection or domestic/industrial are unaffected by interruptions to each other

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427
Q

if there is a question about the reliability of a private water supply system for fire fighting operations ?p189

A

augment the private water supply by:relaying from municipal systemdrafting from static source

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428
Q

fire service operates three types of nozzles to produce three basic fire streams: p193

A

solidfogbroken

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429
Q

stream that stays together as a solid mass, not to be confused with straight stream; produce by fixed orifice/smooth bore nozzle?p194

A

solid fire stream

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430
Q

nozzle pressure and size of the discharge orifice determine the flow and reach of a?p194

A

solid stream

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431
Q

solid stream handlines should generally be operated at a maximum of?p194

A

50 psi

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432
Q

master stream appliances should generally be operated at a maximum of?p194

A

80 psi

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433
Q

formula for discharge rate ?p195

A

GPM=29.7x d2xäš_NPGPM=discharge in gallons per minute29.7=constantd=diameter of orifice in inchesNP= nozzle pressure in psi

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434
Q

water stream of finely divided particles used for fire control?p196

A

fog stream

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435
Q

fog stream may be produce by :p196

A

deflection at the periphery, impinging jets of water or combination of both

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436
Q

angles of fog stream?p196

A

narrow fog = 15-45 degreeswide fog = 45-80 degrees

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437
Q

the reach of a fog stream is directly related to:p197

A

width, size of water particles(droplets), wind, volume of water flowing

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438
Q

designed to flow a specific volume of water on all stream patterns at a specific nozzle discharge pressure?p197

A

constant flow fog nozzle

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439
Q

feature a periphery-deflected stream and has adjustable pattern range; designed to operate at 100 psi, but some may at 50 psi?p197

A

constant flow fog nozzle

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440
Q

designed for adjustable gallonage settings; many are designed to flow gallonage indicated at?p197

A

selectable gallonage nozzles; 100 psi

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441
Q

with selectable gallonage nozzles if driver does not supply the proper pressure, the handline will not achieve ?p197

A

gallonage selected at the nozzle

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442
Q

type of variable flow nozzle flow nozzle with the ability to change patterns while maintaining the same nozzle pressure?p198

A

automatic fog nozzles

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443
Q

most automatic fog nozzles are designed to operate at ____, but some models may operate at _____?p198

A

100 psi; 75 psi

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444
Q

all hoselines must be supplied with 8adequate pressure, especially those with ____, or they will provide sufficient _____ for fire suppression even though the stream may appear well formed.p198

A

automatic nozzles; flow

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445
Q

within the limitation of its design an ____ ____ maintains its constant operating pressure even if the pump discharge pressure ____ above this level.p199

A

automatic nozzle; rises

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446
Q

produce a stream with significant forward velocity, but a relatively low volume of water delivery?p199

A

high pressure fog nozzles

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447
Q

nozzles best suited for wildland fire and not recommended for structural fire fighting due to low water flow of 8-15 gpm; up to 800 psi?p199

A

high pressure fog nozzle

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448
Q

solid, fog, or broken with 350 gpm maximum flow; ranging in size from 3/4 inch “booster” to nozzle suited for 3 inch diameter hoseline?p199

A

handline nozzles

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449
Q

capable of water flow in excess of 350 gpm?p199

A

master stream nozzle

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450
Q

operated during incidents where handlines would be ineffective, conditions require defensive posture, or personnel are limited?p199

A

master stream appliances

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451
Q

smooth bore master stream?p199

A

80 psi

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452
Q

fog nozzle master stream?p199

A

100 psi

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453
Q

designed for a feed position, _____ generally change the direction of water through the device in order to reduce the nozzle reaction and achieve delivery of the fire stream?p199

A

master stream appliances

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454
Q

three basic type of master stream appliances are?p200

A

fixedcombinationportable

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455
Q

commonly called “deck guns” permanently mounted on the apparatus?p200

A

fixed monitors

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456
Q

may be used in a mount on the apparatus or removed and used remotely from vehicle?p200

A

combination monitors

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457
Q

stored on the apparatus for deployment to the location where they may be used?p200

A

portable monitors

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458
Q

may be pre-plumbed and permanently attached to and aerial or designed as a detachable appliance?p200

A

elevated master streams

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459
Q

movement of ladder pipes is limited to a ____ motion accomplished by placing a firefighter at the tip or using ropes?p200

A

vertical up and down

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460
Q

pre-piped waterways generally feature a master stream that may be remotely controlled from the turntable and is generally able to move?p200

A

up and down and side to side

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461
Q

most often lowered through holes or other openings to the cellar of an occupancy, also for attic or void space fire?p200

A

cellar nozzles

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462
Q

cellar nozzles may be referred to as ___, but they have unique flow rates that differ from cellar nozzles.p201

A

distributor

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463
Q

nozzle with an angled, case hardened steel tip that can be driven through a wall, roof, or ceiling to extinguish hidden fire?p201

A

piercing nozzle(aka piercing applicator, puncture, penetrating)

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464
Q

commonly used in aircraft fire fighting, car fires, voids, attics, other areas inaccessible to standard fire streams?p201

A

piercing nozzles

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465
Q

impinging jet nozzle flow approximately 125gpm at 100 psi, 3-6 ft hollow steel 1 1/2 inch rod, with striking surface opposite to the tip.p201

A

piercing nozzle

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466
Q

designed to suppress fires in chimney flues; supplied by a booster hose?p201

A

chimney nozzle

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467
Q

slid piece of brass or steel with many small impinging holes; 1.5-3 gpm at 100 psi; very fine mist?p201-202

A

chimney nozzle

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468
Q

counterforce directed against a person/device holding a nozzle by the velocity of water being discharged?p202

A

nozzle reaction

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469
Q

nozzle reaction demonstrates Newton’s third law of motion:p202

A

for every action there is an equal or opposite reaction

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470
Q

*___ nozzle reaction may seriously injure firefighters and hamper fire suppression efforts.p202

A

excessive

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471
Q

formula for solid stream nozzle reaction p203

A

NR=1.57xd(2)xNPNR=nozzle reaction in pounds1.57=constantd=nozzle diameter inchesNP=nozzle pressure psi

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472
Q

formula used to achieve the approximate solid stream nozzle reaction:p203

A

NR=Q/3NR=nozzle reaction in poundQ=flow of water in gpm flowing through nozzle3=constant

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473
Q

formula for fog stream nozzle reactionp204

A

NR=0.0505xQxäš_NPNR=nozzle reaction in pounds0.0505=constant Q=total nozzle flow in gpmNP=nozzle pressure in psi

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474
Q

the primary function of the driver/operator on the fireground is to?p209

A

provide water to attack crews in sufficient volume and pressure to achieve control and extinguishment of fires

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475
Q

to effectively provide water for fire streams it is necessary to know the amount of _____ in the fire hose and _____ due to elevation?p201

A

friction loss; pressure loss/gain

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476
Q

friction loss is caused by a number of factors including the condition of the hose and couplings, kinks, but the primary consideration is?p210

A

volume of water flowing per minute

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477
Q

friction loss and elevation pressure loss are combined with the loss associated with appliances is?p210

A

total pressure loss(TPL)

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478
Q

friction loss may be determined by?p211

A

calculations or performing tests

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479
Q

relies on the use of mathematical equations or field application methods that may not be completely accurate?p211

A

calculation method

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480
Q

only truly accurate method, measuring the pressure at both ends of the hoseline and subtracting the difference?p211

A

performing tests

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481
Q

formula for friction lossp212

A

FL=CQ(2)LFL= friction loss psiC=friction loss coefficientQ=flow rate in hundreds gpm (gpm/100)L=hose length in hundreds (feet/100)

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482
Q

generic term applied to any nozzle, wye, siamese, deluge monitor, or other piece of hardware used in conjunction with fire hose to deliver water?p213

A

appliance

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483
Q

friction loss in cases where total flow through the appliance is less than 350 gpm is considered?p213

A

insignificant

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484
Q

friction loss for each appliance in a hose assembly when flowing less than 350 gpm p213

A

0 psi

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485
Q

friction loss for each appliance(other than master stream devices) in a hose assembly when flowing 350 gpm or greater p213

A

10 psi

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486
Q

friction loss for all master stream appliances regardless of flow p213

A

25 psi

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487
Q

created by the height difference between the nozzle and the pump and must be factored into total pressure loss(TPL)?p213

A

elevation pressure

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488
Q

formula for elevation pressure lossp214

A

EP=0.5HEP=elevation pressure psi0.5=constantH=height in feet

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489
Q

formula elevation pressure loss buildingp214

A

EP=(5psi)x(# of stories-1)

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490
Q

whether used for supply or attack line presents the simplest friction loss calculation?p215

A

single hoseline

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491
Q

using more than one hoseline of equal length and equal diameter friction loss calculations need only to be made for one line?p215

A

multiple hoselines equal length

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492
Q

2 1/2”, 3”, 4” hoseline eyed into 2 or more smaller lines for fire attack, only one of the wyed calculated if they are same NP, length, and diameter?p215

A

wyed hoselines equal length

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493
Q

to accommodate larger volumes of water and keep friction loss rates reasonable, two or more parallel hoselines may be laid?p216

A

siamesed hoselines equal length

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494
Q

siamese hoselines friction loss is approximately ____ less than that of single hoseline at the same NP.p216

A

25.00%

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495
Q

many FD have predetermined pressure that a driver is expected to supply the?p216

A

FDC(25 psi)

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496
Q

driver must calculate the friction loss for each for each hoseline supplied by separate discharges to individual nozzles?p216

A

multiple hoselines unequal length

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497
Q

fed by a large diameter hoseline that supplies several smaller attack lines?p217

A

manifold appliance

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498
Q

when hose lengths/diameter are unequal the total pressure loss in the system is based on the?p217

A

highest pressure loss in any of the lines

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499
Q

unless each manifold discharge is equipped with a pressure gauge, _____ hoselines is based on guesswork and may endanger attack crews on the line.p27

A

gating down

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500
Q

calculating pressure loss with a master stream add?p217

A

25 psi

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501
Q

pressure loss in aerial device; elevation must be considered as part of the total pressure loss?p218

A

25 psi

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502
Q

actual pressure of the water as it leaves the pump and enters the hoseline; total amount of pressure being discharged by the pump? p218

A

pump pressure discharge (PDP)

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503
Q

must be sufficient to overcome all pressure loss? p218

A

PDP

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504
Q

formula for pump discharge pressurep218

A

PDP=NP+TPLPDP= pump discharge pressureNP=nozzle pressureTPL=total pressure loss(friction, elevation, appliances)

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505
Q

actual amount of pressure being produced by the pump(difference between intake pressure and discharge pressure)?p219

A

net pump discharge pressure(NPDP, engine/net pressure)

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506
Q

formula for NPDPp219

A

NPDP(pps)=PDP-Intake ReadingNPDPpps= net pump discharge pressure from positive pressure sourcePDP=pump discharge pressure

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507
Q

safe and efficient NP for common fire streams:p219

A

solid handline=50 psisolid master=80 psifog=100 psipressure fo= 50 or 75 psi

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508
Q

friction loss coefficients-single hoselinep222

A

1 3/4” with 1 1/2” coupling=15.5(15)2 1/2”=23” with 2 1/2” coupling= 0.8(1)4”=0.25”=0.08(0.1)

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509
Q

friction loss coefficients-siamesed lines equal lengthp229

A

two 2 1/2”=0.5three 2 1/2”=0.22two 3”=0.2one 3” and one 2 1/2”=0.3two 2 1/2” and 3”=0.16two 3” and one 2 1/2”=0.12

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510
Q

mechanical device installed in a discharge line that senses the amount of water flowing, reads out gpm?p281

A

flowmeter

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511
Q

methods for determining pressure loss and PDP:p281

A

flowmetershydraulic calculatorspump chartscondensed Q methodgpm flowing

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512
Q

based on the _____ standard, for every discharge outlet equipped with a flowmeter, a _____ _____ shall also be provided?p282

A

nfpa 1901; pressure gauge

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513
Q

flowmeters must display flow in increments of?p282

A

10 gpm or less

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514
Q

two most common types of flowmeters to the fire service?p282

A

paddlewheel and spring probe

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515
Q

mounted at the top of a straight section of the discharge pipe so that only a small portion of the device extends into the waterway?p282

A

paddlewheel

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516
Q

sensor measures speed of wheel spin and translates to flow measurement; placement reduces impediment of water flow and lessens chances of damage from debris?p282

A

paddlewheel

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517
Q

employs a stainless steel spring probe to detect water movement in the discharge piping?p282

A

spring probe

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518
Q

the greater the flow the more the spring bends sending an electrical charge to display unit; one simple moving part, require very little maintenance?p282

A

spring probe

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519
Q

flowmeter in good working order should be accurate to a tolerance of ?p282

A

+/- 3%( 100 gpm=103/97)

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520
Q

each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within ____of the control valve?p282

A

6 inches

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521
Q

pressure gauge is not mounted at ___ location, the flowmeter must be mounted within ____ adjacent to the pressure gauge.p282

A

6 inch; 2 inches

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522
Q

apparatus monitoring device addition information displayed:p282-283

A

flow through specific dischargetotal water flow through pump “real time”total water flowed through pump for incident durationamount of foam being flowed

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523
Q

who determines when to use each type of flowmeter?p283

A

authority having jurisdiction (AHJ)

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524
Q

driver may use flowmeter reading to identify waterflow issues:p283

A

kink of partially open valve-flowmeter will register a change in reading burst- attack team sends message saying volume suddenly decreased without change in flowmeter

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525
Q

when engaged in a relay pumping operation,driver may feed supply line without having to know volume of water flowing from receiving pumper? p283

A

using a flowmeter and the pumper’s master discharge gauge during initial phase of relay setup.increase throttle=flowmeter will rise, continue to increase until flowmeter no longer increases=correct discharge pressure

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526
Q

intake pressure reading cannot be allowed to drop below?p283

A

20 psi

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527
Q

apparatus equipped with electronic pressure governors involved in relay pumping, with the exception of attack pumper should be in ?p283

A

revolution per minute(rpm) mode

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528
Q

number and types of nozzles on line operating from the standpipe may be factored by adding the ___ ___ for each nozzle and pumping the ____ of water that matches.p283

A

flow rate; volume

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529
Q

when a line is shut down electronic pressure governors set in psi mode?p284

A

should compensate

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530
Q

when a line is shut down electronic pressure governors set in rpm mode?p284

A

will not automatically compensate

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531
Q

charts carried on fire apparatus to aid the pump operator in determining the proper pump discharge pressure when supplying hoselines?p284

A

pump charts

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532
Q

determine the pump discharge pressure required for virtually any hose layout without relying on mental calculations?p284

A

hydraulic calculator

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533
Q

slide or dial that can be moved to cover or reveal rates of flow, size of hose, and length of hose layout in order to come to a conclusion to a problem?p284

A

manual hydraulic calculator

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534
Q

specially programmed to allow you to input the variables of each hose layout, including length, diameter, and elevation?p284

A

electronic hydraulic calculator

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535
Q

may be used for operations in which the friction loss can be determined for 3-, 4-, or 5-inch hose; formulas cannot be used with metric measurements?p284

A

condensed Q formula

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536
Q

condensed Q formula 3”p287

A

FL=Q(2)FL=friction loss in psi for 100’Q=flow rate in hundreds (gpm/100)

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537
Q

friction loss results will be 20% greater than coefficient formula(in 1000ft of 3” the difference may be up tp 50 psi) ?p287

A

condensed Q formula 3”

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538
Q

condensed Q formula 4”p287

A

FL=Q(2)/5FL=friction loss in psi for 100’Q=flow rate in hundreds (gpm/100)

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539
Q

condensed Q formula 5”p288

A

FL=Q(2)/15FL=friction loss in psi for 100’Q=flow rate in hundreds (gpm/100)

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540
Q

applicable to both solid and fog streams and is calculated using flow in gpm?p288

A

GPM flowing(-10 method)250 gpm= 25-10=15 psi/100’

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541
Q

gpm flowing method is not applicable to metric system and 2 1/2” hoselines flowing less than?p288

A

160 gpm

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542
Q

gpm flowing:FL of 1 1/2” =FL of 2 1/2” flowing x4 gpmp288-289

A

1 1/2” 50gpm=10 psi/100’2 1/2” 200gpm=10 psi/100’

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543
Q

gpm flowing: 1 1/2” 50-75 gpm and 2 1/2” 200-300 gpmp289

A

FL increases 2 psi for every 5 gpm-1 1/2” and 20gpm-2 1/2”50/200 gpm=10 psi55/220 gpm=12 psi60/240 gpm=14 psi

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544
Q

gpm flowing: 1 1/2” 80-100 gpm and 2 1/2” 320-400 gpmp289

A

FL increases 3 psi for every 5 gpm-1 1/2” and 20gpm-2 1/2”80/320 gpm=23 psi85/340 gpm=26psi90/360 gpm=29 psi

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545
Q

gpm flowing: 1 1/2” 105-125 gpm and 2 1/2” 420-500 gpmp289

A

FL increases 4 psi for every 5 gpm-1 1/2” and 20gpm-2 1/2”105/420 gpm=39 psi110/440 gpm=43 psi115/460 gpm=47 psi

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546
Q

self-priming pump that utilizes a piston on interlocking rotors to move a given amount of fluid through the pump chamber with each stroke of the piston or rotation?p295

A

positive displacement pump

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547
Q

early pumps used in the fire service where a handle was pumped operating a piston in a cylinder forcing water to pump out?p295

A

hand-operated piston pump

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548
Q

_____ ____ followed, using a hand crank to to rotate a gear forcing water through the pump and hoses.p295

A

rotary pumps

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549
Q

rotary pumps were replaced by?p295

A

single and double action piston pumps also referred to as positive displacement pumps

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550
Q

these pumps produce the same flow at a given speed regardless of the discharge pressure?p295

A

“constant flow machines”-positive displacement pumps

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551
Q

modern FD pumpers are equipped with ___ ___ as their main pump.P296

A

centrifugal pumps

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552
Q

this type of pump does not use positive action to force water from the pump; rather, it depends on the velocity of the water produced by the centrifugal force to provide the pressure?p296

A

centrifugal pumps

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553
Q

positive displacement pump has been replaced by the ___ ___ as the main pumping unit on fire apparatus.p296

A

centrifugal pumps

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554
Q

continue to play a vital role on modern apparatus because of their ability to pump air and foam; used as priming devices during drafting?p296

A

positive displacement pump

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555
Q

positive displacement pump using one or more reciprocating pistons to force water from the pump chambers?p296

A

piston pump

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556
Q

no longer used as high-capacity pumps; some still used for high pressure stream fire fighting; can provide pressures up to 1000 psi; multi cylinder PTO driven pump?p296

A

piston pumps

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557
Q

the simplest of pumps; in modern apparatus confined to small capacity, booster type pumps; low volume high pressure pumps; and priming pumps?p296

A

rotary pumps

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558
Q

driven by either a small electric motor or through a clutch that extends from the apparatus drive shaft?p296

A

rotary pumps(gear or vane construction)

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559
Q

consist of two gears that rotate in a tightly meshed pattern inside a watertight case?p296

A

rotary gear pump

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560
Q

gears form watertight/airtight pockets as they force water/air out of of the discharge chamber and as they return to intake side no water/air returns?p296

A

rotary gear pump

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561
Q

total amount of water that can be pumped by a rotary gear pump depends on?p297

A

the size of the pockets in the gears and speed of rotation

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562
Q

rotary gear pump build up pressure therefore to handle excess pressure there must be?p297

A

pressure relief device

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563
Q

susceptible to damage from normal wear and tear as well as from sand or other debris?p297

A

rotary gear pump

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564
Q

rotary gear pump casing is made from?p297

A

strong alloy(cast iron)

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565
Q

to prevent damage to casings, gears are made from?p297

A

bronze or other soft metal

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566
Q

a rotor with attached is mounted of-center inside the pump housing; pressure is imparted on the water as the space between the rotor and pump housing wall decreases?p298

A

rotary vane pump

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567
Q

constructed with moveable that automatically compensate for wear, maintaining a tighter fit with closer clearance as the pump is used?p298

A

rotary vane pump

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568
Q

most common type of pumps used to prime a centrifugal fire pump?p298

A

rotary vane pump

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569
Q

self adjusting feature makes the ___ ___ ___ much more efficient at pumping air than a rotary gear pump.p298

A

rotary vane pump

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570
Q

pumps cause air being evacuated from the intake side reduces pressure creating a vacuum?p298

A

rotary pumps

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571
Q

these pumps should be operated during routine apparatus check, because they are prone to failure if no exercised regularly?p298

A

rotary pumps

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572
Q

pump with one or more impellers that rotate and utilize centrifugal force to move water; most modern fire pumps are this type?

A

centrifugal pump

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573
Q

since it does not pump a definite amount of water with each revolution it is classified as a?p298

A

nonpositive displacement pump

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574
Q

self-priming, deliver a definite volume of water or air, and exhaust air from the pump and deliver water?p295

A

positive displacement pump

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575
Q

vaned circulating member of the centrifugal pump that transmits motion to the water?p299

A

impeller

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576
Q

intake orifice at the center of a centrifugal pump impeller?p299

A

impeller eye

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577
Q

spiral, divergent chamber of the centrifugal pump in which the velocity energy given to water by the impeller blades is converted into pressure?p299

A

volute

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578
Q

the ___ of the impeller dictates the amount of ____ that is developed.p299

A

speed; pressure

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579
Q

impeller assembly:p299

A

impellershaftseals

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580
Q

the ___ transmits energy in the form of velocity to the water?p299

A

impeller

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581
Q

the ___ ___ houses the impeller assembly, collects the water, and confine its in order to convert the velocity to pressure.p299

A

pump casing

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582
Q

the ___ capacity of the pump is dictated by the size of the ___.p299

A

volume; impeller

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583
Q

the off-center mounting of the impeller within the casing creates a water passage of gradually increasing in size as it nears the discharge outlet, this section is called?p299

A

volute

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584
Q

the increasing size of the volute is necessary because the ?p299

A

volume of water passing through it increases as it nears he discharge outlet

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585
Q

the volute’s gradual increase of size reduces the velocity of water, enabling the pressure to build up___?p300

A

proportionately

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586
Q

3 main factors influence the centrifugal fire pump’s discharge pressure:p300

A

amount of water being dischargedspeed at which impeller is turningpressure of water when it enter the pump from a pressurized source

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587
Q

amount of ___ ___ that a pump may develop directly dependent on the volume of water it is discharging.p300

A

output pressure

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588
Q

the discharge volume affects both the ____ and ____ pressures?p300

A

intake; discharge

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589
Q

the increase in pressure is roughly equal to the ___ of the change in impeller speed?p300

A

squarepsi=rpm(2)

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590
Q

water will flow through a ____ ____ even if the impeller is not turning.p300

A

centrifugal pump

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591
Q

because the incoming pressure adds directly to the pressure developed by the pump, incoming pressure changes are reflected in the ___ ___?p300

A

discharge pressure

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592
Q

a ___ ___ in unable to pump air and is not self-priming.p300

A

centrifugal pump

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593
Q

ways to prime a centrifugal pump to draft?p300

A

1 external priming pump2 use of a device that employs air from the apparatus braking system to power a venturi device that removes air from the suction side of the pump3 foot valve attached to the suction side of the pump

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594
Q

two basic types of centrifugal pumps used in the fire service?p300

A

single stage and multistage

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595
Q

due to recirculation in single stage-pumps, where excess capacity is not allowed to escape the impeller area?p300

A

cavitation

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596
Q

pump constructed of single impeller; front-mount pumps, PTO, auxiliary engine driven, and midship; up to 2250 gpm?p300

A

single-stage centrifugal pump

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597
Q

to minimize the lateral thrust of large quantities of water entering the eye of the impeller a ___ ___ impeller may be used.p301

A

double-suction

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598
Q

takes water from both sides; reaction of each side being equal and opposite cancels out the lateral thrust; provides a larger waterway?p301

A

double-suction impeller

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599
Q

water is diverted into two streams that are 180ŒÁ apart causing the water to be removed at opposite direction cancels out the?p301

A

radial thrust

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600
Q

has impeller for each stage mounted in a single housing and usually on a single shaft driven by a single drive train?p301

A

multistage centrifugal pump

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601
Q

each of the impeller takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge?p301

A

pumping in parallel(volume) position

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602
Q

each of the impellers is capable of delivering its rated pressure while flowing?p301

A

50%two stage pump rated 1000gpm at 150 psi each impeller supplies 500gpm

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603
Q

all water from the intake manifold is directed into the eye of the first impeller?p302

A

pumping in series(pressure) mode

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604
Q

first stage increases the pressure and discharges ___-___ percent of the volume capacity through the transfer valve and into the the eye of the second impeller.p302

A

50-70

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605
Q

greatly increases the maximum pressure that may be obtained with a corresponding loss of volume?p302

A

series(pressure) mode

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606
Q

same stream of water has passed through two impellers with each boosting the pressure?p302

A

series(pressure) mode

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607
Q

process of switching between pressure and volume is sometimes referred to as?p302

A

“changeover”

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608
Q

maximum net pump discharge pressure at which the transfer valve may be safely operated varies by?p302

A

manufacturer and age of the pump

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609
Q

*switching from volume to pressure can result in immediate ____ of the previous discharge pressure, which can damage the pump, hoselines, and injure fire fighters.p302

A

doubling

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610
Q

any ____ must be carefully coordinated with attack crews so they can prepare for slight interruption.p303

A

changeover

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611
Q

pump is capable of supplying 100% of its rated capacity at 150 psi at 10 ft of lift with 20 ft of suction hose while drafting?p303

A

parallel(volume) mode

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612
Q

transfer valve on older two-stage pumps is performed ____; safeguard making it ____ ____ to accomplish the transfer while pumping at ___ ____.p303

A

manually; physically impossible; high pressure

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613
Q

newer pumps us a ____ ____ valve, activated by electricity, air pressure, or water itself and can operate at pressures as high as ____.p3030

A

power-operated; 200 psi

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614
Q

hinged valve that permits the flow of water in one direction only?p304

A

clapper valve

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615
Q

automatic valve that permits liquid to flow in only one direction?p304

A

check valve

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616
Q

essential to the operation of a multi-stage pump; stick open/closed, or hampered by debris pump will not operate properly in series(pressure) mode?p304

A

clapper/check valves

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617
Q

four impellers connected in series to develop pressures up to 1000 psi for ?p304

A

high pressure fog

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618
Q

single-stage high-pressure centrifugal pump mounted outboard in conjunction with a conventional two-stage pump with a separate drive system when pressure needed higher than?p304

A

250 psi

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619
Q

replaceable rings that are attached to the impeller and/or the pump casing to allow a small running clearance between the impeller and pump casing without causing wear of the actual impeller or pump casing material?p304

A

wear rings

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620
Q

opening between pump casing and the hub of the impeller is usually limited to?p304

A

0.01 inch or less

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621
Q

sediment and dirt cause wear on the impeller as it turns at nearly ____ when pump nears it capacity.p304

A

4000 rpm

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622
Q

initial indication of wear may occur during pump tests when increased engine rpm is required to pump at the ___ ___?p304

A

rated capacity

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623
Q

unlike the positive displacement pump, no harm results from shutting off all the pump discharges for ___ periods of time in a centrifugal pump?p304

A

short

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624
Q

newer centrifugal pumps may be equipped with a ___ ___ ___ that opens to allow overheated water to circulate between the pump and the main tank/atmosphere.p306

A

thermal relief valve

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625
Q

non circulating water in the pump heats up causing metal parts of the pump to expand causing ?p306

A

pump damage

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626
Q

driver can check for excessive temperature manually by placing hand on the ___ ___ ___ pipe, if warm to touch the open ____, ____, or ____.p306

A

direct pump intake; discharge, tank fill, or circulator valve

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627
Q

point where the shaft passes through the pump casing a semi-tight seal must be maintained to prevent air leaks for ___; ____ seal most common seal type.p306

A

drafting; mechanical

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628
Q

most common type of seal packing material is composed of:p306

A

rope fibers impregnated with graphite or lead

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629
Q

some centrifugal pumps are equipped with ___ or ___ seals that are not adjustable.p306

A

ceramic or mechanical

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630
Q

packing rings are primarily used in?p306

A

older fire pumps

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631
Q

as packing rings wear with the operation of the shaft, the packing gland can be tightened in order to control?p306

A

leaks

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632
Q

spacer that causes small leak around the packing where it is in contact with the shaft to provide cooling?p306

A

lantern or slinger ring

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633
Q

*if a pump is operated dry for any length of time, damage to the shaft may result, any weakening may cause ____ during future use.p307

A

failure

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634
Q

pump seal material offers superior resistance to warping, stretching, and corrosion?p307

A

ceramic

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635
Q

factors that determine which fire pump would work best for local FD?p307

A

intended use and costappearancespace requirementsease of maintenance

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636
Q

pumps powered by gasoline or diesel engines independent of the vehicle-drive engine are?p307

A

examples of auxiliary pumps

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637
Q

most common applications for auxiliary engine driven pumps:p307

A

ARFF vehicleswildland fire apparatusmobile water supply apparatustrailer mounted fire pumpsportable fire pumps

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638
Q

type of pump that may be part of skid mount assembly with pumping capacity of 500gpm or less?p307

A

auxiliary engine driven

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639
Q

skid mount assembly?p307

A

small water tank, booster reel, small diameter attack lines

640
Q

pump is driven by a driveshaft connected to the PTO, common to initial attack, wildland, or mobile water supply?p307

A

power take-off (PTO) driven pump

641
Q

manufacturers offer rear-engine PTO design that is driven off the engine’s ?p307

A

flywheel

642
Q

mechanism that allows a vehicle engine to power equipment such as a pump, winch, or portable tools and is typically attached to the transmission?p307

A

power take-off (PTO) system

643
Q

ability of an apparatus to pump water while the vehicle is in motion?p308

A

pump and roll

644
Q

offers versatility of pump and roll, mounting of the pump offers shorter wheelbase, additional room for compartments, as well as cross lays that are packed lower on apparatus?p308

A

rear engine PTO design

645
Q

proper mounting of rear engine PTO is essential for dependable and smooth operation, therefore pump gear case must be mounted in location:p308

A

that allows for minimum of angles in driveshaftmust not extend too far below the chassis(damage during driving)

646
Q

PTO pump does permit pump and roll operations, but it is not as effective as?p308

A

separate engine unit

647
Q

during pump and roll operations while drive using the ___ ___ rather than the speedometer?p308

A

pressure gauge

648
Q

PTO units range from conventional units at ___to other manufacturers provide full torque PTO as large as____.p308

A

500gpm to 1250gpm

649
Q

mounted between the front bumper and grill; is typically driven through a gear box and clutch connected by a driveshaft to the front of the crankshaft?p308

A

front-mount pumps

650
Q

gear box uses a step up gear ratio, which causes the impeller of the pump to turn faster than the engine with limitations typically up to 1250gpm in ?p308

A

front-mount pumps

651
Q

disadvantages of the front-mount pump are :p309

A

exposure to weather and vulnerable todamage

652
Q

most ___ pumps are engaged and operated at the pump location, putting the driver in a vulnerable position.p309

A

front-mount

653
Q

pump mounted laterally across the frame behind the engine and transmission?

A

midship pump

654
Q

power is supplied to the pump using a split shaft gear case(transfer case) that diverts power from rear axle to fire pump through gears, drive chain or belt?p309

A

midship pump

655
Q

ratio is arranged so that the impeller turns faster than the engine?p310

A

1 1/2 to 2 1/2 times as fast

656
Q

fire pumps can be configured to operate over a range of capacities determined by piping arrangement and gear ratio; pump ratings can range:p310

A

500-2250 gpm

657
Q

the usual arrangement provides control of the transfer case from the inside of the apparatus by using a:p310

A

mechanical linkage or electrical, hydraulic, or air-operated controls

658
Q

when driver places the transmission in the correct gear, a ____ feature engages, preventing the transmission from switching gears as rpms are raised or lowered.p310

A

lockout

659
Q

with the engine idling and the pump engaged most speedometers will read?p310

A

10-15 mph

660
Q

some apparatus are designed so that the speedometer does not register above 0 mph when pump is engaged including ?p310

A

all PTO pumps

661
Q

signs indicating that the apparatus is ready to pump:p311

A

pump indicator lightspeedometer reading sound of the pump engaging

662
Q

used for auxiliary systems, including compressed air foam systems(CAFS) and generators on some apparatus?p311

A

hydrostatic pumps

663
Q

pump design that offers more even weight distribution on the chassis and more usable compartment space?p312

A

rear-mount pumps

664
Q

disadvantage of the era-mount pump is:p312

A

driver may be more directly exposed to oncoming traffic

665
Q

rear-mount pumps are powered by:p312

A

split-shaft transmission or by a power take-off

666
Q

piping and valves attached to a pump are integral components of the fire pump system, primary parts of piping system are:p312

A

intake and discharge pipin, pump drains, and valves

667
Q

nfpa 1901 requires all components of the piping system to be of?p312

A

corrosion resistant material

668
Q

most fire pump pipes are constructed of:p312

A

cast iron, brass, stainless steel, or galvanized steel and may include rubber hoses in certain applications

669
Q

the piping system and the fire pump itself must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of _____ before being placed into service.p312

A

500 psi

670
Q

all piping and hoses must be designed to run as straight as possible with a minimum number of bends and turns in order to?p312

A

minimize pressure loss within the apparatus

671
Q

according nfpa 1901 pumpers with a capacity of 500 fpm or less should have piping capable of flowing?p312

A

250gpm

672
Q

according nfpa 1901 pumpers with a capacity of 500 fpm or greater should have piping capable of flowing?p312

A

at least 500gpm

673
Q

many pumpers are equipped with tank-to-pump as large as?p312

A

4”

674
Q

mobile water supply units may feature multiple?p312

A

tank-to-pump lines

675
Q

modern pumps are equipped with ___ ___ that prevent damage to the tank if the tank-to-pump valve opens inadvertently while water is being supplied tho the pump under pressure(relay operation).p312

A

check valves

676
Q

if flow requirements allow it, refill the ___ ___ and keep it maintained as an emergency water supply during pumping operations.p313

A

booster tank

677
Q

the ___ is tapped into the pump at a high point on the suction side or the impeller eye and use a priming valve.p313

A

primer

678
Q

as piping nears the pump it typically tapers to a ____ shape in order to eliminate the vortex that may occur in water that flows through circular piping.p314

A

square

679
Q

unless certified by the manufacturer to deliver the rated capacity these intakes should be considered auxiliary?p314

A

front and rear

680
Q

2 1/2” pipe used with 90ŒÁ bends and T-fittings the flow is limited to?p314

A

250gpm

681
Q

3” pipes is used with straighter piping route, a flow as high as ____ may be possible through one of the intakes(may be used as auxiliary drafting point).p314

A

450gpm

682
Q

nfpa 1901, a sufficient number of 2 1/2” discharge openings must provide to flow the?p314

A

rated capacity of the pump

683
Q

as a minimum all fire apparatus with a rated pump capacity of 750gpm or greater must be equipped with?p314

A

at least two 2 1/2” discharges

684
Q

pump rated less than 750gpm, are required to have?p314

A

only one 2 1/2” discharge

685
Q

apparatus may be equipped with discharges smaller than 2 1/2” which are commonly used with?p314

A

pre-connected attack lines

686
Q

a minimum of ____ piping, valves, and elbows must be used to supply discharges where 1 1/2”, 1 3/4”, or 2” handlines are attached.p314

A

2-inch

687
Q

discharges are usually equipped with a ___ ___ valve that can be operated and locked in any position.p314

A

locking ball

688
Q

all valves should be designed and maintained so that they are easily operated at pressures up to?p314

A

250psi

689
Q

allows the the tank to be filled without making additional connections when pump is being supplied from external source?p315

A

tank fill line(tank recirculating valve)

690
Q

according to nfpa 1901 apparatus with tanks less than 1000 gallons must have a tank fill line of at least?p315

A

1-inch

691
Q

according to nfpa 1901 apparatus with tanks greater than 1000 gallons must have a tank fill line of at least?p316

A

2-inches

692
Q

on pumps not equipped with thermal relief valve, the ___ ___ line can be used in conjunction with the ____ _ ___ valve to circulate water.p316

A

tank fill; tank-to-pump

693
Q

serves the same function as a circulating valve; small-diameter copper tubing with a very limited flow capability?p316

A

booster line cooling valve

694
Q

control most of the intake and discharge lines from the pump, must airtight and wear resistant?p316

A

valves

695
Q

most common type of valve and permits the full flow of water through a line with minimum friction loss?p316

A

ball-type valve

696
Q

most common actuators for ball-type valves?p316

A

push-pull handles (T-handles) or quarter-turn handles

697
Q

has a simpler mechanical linkage with the handle mounted directly on the valve stem?p316

A

quarter-turn handle

698
Q

some apparatus may feature valves that are hydraulically, pneumatically, or electrically controlled; operated by toggle switch or touch screen?p317

A

ball-type valve

699
Q

*drivers must ensure that ___ ___ are open or fully closed by the visual indicator on the pump panel.p317

A

intake valves

700
Q

large diameter intakes and discharges commonly use these types of valves?p317

A

gate or butterfly

701
Q

gate valves are most commonly operated by?p317

A

handwheel

702
Q

butterfly valves are most commonly operated by?p317

A

quarter-turn handles

703
Q

nfpa 1901 require that all intakes or discharges that are 3” or greater be equipped with?p317

A

slow acting valve controls

704
Q

slow acting valve controls prevents the valve movement from open to close in less than?p317

A

3 seconds

705
Q

provide a way for the driver to drain the hose side of of the valve after the discharge valve and nozzle are both closed?p317

A

drain valve

706
Q

allows the changeover from tank water to a supply without interruption to the attack lines operating from the tank?p318

A

bleeder valve on the gated intake

707
Q

all air is evacuated, bleeder valve is discharging steady water, bleeder valve can be closed, the intake valve opened, and the tank-to-pump valve closed?p318

A

change over with no interruption to water flow

708
Q

___ all drain immediately after draining. leaving drains opened may result in inability to prime the pump. p318

A

close

709
Q

when pump is supplying multiple attack lines, any sudden change in flow on one line can cause a ____ ____ in another.p318

A

pressure surge

710
Q

nfpa 1901 requires some type of ____ ____ ____ to be part of any fire apparatus pumping system.p318

A

pressure control device

711
Q

pressure control device must operate within ___ to ___ after discharge pressure rises and restrict the pressure from exceeding ____ above the set level.p318-319

A

3 to 10 seconds; 30 psi

712
Q

relief valve systems and governor systems must have an indicator to show that the system is activated; and whether it is controlling the?p319

A

engine speed of pump pressure

713
Q

sensitivity to pressure change and its ability to relieve excessive pressure within the the pump discharge?p319

A

relief valve

714
Q

two basic concepts for pressure relief valves:p319

A

relieve excess pressure on the discharge and intake side of the pump

715
Q

most common relief valve uses a?p319

A

spring loaded pilot valve

716
Q

discharge pressure relief valves are ___ to react and ___ to reset back to “all closed” positions.p320

A

quick; slow

717
Q

intake pressure relief valves are intended to reduce the possibility of damage to the pump and discharge hoselines caused by?p320

A

water hammer

718
Q

two basic types of intake pressure relief valves include:p320

A

supplied by the pump manufacturer and is an integral part of the pump intake manifoldadd-on device that is screwed onto the pump intake connection

719
Q

generally recommended that the intake relief valves be set to open when the intake pressure rises more than _____ above the necessary operating pressure.p320

A

10 psi

720
Q

pressure control device that controls engine speed, eliminating hazardous conditions that result from excessive pressures?p321

A

pressure governor

721
Q

pressure in a centrifugal pump may also be regulated by a ___ or ___ governor that is pressure activated to adjust the engine throttle?p321

A

mechanical or electronic

722
Q

designed to regulate engine speed to match the pump discharge requirements?p321

A

pressure governor

723
Q

it is only necessary to reduce engine speed to reduce pressure because?p321

A

pressure governor-engine speed- impellers-discharge pressure

724
Q

excessive pressure is generally caused by?p321

A

shutting down one or more operating hoselines

725
Q

when ___ a tube from the discharge side of the pump transmits the resulting pressure rise to a governing device, which then cuts back the throttle.p321

A

excessive pressure builds up

726
Q

uses a pressure sensing element(pressure transducer) that is connected to the discharge manifold?p321

A

electronic governor

727
Q

electronic governor’s pressure sensing element(pressure transducer) changes the throttle setting as needed by adjusting the amount of ____ supplied to the engine.p321

A

fuel

728
Q

electronic governor also features cavitation protection by returning the engine to idle when intake pressure drops below?p321

A

30 psi

729
Q

condition in which vacuum pockets form due to localized regions of low pressure at the vanes in the impeller of the centrifugal pump, causing vibrations, loss of efficiency, and possible damage to the impeller?p321

A

cavitation

730
Q

when discharge is closed the engine rpm is adjusted, but the same discharge pressure is maintained on any line still flowing?

A

electronic governor

731
Q

when discharge is closed the engine rpm is adjusted, and results in lower discharge pressure for all lines as the engine rpm is lowered?p321

A

mechanical governor

732
Q

any device, usually a positive displacement pump, used to exhaust the air from inside a centrifugal pump and the attached hard suction?p322

A

priming device

733
Q

depends on creating a lower pressure within the pump and intake hose than exists in the atmosphere?p322

A

drafting operation

734
Q

categories of primers:p322

A

positive displacement, exhaust, vacuum, and air primers

735
Q

most modern pumpers use ______ primers.p322

A

positive displacement

736
Q

small versions of _____ and ____ type positive displacement pumps are commonly used as primers.p322

A

rotary vane; rotary gear

737
Q

primers may be driven off the transfer case of the transmission, but most popular means of powering primer pumps is?p322

A

electric motor

738
Q

many conventional primers use an oil or other type of fluid that serves to:p322

A

seal gapsfill irregularitiespreserve pump

739
Q

activate the primers with the engine in idle then increase the throttle to specified rpms; in general the rpm range for priming?p322

A

1000-1200 rpms

740
Q

devices constructed of materials that do not require lubrication; most new pumpers are equipped with?p323

A

oil-less primers

741
Q

generally found in skid-nount pumps or older fire apparatus, uses exhaust gasses diverted to a chamber where passing velocity creates a vacuum?p323

A

exhaust primers

742
Q

primer that requires high engine rpms to create vacuum; requires great deal of maintenance to remove carbon deposits?p323

A

exhaust primers

743
Q

simple device that makes use of the vacuum already present in the intake manifold of any gasoline-driven engine?p323

A

vacuum primers

744
Q

engine vacuum is greatest at near idle speed, the primer works best at low engine rpm; not common because gasoline-powered engines are a rarity?

A

vacuum primers

745
Q

physical law stating that when a fluid, such as water or air, is forced under pressure through a restricted orifice, there is an increase in the velocity of the fluid passing through the orifice and a corresponding decrease in the pressure exerted against the sides of the constriction. Because the surrounding guild is under greater atmospheric pressure, it is forced into the are of lower pressure?p324

A

venturi effect

746
Q

uses the compressor to supply an airline to a jet pump that creates a ____ that primes the pump using no moving parts or lubricants.p324

A

venturi effect

747
Q

___ requires that all controls and instruments necessary to operate the pump are located on the pump operator’s panel.p324

A

nfpa 1901

748
Q

not specifically required by nfpa 1901, but it is recommended and generally found on the pump operator’s panel?p324

A

engine fuel gauge

749
Q

two primary gauges used by the driver to determine the water entering and leaving the pump?p324

A

master intake and discharge gauges

750
Q

connected to the intake side of the pump and measures either positive or a vacuum?p324

A

master intake gauge(vacuum or compound)

751
Q

calibrated from 0-600 psi of positive pressure and 0-30 inches of mercury on the negative side?p324

A

master intake gauge(vacuum or compound)

752
Q

when the vacuum reading approaches ____, the pump is nearing capacity and is not able to supply additional lines.p325

A

20 inches

753
Q

master intake gauge also provides a reading of the ____ when the pump is operating from a hydrant or supply from another pumper?p325

A

residual pressure

754
Q

displays the engine speed in revolutions per minute?p326

A

tachometer

755
Q

during acceptance testing the rpm required to pump the ____ is determined and the information is recorded on the identification plate on the pump panel.p326

A

rated capacity

756
Q

displays the temperature of the coolant in the engine that powers the fire pump?p326

A

pumping engine coolant temperature indicator

757
Q

engine that operates too cool is not _____ and too high may result in ____ to mechanical.P326

A

efficient; damage

758
Q

shows if an adequate supply of oil is being delivered to the critical areas of the engine that power the fire pump; does not measure the amount of oil in crankcase but if too low oil pump will be unable to maintain proper pressure?p326

A

pumping engine oil indicator

759
Q

pump panel may be equipped with an ____ or ____ indicator that warns the driver when the pump will over heat?p326

A

audible; visual

760
Q

device used for measuring existing voltage in electrical system; provides relative indication of battery condition?p326

A

voltmeter

761
Q

gauge that indicates both the amount of electrical current being drawn from and provided to the vehicle’s battery; indicates status of the alternator and charging system?p326

A

ammeter

762
Q

must be connected to the outlet side of the discharge valve so that the pressure being reported is actually the pressure supplied to the hoselines after the valve?p327

A

pump pressure indicators or discharge gauges

763
Q

____ ____ gauges may also be supplied with master stream devices or the lines that supply them.p327

A

individual pressure

764
Q

nfpa 1901 allows flowmeter readouts to substitute for?p327

A

individual pressure discharge gauges(master intake and pressure gauges must be present)

765
Q

device used to increase/decrease the speed of the engine that powers the fire pump; must be contained on the pump panel?p327

A

pumping engine throttle

766
Q

can be turned clock- or counterclockwise to achieve the required pressure?p327

A

throttle knob or vernier

767
Q

operated by throttle switch or push button are commonly found on newer apparatus?p327

A

automatic throttle control

768
Q

used to operate the priming device when the pump will draft from a static water supply; push button, toggle, or pull lever?p328

A

primer control

769
Q

displays the quantity of water held in the onboard water tank; uses a series of lights to indicate the signals sent by sensors within the tank in increments of one quarter levels(1/4, 1/2, 3/4, full)?p328

A

water tank level indicator

770
Q

during routine daily inspection, driver should verify the accuracy of the ____ ____ ____ by inspecting the fill opening to verify the tank i full.p328-329

A

water level gauge

771
Q

the gauges and other controls related to the CAFS or other foam systems are usually located on the?p329

A

pump operator’s panel

772
Q

primary function is to control the temperature of th coolant in the apparatus engine during pumping operations?p329

A

auxiliary cooling system

773
Q

older apparatus usually contain one of two auxiliary coolers:p329

A

marine or immersion type

774
Q

auxiliary coolers are designed so that the coolant in the radiator does not mix with the water from the fire pump so that engine coolant will not be?p329

A

contaminated

775
Q

in older apparatus radiator fill valve allows water from the pump to be circulated to the radiator to cool engine; causes the original coolant to ____ and should be operated in ____ only; should be flushed and filled with fresh coolant after use.p329

A

dilute; emergency

776
Q

*in extreme situations ( cooling element failure) during pumping operations, what can be done for brief time while interior crews withdraw and immediately after driver should? p329

A

direct a water stream at the engine for cooling; shut down engine

777
Q

making the fire pump operational is commonly referred to as?p336

A

putting the pump into gear

778
Q

IFSTA recommends the wheels be ___ every time the driver exits the cab.p336

A

chocked

779
Q

when the driver is ready to operate the pump to generate sufficient pressure to create an effective fire stream?p337

A

fire pump made operational

780
Q

while the pump is in operation the driver must:p337

A

monitor all gauges(engine/pump)adjust throttle until desired flow rate achieved if using flowmeter

781
Q

can be opened and set to circulate water back into the tank if pumped is equipped:p338

A

circulator; bypass; or booster cooling valve

782
Q

driver must be aware that tank fill line may be plumbed with pipe large enough to cause pump?p338

A

cavitation

783
Q

to partially open the tank fill valve and avoid cavitation, some drivers use the distance of?p338

A

thumb to pump panel

784
Q

in an incident requiring more water than carried aboard apparatus?p338

A

transition to external water supply before depleting onboard tank

785
Q

two basic pressurized water supply sources that a driver will encounter:p339

A

fire hydrant or supply hose from another pumper

786
Q

pumping at a _____ _____ _____ while being supplied by other apparatus is equally dangerous.p330

A

low residual pressure(below 20 psi)-can cause hose collapse or cavitation

787
Q

driver should maintain a residual pressure of at least ____ on their master intake gauge.p340

A

20 psi

788
Q

safety and fire fighting needs may indicate that the _____ hydrant to the fire may not be the most prudent choice.p340

A

closest

789
Q

many water supply districts use a _____ ____ system to indicate the capacity of the hydrants.p340

A

color-coded marking

790
Q

least desired hydrants are those located on “ ___ ___ ___” that are served by smaller main from one direction.p340

A

dead end mains

791
Q

water main that is not looped and in which water can flow in only one direction?p340

A

dead end mains

792
Q

method of laying hose from the water supply to the fire scene?p341

A

forward lay

793
Q

stopping at the hydrant, dropping the end of one or mrs supply hoselines at the hydrant, and then proceeding to the fire location?p341

A

forward lay

794
Q

to aid the process of making a forward lay, allows second arriving pumper at the hydrant to connect without interrupting water flow and is able to boost supply of attack pumper?p341

A

four-way hydrant valve

795
Q

when supplying pumper directly from hydrant keep the distance as short as possible to avoid excess friction loss when using what diameter hose?p344

A

2 1/2” or 3”

796
Q

method of laying hose from the fire scene to the water supply?p344

A

reverse lay

797
Q

executing a reverse lay is a common method for setting up a water supply operation using ____ ____ hose as supply line?p344

A

medium diameter

798
Q

2 1/2” or 3” hose used for both firefighting attack and relay-supply purposes?p344

A

medium diameter hose(MDH)

799
Q

a common two-pumper operation provides for?p344

A

an attack pumper and a water supply pumper

800
Q

first pumper reports directly to the incident scene to begin initial operations using water from onboard tank?p344

A

attack pumper

801
Q

second arriving pumper lays a supply line from the attack pumper back to the water source?p344

A

water supply pumper

802
Q

close the tank to pump valve if the intake is not equipped with a ?p344

A

shutoff valve

803
Q

valve in the tank-to-pump line that prevent water from entering the tank under pressure from the pump intake?p344-345

A

check valve

804
Q

pumpers built before ___ may not be equipped with a check valve in the tank-to-pump line.p345

A

1991

805
Q

regardless of whether apparatus has check valve/shutoff valve on the intake, the driver should close the ____ ___ after transitioning to external water supply?p345

A

tank-to-pump valve

806
Q

the driver should record the ___ ___ reading before he or she begins to pump.p346

A

static pressure

807
Q

if the master intake gauge drops below 20 psi the throttle must not be ___ any further because the pump may begin to cavitate. p346

A

increased

808
Q

methods to prevent overheating:p347

A

continuous minimum flowbooster line/small diameter line discharge water in direction that won’t interfere or back into tank

809
Q

during prolonged operations a bypass circulator may not provided sufficient cooling, additional measures:p347

A

open a discharge drain valve partially open tank-fill or tank-to-pump

810
Q

formula percentage method(available hydrant water)p348

A

percent drop= (static-residual)(100)/static10% or less= 3 lines same flow11%-15%= 2 lines same flow>25%= 0 lines

811
Q

fist digit method:p349

A

difference in psi=static-residual 70-65=5multiply 1st digit of static:7x1-equal or less= 3 lines same flow 0-7*x2-equal or less= 2 lines same flow 8-14x3- equal or less= 1 line same flow 15-21

812
Q

squaring the lines method?p350

A

difference in psi=static-residual 60-52=8psimultiplication factor=(number of lines)2 2(2)=4resultant pressure drop in system at the new flow rate= (multiplication factor)x(original pressure drop) 4x8=32psi60-32=28psi left 3rd line no go

813
Q

each time the flow rate is double, the pressure drop in the system is?p350

A

quadrupled

814
Q

all changes in flow should be made slowly and smoothly to avoid ____ ____ and ____ ____ on water systems.p351

A

water hammer and pressure surges

815
Q

effect of altering the atmospheric pressure within a confined space by mechanical means?p352

A

pressure differential

816
Q

it is not possible to ___ water into the pump.p352

A

pull

817
Q

it is possible to evacuate some of the air inside the pump creating a ____ ____(partial vacuum), which allows atmospheric pressure acting on the surface of the water to force it into the fire pump.p352

A

pressure differential

818
Q

atmospheric pressure at sea level is ?p352

A

14.7 psi

819
Q

the amount of ___ ___ is proportional to the amount of water moving through hose or appliance.p352

A

friction loss

820
Q

pumper supplied with 4 1/2” intake hose can attain its rated capacity of?p352

A

750gpm

821
Q

pumper supplied with 5” intake hose can increase its rated capacity to?p352

A

820gpm

822
Q

what measurement is used in drafting since the changes of pressure are so minute?p352

A

inches of mercury

823
Q

pressure decreases approximately ___ psi or ___inch of Hg for each 1000 feet of altitude gain.p352

A

0.5psi or 1 inch of Hg

824
Q

in a city located 5000 feet above sea level the atmospheric pressure is ?p352

A

12.2 psi5000ft(0.5x5=2.5)14.7-2.5=12.2

825
Q

increasing the hight of the lift will decrease?p353

A

total pump capacity(pump rated at 750pgm with 10ft lift will do 585gpm at 16ft lift)

826
Q

most pumps are able to develop vacuum capacity of approximately ___ inches of mercury.p354

A

22

827
Q

in theory, ____ can be described as water being discharged faster than it is coming into the pump.p354

A

cavitation

828
Q

indicators of pump cavitation:p354

A

pressure gauge will fluctuatehose streams pulsate/popping or sputtering soundsound like gravel passing through pumplack of reaction on pressure with increase throttle

829
Q

drafting site may be selected by:p355

A

amount of watertype/quality of wateraccessibility of water

830
Q

most important factor in choosing a draft site?p355

A

amount of water available

831
Q

in order for the pumper to approach its rated capacity using a traditional strainer there must be at least _____ of water over the strainer.p355

A

24 inches

832
Q

in drafting operations with less than _____ of water above the strainer it is more likely that floating debris may clog strainer.p355

A

24 inches

833
Q

rapid intake of water into the strainer may cause a _____; placing a blank ___ ___ above the strainer may lessen the chances of it happening.p355

A

whirlpool; floating object(capped plastic jug or beach ball)

834
Q

in order to draft from a swift moving shallow stream?p355

A

dam or dig out bottom

835
Q

strainer where water is drawn in through a series of holes on the bottom because of this no whirlpools?p355

A

floating strainer

836
Q

because floating strainers take in water from bottom only pumper may not receive enough water to achieve its?p355

A

rated discharge capacity

837
Q

strainer used portable tank or swimming pool for drafting operation?

A

low-level strainer

838
Q

low-level strainer are designed to sit at bottom of portable tank or pool draft effectively to a depth of approximately?p356

A

2 inches

839
Q

in jurisdictions that may draft using ocean water, ___ ___ must be considered.p356

A

tidal movement

840
Q

water temperature below _____ or above _____ may adversely impact the ability of the pump to reach capacity.p356

A

35ä‹Š(1.7ä‹€); 90ä‹Š(32ä‹€)

841
Q

water that has not been examined, properly treated, and not approved by appropriate authorities as being safe for consumption?

A

non-potable water

842
Q

almost any type of water may be used for fire suppression, but ____ water may be harmful to the pump.p356

A

non-potable

843
Q

using saltwater or water supply from vicinity of mining operations/industrial plants may expose the pump to?p356

A

corrosion(salt and caustic chemicals)

844
Q

the pump and piping should be thoroughly flushed with fresh water soon after pumping?p356

A

non-potable water

845
Q

as the amount of lift required to reach the pump increases, the following effects occur:p357

A

elevation pressure increasesless friction loss can be overcomecapacity of pump decreased

846
Q

all fire pumps meeting nfpa and underwriter’s laboratories inc. requirements are rated to pump their capacity at ___ of lift?p357

A

10 feet

847
Q

if lift is less the capacity of the pump is ____; if the lift is greater the capacity _____?p357

A

higher; decreases

848
Q

a pumper in good working order can lift water a maximum of?p357

A

25 ft

849
Q

to create an effective fire stream recommended lift no greater than?p357

A

20 ft

850
Q

percentage of rated capacity of the pump working with 20 ft lift is?p357

A

60.00%

851
Q

important variables to consider during draft site selection include ?p357

A

stability of the ground surfaceconvenience of connecting hoselinesafety of the driver operator

852
Q

usually easier to connect the hose to the intake fittings by first putting the strainer into the water and then placing ?p358

A

apparatus into position

853
Q

routing intake hose over high point(fence or guard rail) that is higher than the pump intake may?p358

A

trap air in the hose

854
Q

when pump made operational, ____ the pump will begin draft operation.p358

A

priming

855
Q

two-stage pumps, the transfer valve must be in the ____ position because in _____ position may trap air.p358

A

parallel(volume); series(pressure)

856
Q

most priming pumps are intended to work most effectively when the engine is set at a rate between?p359

A

1000-1200 rpms

857
Q

if priming pump is driven by electric motor the exact rpm is not critical, but should be sufficient to keep ____ ____ and prevent loss of prime.p359

A

alternator charging

858
Q

the engine rpm should be kept as low as possible without causing engine to stall?p359

A

vacuum type primer

859
Q

pump made airtight, engine rpm set, operate primer control to evacuate air then the master intake gauge will register vacuum reading of?p359

A

1 inch of mercury per foot of lift required

860
Q

entire priming action from start to finish typically requires?p359

A

10 to 15 seconds

861
Q

up to 20 ft of intake hose lifting a maximum of 10 ft vertical priming may take as long as?p359

A

30 seconds(45 pumps larger than 1250gpm)

862
Q

most common cause of air leak is?p359

A

open drain or valve, gasket of intake hose(tighten with mallet)

863
Q

other potential problems cause air leak:p359

A

insufficient fluid in priming reservoirengine speed(rpm) too lowlift is too highhigh point in intake hose create air pocket

864
Q

after successful prime increase/maintain throttle setting between ____ before opening discharge to avoid loss of prime.p360

A

50-100 psi

865
Q

driver should not attempt to set desired discharge pressure until water is flowing and the gauge is?p360

A

stabilized

866
Q

most common source of problems while operating at draft?p360

A

air leak intake side(air entering along with water)

867
Q

if there is not enough water above drafting strainer air may be entering because of ?p361

A

whirpool

868
Q

if onboard water tank is empty the tank-to-pump line may be source of leakage due to?p361

A

defective pump packing

869
Q

*damaged or leaking ____ valves may lead to the inability to achieve or maintain a draft.p361

A

tank-to-pump

870
Q

gradual increase in the vacuum noted with no change in flow rate indicates?p361

A

blockage

871
Q

immediate solution to cavitation?p361

A

decrease rpm

872
Q

the most common place for a blockage to occur is the ?p361

A

strainer

873
Q

intake hose operating under vacuum the inner liner can become _____ from the hose itself and ____ causing a block.p362

A

detached; collapse

874
Q

steps to shut down drafting operation:p362

A

slowly decrease engine speed to idletake pump out of gearallow pump to drain

875
Q

integral part of the fire protection features of many buildings?

A

fixed fire suppression systems

876
Q

designed to support the flow of a specified number of fire sprinklers based on the hazard being protected?p362

A

sprinkler system

877
Q

automatic water supply for sprinkler system is designed to supply only a ____ number of the total sprinklers at any given time.p362

A

fraction

878
Q

should be identified in pre-incident planning;p362

A

occupancies with automatic sprinkler systemsFDCcloses hydrant/static water

879
Q

FDC connection may consist of:p363

A

siamese 2-2 1/2” female connections connected to a clappered inlet or one LDH sexless connection

880
Q

*when interior attack crews operate from combination sprinkler/standpipe system pressure supplied should be based on safe operating pressure for the?p363

A

interior crews

881
Q

it is advisable to confirm the presence of actual ___ before pumping to FDC.p363

A

fire

882
Q

when pumping to sprinkler system multistage pumps should be operated in ____ position, and general guideline to discharge pressure is ____.p363

A

parallel(volume); 150 psi

883
Q

prevents water from sprinkler system back into FDC, but allows water from FDC into sprinkler systems as long pressure is greater than that holding the check valve closed?p363

A

check valve

884
Q

sprinkler control valves should be checked and those closed should be opened except one the control area of building where sprinkler system is undergoing?p364

A

construction or renovation

885
Q

wet or dry system of pipes in a large single- or multi-story building with fire hose outlets?p364

A

standpipe system

886
Q

allow for quicker access to water supply for attack hoselines with 2 1/2” or 1 1/2” connections?p364

A

standpipe system

887
Q

contain water under pressure and may be used as soon as a hoseline is stretched and the valve is opened?p364

A

wet pipe system

888
Q

must be charged with water from the occupancy’s water supply, stationary fire pump, FD pumper, or combination of the sources?p364

A

dry pipe system

889
Q

FD should always support the ____ to ensure adequate flow and pressure is provided for fire fighting operations.p364

A

FDC

890
Q

pump discharge pressure when supplying FDC depends on:p364-365

A

pressure loss standpipe 25psi(flow exceeding 350gpm)friction loss pumper to FDCfriction loss hose fire floornozzle pressureelevation

891
Q

approximate elevation loss for each floor above the FDC?p365

A

5 psi

892
Q

do not use PDP in excess of ____ unless standpipe system, hose, and appliances have been designed to function under high pressure.p365

A

185 psi

893
Q

valve installed at the standpipe connection that is designed to reduce the amount of water pressure at that discharge to specific pressure?p365

A

pressure reducing valve(PRV)

894
Q

pressure reducing valves usually reduce pressure to?p365

A

100psi

895
Q

water will be discharged at all the points where caps are off and the valve is open when the standpipe is/p365

A

charged

896
Q

when a dry standpipe is charged there will be a time delay as?p365

A

water fills the system and expels the air

897
Q

in unable to use FDC an alternative way to provide some support is?p366

A

using a double female connector supply the 1st floor standpipe connection

898
Q

immediately upon indication that water supply or pumping ability may be unattainable or interrupted you must notify?p366

A

officer or IC

899
Q

the difference in elevation between the surface of the static water supply and the center if the pump intake?p403

A

lift

900
Q

a ____ vacuum is impossible to create using fire service equipment?p404

A

total

901
Q

theoretical scientific height that a column of water may be lifted but atmospheric pressure in a true vacuum; at sea level is?p404

A

theoretical lift; 33.9 ft

902
Q

maximum height to which any amount of water may be raised through a hard suction hose to a pump; determined by the ability of the pump to create a vacuum?p404

A

maximum lift

903
Q

variables affecting maximum lift include:p404

A

atmospheric pressure condition of fire pump, primer, intake hose, gaskets, and valves

904
Q

formula for determining maximum liftp405

A

L=1.13HgL=height of lift (ft)1.13= constantHg=inches of Mercurygauge read 14 Hg lift= 15.82ft (1.13x14)

905
Q

height a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable flow?p406

A

dependable lift

906
Q

after factoring in the surrounding atmospheric pressure and friction loss in the intake hose, every fire pump that is operating properly should have a dependable lift of at least?p406

A

14.7 ft

907
Q

if lift is increased to 15ft pump may only deliver _____ percent of its capacity and if increased to 20ft it may deliver only _____ percent of its capacity.p406

A

70%; 60%

908
Q

must account for all factors that contribute to the amount of work required by a pump to produce a fire stream?p407

A

net pump discharge pressure(NPDP)

909
Q

formula for pressure correction

A

PC= lift+total intake hose friction loss/2.3PC=pressure correctionlift=required lift in lifttotal intake hose friction loss=# from table 11.22.3=constant

910
Q

formula for net pump discharge pressure at draft

A

NPDPdraft=PDP+PCNPDPdraft=net pump discharge pressure at draftPDP=pump discharge pressurePC=intake pressure correction

911
Q

natural water supply sources include:p410

A

lakes, ponds, streams, rivers and oceans

912
Q

when evaluating a potential water supply source first determine:p410

A

adequacy and accessibility

913
Q

smaller natural sources may be more susceptible to fluctuations in adequacy during periods of _____ than larger bodies of water.p410

A

drought

914
Q

floating pumps placed in an adequate water source can develop and maintain a flow of up to?p411

A

500gpm

915
Q

allows the utilization of static water supplies that are located a modest distance from fire apparatus?p411

A

water eductor

916
Q

operating apparatus on unstable terrain is ___ and may result in a ____?p411

A

dangerous; rollover

917
Q

sufficient depth recommended for barrel-type strainer?p412

A

2 ft of water all around

918
Q

sufficient depth recommended for floating strainer?p412

A

shallow as 1 ft

919
Q

sufficient depth recommended for low-level strainer?p412

A

1-2 inches

920
Q

cleaning the fire pump or piping by flowing water through it in the opposite direction of normal flow?p412

A

back flushing

921
Q

if an adequate draft cannot be established due to clogging at the strainer, _____ _____ with tank water may help to dislodge the debris.p412

A

back flushing

922
Q

may restrict the volume of water that can be drafted, but allows for more efficient access to a natural supply source through a pre-piped installation?p412

A

dry hydrant

923
Q

methods for gaining access to static water supplies during freezing weather include:p413

A

allow barrels filled with antifreeze to freeze in place and knockout bottom for accessset wooden plug or plastic can to freeze in place, drive through ice if access is neededchain saw, power auger, axe, or combination of tools to breach the ice

924
Q

*regardless of the assumed depth all firefighters working close to water must?p414

A

wear pfd and use safety line

925
Q

___ ___ often make it difficult to keep the strainers submerged below the surface of the water.p414

A

strong currents

926
Q

common artificial static water supply sources:p414

A

cisterns private water storage tanksground reservoirsswimming poolsagricultural irrigation systems

927
Q

water storage receptacle that is usually underground and may be supplied by a well or rainwater runoff; not service by hydrants?p415

A

cistern

928
Q

most often used for domestic or agricultural purposes, but some are specifically constructed and placed for fire department use?415

A

cistern

929
Q

typically range from 10,000 to 100,000 gallons; accessed through utility cover or installed dry hydrant?p415

A

cistern

930
Q

found in large residential, industrial, or agricultural locations; several hundreds to tens of thousands of gallons of water; ground level or elevated(technically not static source as it has pressure at outlet)?p415

A

private water storage tanks

931
Q

artificial installations that have similar characteristics as a pond or lake?p415

A

ground reservoirs

932
Q

contain millions of gallons of water; may be more accessible to fire apparatus than natural bodies of water?p415

A

ground reservoirs

933
Q

due to their backyard location and the presence of fences access may be difficult?p415

A

swimming pools

934
Q

typical residential swimming pool may contain adequate water supply for a fire in?p416

A

single family dwelling

935
Q

formula square/rectangular pool capacityp416

A

C=7.5xLxWxDC=capacity in gallons7.5=number of gallons per cubic footL=length in ftW=width in ftD=average depth in ft

936
Q

formula round pool capacityp417

A

C=7.5x“óxrŒ_xDC=round pool capacity7.5=number of gallon in cubic ft“ó=pi or 3.14r=radius(1/2 diameter) in ft D=average depth in ft

937
Q

large pools pre-planned as potential static water may be equipped with connections similar to a ____ ____ for quick FD hook-ups.p418

A

dry hydrant

938
Q

flush FD pumpers with fresh water after drafting from ___ ___ in order to remove damaging chlorine residue.p418

A

swimming pool

939
Q

*using an internal combustion engine indoors creates a danger of ____ ____ poisoning to the occupants of the building.p418

A

carbon monoxide

940
Q

agricultural irrigation systems may function as a potential water source because they may flow in excess of ?p418

A

1,000 gpm

941
Q

consists of a pumper positioned at the water supply source that is used to pump water under pressure through one or more supply lines to another pumper connected further down the supply line(s)?p425

A

relay pumping operation

942
Q

using two or more pumpers to move water over a long distance by operating them in series?p425

A

relay operation

943
Q

pumper that takes water from the hydrant or static source and pumps it under pressure to the next apparatus in the relay pumping operation?p426

A

water supply pumper

944
Q

should be the apparatus with the largest pumping capacity (aka source pumpers)?426

A

water supply pumper

945
Q

using a smaller pumper as a supply pumper should be avoided because?427

A

will limit the overall fire flow for the incident

946
Q

pumper(s) connected with the really that receive water from the source pumper or another relay pumper, raises the pressure and then supplies next apparatus?p427

A

relay pumper

947
Q

this pumper may be of smaller capacity due to its ability to use acquired energy of previous pumpers in the relay?p427

A

relay pumper

948
Q

term used within the ICS for a mobile piece of apparatus that has the primary function of supporting another operation?p427

A

tender

949
Q

can carry a mile or more of LDH on hose bed or reel, equipped with a wide assortment of valves, manifolds, and other appliances for relay pumping?p427

A

tenders

950
Q

relay supply hose of 3 1/2”-6” in diameter; used to move large volumes of water quickly with a minimum number of pumpers and personnel?p427

A

large diameter hose(LDH)

951
Q

the amount of water required at an incident and the distance between the incident scene and the water source determine the need for?p427

A

relay pumping

952
Q

the amount of water required will have a major impact on the design of the?p427

A

relay system

953
Q

if the amount of flow through a relay operation needs to be increased:p428

A

increase diameter/number of supply linesincrease PDP of pumpers involveadd pumper(s) to overcome friction loss

954
Q

centrifugal pumps are rated to pump their maximum volume capacity at _____ at _____?p428

A

150psi; draft

955
Q

at no time should discharge pressure exceed the pressure at which hose or appliances have been?p428

A

service tested

956
Q

*pumper are rated to flow:p429

A

maximum capacity at 150 psi70% at 200 psi60% at 250 psi

957
Q

formula for relay distance(all answers rounded up to the nearest whole number)p430

A

P=R/D+1P=total number of pumpers neededR=relay distanceD=distance from Tables 12.1a or 12.1b

958
Q

when relaying long distances the hose lays between each pumper should as ____ as possible.p432

A

equalized

959
Q

overall capacity of the relay system is determined by?p432

A

smallest pump and smallest diameter hose used

960
Q

failure to keep water moving through the pump when using a static water supply may result in?p432

A

loss of prime or overheating of the pump

961
Q

secured hoseline that is used to handle excess water during a relay operation?p433

A

dump line

962
Q

the relay pumper should be waiting for water with?p433

A

a dump line or discharge open and the pump out of gear

963
Q

when a steady flow of water begins to issue from the dump line, the pump on the relay pumper may be?p433

A

engaged

964
Q

the driver of the relay pumper should maintain an intake pressure of?p433

A

20-30 psi

965
Q

as water begins to reach each pumper, the driver should ____ any air from the line before opening the intake valve.p433

A

bleed

966
Q

process of releasing a liquid or gas under pressure such as releasing air from the regulator or cylinder of a SCBA, or allowing air to escape from hoseline?p433

A

bleed

967
Q

device that serves an important role in the safety of relay operation because the cumulative effect of pressure increases when in changes in flow occur?p433

A

pressure governor

968
Q

apparatus equipped with pressure governor should set be set in pressure mode when acting as the ___ ___ and in the rpm mode while working as a ___ ____.p433

A

attack pumper; relay pumper

969
Q

relay pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve, they should be set to ____ above the static pressure of the water system/discharge pressure of the previous pumper in the relay.p434

A

10 psi

970
Q

attack pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve should be set between ___ and ___ to establish a stable operating condition.p434

A

50-75 psi

971
Q

do not attempt to correct minor fluctuations as long as the intake pressure does not drop below?p434

A

20 psi

972
Q

when the need for relay pumping has ended the operation should be discontinued from the?p434

A

fire scene first

973
Q

beginning with the attack pumper and coordinating with the other pumpers in the relay, each driver should?p434

A

slowly decrease the throttle, open the dump line valve, and then disengage the pump

974
Q

operating from portable folding drop tanks eliminates the ___ ___ and inconsistent supply sometimes found in closed relay.p435

A

pressure surges

975
Q

to attain ____ ____, these relay task force units must train together and have compatible equipment.p435

A

maximum proficiency

976
Q

using hose for supply:p435

A

median diameter hose(MDH) 2 1/2”or 3” multiple lineslarge diameter hose(LDH) 4” or 5” requires only 1

977
Q

refer to ____ for further information regarding the placement of relief devices.p435

A

nfpa 1962

978
Q

appliances intended to enhance firefighter safety and reduce the possibility of damage to the pump and other water supply components that may be caused by water hammer?p435

A

relay relief valves

979
Q

placed along the length of the supply hose that permits a pumper to connect to the valve to boost pressure in the hose?p436

A

inline relay valve

980
Q

used to provide water supply to incident scenes where relay pumping is not a viable option?p443

A

water shuttle operations

981
Q

deliver their load of water to the incident scene, dump it into portable tanks, travel to a fill site and then return to the incident scene to dump another load of water?p443

A

water supply apparatus(tenders or tankers)

982
Q

usually provides more reliable supply of continuous water with the use of fewer apparatus, but it is more labor intensive to take up when incident is terminated?p443

A

relay pumping

983
Q

relies on the constant movement of apparatus at the fill site and dump sites as well as along the route?p444

A

shuttle operations

984
Q

in shuttle operations with movement of multiple apparatus the chance of _____ increases?p444

A

collision

985
Q

location at which tankers/tenders will be loaded during a water shuttle operation?p444

A

fill site

986
Q

location approved for water shuttle apparatus to discharge their water for other apparatus to draw during incident operations?p444

A

dump site

987
Q

most favorable aspect of a water shuttle operation is the?p444

A

ease with which it is terminated when the incident is concluded

988
Q

in some cases an incident may begin with a ___ ___ operation for the sake of expediency and then transition to a ___ as supply lines are laid.p444

A

water shuttle; relay

989
Q

major components of a water shuttle operation:p444

A

fill site, shuttle route, and dump site

990
Q

with the exception of operations that feature a vacuum tanker or the use of a hydrant, most water shuttles require at least ___ pumpers for water supply.p445

A

2

991
Q

pumper located at the water source and has the responsibility of filling water tenders?p445

A

fill site pumper

992
Q

pumper located near the fire scene and is used to draft water from portable tanks that are filled by water tenders making shuttle runs to and from fill site?p445

A

dump site pumper

993
Q

according to nfpa 1901 water tenders must be designed to be filled at a rate of at least ____ so that pumpers assigned to the fill site must be rated at that capacity or greater.p445

A

1,000gpm

994
Q

vehicle weight restrictions generally limit single rear axle apparatus to a maximum capacity of?p446

A

2,000 gallons

995
Q

with regards to weight apparatus with a capacity greater than 2,000 gallons require?p446

A

tandem rear axles, tri-axles, or semi-trailers

996
Q

water tenders used for shuttle operations do not require a ___ ___ if they are equipped with suitable dumping system.p446

A

fire pump

997
Q

tenders featuring pumps of 750gpm or greater rating are often called?p446

A

pumper/tenders

998
Q

in order to be considered a tender under NIMS typing requires?p446

A

an onboard or portable fire pump

999
Q

is bale to self-fill from a static water source at a rate of up to 2,000gpm with a lift of up to 22ft.?p446

A

vacuum tender

1000
Q

vacuum tenders are capable of discharging its water tank at a rate of up to?p446

A

1750 gpm

1001
Q

the success of a water shuttle operation depends on its?p446

A

efficiency

1002
Q

variable of water shuttle operation that can be controlled through equipment and training to increase efficiency?p446

A

filling and dump times

1003
Q

attempt to “make up time” by driving faster during water shuttle operation is unsafe and may result in?p447

A

property damage, injury, death to firefighters/civilians

1004
Q

if using medium diameter hose for filling should have at least ___ external fill connections piped directly to the tank; if using LDH ____ fill connection is generally sufficient.p447

A

2 MDH; 1 LDH

1005
Q

an alternative to using heavy and harder to handle LDH a ____ hose for each tank fill with quarter turn connectors.p447

A

3”

1006
Q

it is preferable to have an “____” in the fill pipping to avoid pressurizing the vehicles onboard water tank.p447

A

“air gap”

1007
Q

*filling through the ___ of the tanks is dangerous and should be discouraged.p447

A

top

1008
Q

apparatus equipped with ___ ___ valve, this design often do not meet the 1,000gpm flow requirement of nfpa1901.p448

A

front dump valve

1009
Q

multiple dump valves help improve ___ and ___ by eliminating the need for backing at many dump sites.p448

A

efficiency and safety

1010
Q

tanks must be ____ ____ to ensure proper dumping operations.p448

A

adequately vented

1011
Q

two primary types of large tank discharges in use on water tenders?p448

A

gravity and jet-assisted dumps

1012
Q

gravity is used to empty water from tank; use 8” or larger round or square piping; valve that extends to the exterior of the vehicle?p448

A

gravity dump

1013
Q

use small diameter in-line discharge inserted into the piping of the large tank discharge; in-line discharge is supplied by the water pump on the water tender and creates a Venturi effect increasing water flow through large tank discharge?p448

A

jet-assissted dumps

1014
Q

larger gravity dumps limit cost and address operation issues concerning jet-assissted dumps:p448-449

A

apparatus must be equipped with fire pumppump must be engaged before dumping/adds time water can be discharged without engaging pump at lower ratehigh velocity of water discharge may miss portable tank/strike people or other apparatusmechanism may freeze between dumping-cold weather

1015
Q

with exception of ___ ___, the onboard tank of water tenders must be properly vented to avoid a sudden pressure failure of the tank during quick-filling operations.p449

A

vacuum tenders

1016
Q

the driver must be sure that the ___ are completely open during fill and dump operations.p449

A

vents

1017
Q

success of a water shuttle operation relies on several decisions:p449-450

A

location of dump sitelocation of fill siteroute of travelnumber of apparatus necessary

1018
Q

best time to make tactical decisions id during?p450

A

pre-incident planning for target hazards and specific geographical areas

1019
Q

must be relatively close proximity to the incident scene, but not so close where it would hamper operations or be in danger of exposure/collapse?p450

A

dump site

1020
Q

if incident is located on a narrow lane, driveway, or dead end street, it may be advantageous to locate the dump site at?p450

A

nearest intersection

1021
Q

best location for a dump site is where water tenders can have through access to complete their water shuttle without having to?p450

A

turn around

1022
Q

for water shuttle operation most suitable site to meet the travel safety and flow requirements of a particular incident may not be always be?p450

A

geographically closest site

1023
Q

*_____ accidents involving mobile water supply apparatus are a major cause of death and injury to firefighters each year.p453

A

rollover

1024
Q

the route of travel for water tenders should be selected based on ?p453

A

safety and operational effectiveness

1025
Q

this route is the optimum arrangement for a water shuttle circuit?p453

A

circular

1026
Q

fully loaded tenders should travel ____ and empty tenders should make return trip traveling ____.p453

A

downhill; uphill

1027
Q

consider the following safety issues when planning a route of travel for water shuttle operations:p454

A

narrow roadslong drivewaysblind curves/intersectionswinding roadssteep gradesinclement weather conditionsfreezing water

1028
Q

US mandated incident management system that defines the roles, responsibilities, and standard operating procedures used to manage emergency operations; creates unified response structure for federal, state, and local governments?p454

A

national incident command system-incident command system(NIMS-ICS)

1029
Q

when water supply group is established, the person in charge is known as?p454

A

water supply supervisor

1030
Q

when multiple radio channels are available it may be advantageous to assign dedicated channel to water supply to reduce traffic on the ____?p454

A

main incident channel

1031
Q

person assigned the role of ___ ___ for water supply operation must have considerable experience in pumper, water supply, and shuttle operations, as well as familiarity with local conditions and a working knowledge of the ICS.p455

A

group supervisor

1032
Q

system described in nfpa 1561 that defines the roles, responsibilities, and standard operating procedures used to manage emergency operations?p455

A

incident management system (IMS)

1033
Q

group supervisor will appoint individual responsible for fill and dump sites, which typical ____ or ___ of apparatus stationed at site.p455

A

company officer or driver/operator

1034
Q

during large scale incidents it may be necessary to establish two or more water shuttle operations, in these cases IC may develop a?p455

A

water supply branch(east shuttle and west shuttle)

1035
Q

the goal of the fill site is to load tenders as ___ and ___ as possible?p455

A

safely; efficiently

1036
Q

positioning at fill site must allow for drafting or hydrant connection and the best possible approach and departure for ___ ___ traffic?p456

A

water tender

1037
Q

ideally position fill site pumper to allow view of?p456

A

water source and water tender to be filled

1038
Q

if possible fill water tenders at a rate of?p456

A

1,000gpm

1039
Q

when operating from a hydrant driver must connect at a minimum a ____ intake hose; connect ___ hydrant discharges to pump intake to maximize the potential.p456

A

LDH; all available

1040
Q

when positioning for draft at static water supply seek position that requires minimum of lift in order to?p456

A

maximize flow

1041
Q

when fill site pumper has been positioned at source layout and make ready ____ and ____ necessary for the operation?456

A

hose and appliances

1042
Q

commonly water tenders have at least ___ or ___ direct tank fill connections?p456

A

2- 2 1/2” or 1- LDH

1043
Q

position a traffic cone/marker so that it is adjacent to ___ ___ denoting the best stopping point for water tender?p456

A

driver’s door

1044
Q

*using hose clamps on LDH is ___; flow through LDH should be controlled at the ____ or with ____ ____?p457

A

unsafe; pumper or with valve appliances

1045
Q

*do not fill water tenders with ____ fill device or an ___ due to the reaction of hoseline and possibility of firefighters sustaining serious injuries due to falls from the top of the tender.p48

A

portable; open hose butt

1046
Q

at fill site assign one firefighter to ___ and ___ each fill line that is laid out.p458

A

maneuver and connect

1047
Q

firefighters operating fill lines are referred to as?p458

A

“make and break”

1048
Q

personnel should remain at the gate valves or manifold until the tender is?p458

A

full

1049
Q

the hand signals/flashlight signals at fill site should be given by ____ in order to maintain continuity and clarity of instruction.p459

A

one individual

1050
Q

monitor ground conditions as the shuttle operation progresses because of?p459

A

water spill

1051
Q

drivers of responding tenders should fill their tanks before returning to _____; so that apparatus is in “____” status.p459

A

quarters; “ready”

1052
Q

provides a continuous supply of water to the apparatus attacking the fire?p459

A

dump site

1053
Q

primary methods for operating a dump site:p459

A

direct pumping nurse tenderportable water tank

1054
Q

water tenders pump the water from their tanks directly into the pump intake of an attack apparatus?p459

A

direct pumping method

1055
Q

two pumpers connect to a siamese intake of attack pumper, 1st pumper supplies at slightly higher pressure and once its out of water the 2nd will begin the supply without delay?p460

A

alternating supply operation

1056
Q

dump site method generally performed only when a minimal volume of water is required?p460

A

direct pumping

1057
Q

dump site method of positioning a large water tender immediately adjacent to the attack pumper, serving the same role as a portable tank?p460

A

nurse tankers(tenders)

1058
Q

tractor-trailer tenders are typically used as?p460

A

nurse tankers(tenders)

1059
Q

portable water tanks located near the incident scene to eliminate the need for backing or turning around is an efficient way to manage?p460

A

dump site water supply

1060
Q

very large water tanker(generally 4,000 gallons or larger) that is stationed at the fire scene and serves as a portable reservoir rather than as a shuttle tanker?p460

A

nurse tanker

1061
Q

method generally considered to be the simplest and quickest method to ensure a constant water supply for fire attack operations?p461

A

portable tank method

1062
Q

generally pumping through a discharge is ____ ____ than using a dump valve?p461

A

less efficient

1063
Q

fire fighters should not attempt to manually hold the ___ ___ of a hoseline?p461

A

open butt

1064
Q

end of a charged hoseline that is flowing water without a nozzle or valve to control the flow?p461

A

open butt

1065
Q

the tank ____ must have opening of sufficient size to allow free movement of water at the bottom and air at the top during rapid filling or dumping.461

A

baffles

1066
Q

intermediate partial bulkhead that reduces the surge effect in a partially loaded liquid tank?p461

A

baffles

1067
Q

nfpa 1901 requires all tenders to dump at a minimum average flow of ____ for the first ____ percent of its tank capacity.p362

A

1,000gpm; 90%

1068
Q

collapsible storage tank used during a relay or shuttle operation to hold water from water tanks or hydrants?p462

A

portable tank(catch basin, fold-a-tank, port-tank or portable basin)

1069
Q

operation that is generally adequate for firefighting operations that require relatively low flow rates(less than 300gpm)?p462

A

portable tank

1070
Q

portable tank variation consisting of a large bladder with a floating collar around the opening; must be set up on level surface to hold max capacity?p462

A

self-supporting or frameless water tank

1071
Q

regardless of type portable tanks should be set up on level surface and have a capacity of at least?p462

A

500gpm

1072
Q

when drafting from portable tanks dump site pumper should use _____ strainer for continuous drafting until about 2 inches.p462

A

low-level

1073
Q

incident that require a flow rate in excess of 300gpm are best served by a?p463

A

multiple tank operation

1074
Q

most multi-tank operations use?p463

A

2-5 tanks

1075
Q

the goal of multi-tank operation is to keep the tank used by attack pumper?p463

A

full at all times

1076
Q

ways to transfer water between portable tanks:p463

A

connect drain openingsuse jet siphons(more efficient)

1077
Q

must monitor conditions around the dump site as operations progress?p464

A

dump site officer

1078
Q

if conditions at dump site deteriorate the new dump site must be put into use before original one is ?p464

A

terminated

1079
Q

all attack apparatus and the dump site pumper should be refilled prior to?p464

A

concluding operations

1080
Q

overall tender performance is based on a number of factors:p464

A

loading and unloading time, rive-train capabilities, and tank size

1081
Q

two basic methods for calculating a flow rate for specific tender:p465

A

timer(dump valve is opened-return to dump site)ISO formulas

1082
Q

formula water shuttle ratep465

A

FLOW=0.9xTS/trip timeFLOW= water shuttle flow rate in gpm0.9=constant(90% tank)TS= tank size

1083
Q

private national insurance organization that evaluates and rates fire defense for all communities through the fire-suppression rating schedule?p465

A

insurance services office(ISO)

1084
Q

formula travel timep466

A

travel time=0.65+(1.7)(distance) 5 mile water shuttletravel time=0.65+(1.7)(5)travel time=9.15 minutes

1085
Q

formula handling timep466

A

handling time=fill site time+dump site time4,000 gal tender/rate of 2,000gpm fill time=(2min+[4000/2000])=4dump time=(2min+[4000/2000])=4handling time=4+4=8 min

1086
Q

flow rate of the fill site pumper must be established in order to use what formula?p466

A

handling time

1087
Q

some FD have found that they actually routinely dump less than ____ of each load?p467

A

90.00%

1088
Q

one of the most accurate ways to to determine the amount of water left in tank after dumping id to ____ the truck full and after dumping.p467

A

weigh

1089
Q

formula tender flow ratep467

A

Flow=0.9xTS/Travel time+handling timeFlow=tender flow rate gpm0.9=constant(90% tank)TS=tank size

1090
Q

matching local capabilities with water supply requirements should be completed prior to an?p468

A

incident

1091
Q

effective water shuttle operations are the result of safe and efficient practices and not excessive?p468

A

driving speeds

1092
Q

use of foam agents in all areas of the fire service has _____ dramatically in recent years.p479

A

increased

1093
Q

foam used by a physical agitation of a mixture of foam concentrate, water, and air?p480

A

mechanical foam

1094
Q

mixing water with appropriate amount of foam concentrate in order to form a foam solution?p480

A

proportioning

1095
Q

introduction of air into a foam solution to create bubbles that result in finished foam?p480

A

aeration

1096
Q

process used to mix foam concentrate with water in a nozzle or proportioner; concentrate drawn into the water by venturi effect?p480

A

eduction

1097
Q

raw chemical compound solution that is mixed with water and air to produce finished foam?p480

A

foam concentrate

1098
Q

device that injects the correct amount of foam concentrate into the water stream to make foam solution?p480

A

foam proportioner

1099
Q

the result of mixing the appropriate amount of foam concentrate with water?p480

A

foam solution

1100
Q

an extinguishing agent formed by mixing a foam concentrate with water and aerating the solution for expansion?p480

A

foam(finished foam)

1101
Q

most common foams in use; must proportioned and aerated before use?p480

A

mechanical foam

1102
Q

to produce fire fighting foam, foam concentrate, water, and air must be ?p480

A

educated or injected in the correct ratios

1103
Q

failure to match the proper ___ ___ to the type of fuel may result in an unsuccessful suppression attempt that could endanger firefighters.p480

A

foam concentrate

1104
Q

class B fuels are decided into two:p480

A

hydrocarbons and polar solvents

1105
Q

crude oil, fuel oil, gasoline, benzene, and kerosene are petroleum based and have a specific gravity less than one and will float on water?p480

A

hydrocarbon fuels

1106
Q

effective in extinguishing these fires and suppressing vapors because because it floats on the surface of hydrocarbon fuels?p480

A

class B

1107
Q

alcohol, acetone, ketones, and esters, are known as miscible(mix with water); special alcohol-resistant(polymeric) formulations of firefighting foam must be used when these flammable liquids are encountered?p480

A

polar solvants

1108
Q

many modern fuels, including gasoline, are blended with up to ___ solvent additives.p480

A

15.00%

1109
Q

class b foam are designed solely for hydrocarbon and not effective on polar solvents?p481

A

polar solvents

1110
Q

some foams are intended for use on polar solvents may be used on?p481

A

hydrocarbons fuel

1111
Q

foam extinguishes and/or suppresses vapors by:p481

A

separating-barrier between fuel and firecooling- lower temp of fuel and adjacent surfacessuppressing or smothering- prevents release of flammable vapors reducing ignition/reignition

1112
Q

firefighting foam creates a ____ on the burning or exposed fuel, excluding oxygen and making ignition difficult and stops the burning process.p481

A

film/blanket

1113
Q

a petroleum based organic compound that contains only hydrogen and carbon?p481

A

hydrocarbon fuel

1114
Q

liquid having a molecule where the negative and positive charger are permanently separated, resulting in their ability to ionize in solution and create electrical conductivity(water, alcohol, and sulfuric acid)?p481

A

polar solvants

1115
Q

materials that are capable of being mixed in all proportions?p481

A

miscible

1116
Q

foam concentrates are generally intended to be mixed with?p482

A

fresh or slat water

1117
Q

most fire fighting foam concentrates are formulated to mix with ___ to ___ percent water.p482

A

94 to 99.9

1118
Q

class a foams are formulated to be proportioned within certain limits, percentage range:p482

A

0.1 to 1 percent

1119
Q

foam is proportioned by:p482

A

inductioninjectionbatch mixing premixing

1120
Q

equipment types for proportioning foam:p483

A

apparatus, portable use, or fixed fire protection system

1121
Q

uses the pressure of water stream to induct(draft) foam concentrate?p483

A

induction method

1122
Q

uses an external pump to force foam concentrate into the fire stream at the proper ratio; commonly apparatus mounted or fixed fire protection system?p483

A

injection

1123
Q

simple but potentially inaccurate method of mixing foam concentrate and water, foam concentrate is poured directly into a tank of water?p483

A

batch mixing

1124
Q

method commonly used with class A foams; may not be effective during large incidents as foam lines must be shut down when the tank is emptied?p483

A

batch mixing

1125
Q

portable proportioning device that injects a liquid, such as foam concentrate into the water; venturi device that uses water pressure to draw foam concentrate?p483

A

eductor

1126
Q

solid or flexible tube used to transfer foam concentrate from a storage container to the inline eductor or proportioner?p483

A

pickup tube

1127
Q

mixing remeasured portions of water and foam concentrate in a container; portable extinguishers, wheeled extinguishers, skid mounted twin ager units, vehicle mounted tank systems?p484

A

pre-mixing

1128
Q

when batch mixing class b foam concentrate tank water must be _____ to ensure proper mixing before discharge.p484

A

circulated

1129
Q

must be thoroughly flushed after use with foams:p484

A

fire pump, associated piping, tank, hose, and appliances

1130
Q

batch mixing of class a foam is accomplished using portable tanks with?p484

A

tender relays

1131
Q

premixed solutions may be discharged from a ________ tank using compressed air or inert gas(nitrogen) or by a pump from a _______ storage tank.p484

A

pressurized; non pressurized

1132
Q

limited to one time use applications, once used they must be completely emptied, flushed, and refilled before used again?p484

A

premixing system

1133
Q

methods of foam storage for fire service application:p484

A

pails barrels totesapparatus tanks

1134
Q

5-gallon plastic container not affected by the corrosive nature of foam, remain airtight?p485

A

pails

1135
Q

55-gallon plastic or plastic-lined container container, more common in industrial applications?p485

A

barrels

1136
Q

275-gallon container, bulk storage required, trailer mounted, housed and transported by a “host” department in response area for large-scale incidents?p485

A

totes

1137
Q

piped directly to the delivery system; 20 to 200 gallons on fire pumpers and 8,000 gallons or more on tenders?p485

A

apparatus tanks

1138
Q

often located above the fire pump area or integral cell within the apparatus water tank, or additional pump and a lower connection point for refilling the tank?p486

A

smaller foam concentrate tanks

1139
Q

may be directly adjacent to the water tank, or only one tank for foam and no water tank?p486

A

larger foam concentrate tanks

1140
Q

mixing different types or brands of foam concentrate should be avoided as the result may prove?p486

A

ineffective and have reduced suppression capabilities

1141
Q

some foam concentrate are approved for both but the majority are divide for use on either?p486

A

class a(ordinary) or class b(flammable)

1142
Q

available since the 1940s class a foam technology has only recently been widely accepted and used for?p486

A

structure, wildland, coal, tire storage, other deep seated fuels

1143
Q

*use class a foams only on ___ fuels.p487

A

class a

1144
Q

includes hydrocarbon surfactants that reduce the surface tension of water in the foam solution?p487

A

class a foam

1145
Q

chemical that lowers the surface tension of a liquid; allows water to spread more rapidly over the surface of class a fuels and penetrate organic fuels?p487

A

surfactant

1146
Q

*as with any method of fire attack, the correct ___ must be applied to safely and efficiently extinguish the fire.p487

A

flow in gpm

1147
Q

may be used with fog nozzles, aerating foam nozzles, medium and high expansion devices, compressed air foam systems using most nozzles including solid?p487

A

class a foam

1148
Q

shelf life of class a foam?p487

A

as long as 20 years

1149
Q

drain time increases in proportion with increases in the ____ of the solution.p487

A

percentage

1150
Q

most foam nozzles will produce more stable foam at ____ percent concentration than ____ percent?p487

A

1%; 0.5%

1151
Q

proportioning class a foam for fire attack and overhaul with standard fog nozzles?p488

A

0.2-0.5%

1152
Q

proportioning class a foam for exposure protection with standard fog nozzles?p488

A

0.5-1.0%

1153
Q

proportioning class a foam for any application with air aspirating foam nozzles?p488

A

0.3-0.7%

1154
Q

proportioning class a foam for any application with compressed air foam systems(CAFS)?p488

A

0.2-0.5%

1155
Q

minimum amount of foam solution that must be applied to an unignited fire, spill, or spill fire to either control vapor emission or extinguish the fire; measured per minute per square foot of area to be covered?p488

A

application rate

1156
Q

the rate at which foam bubbles breakdown?p488

A

stability of foam

1157
Q

class b foam concentrate consist of ?p489

A

synthetic or protein base

1158
Q

made from a mixture of fluorosurfactants; 20-25 years shelf life?p489

A

synthetic foam

1159
Q

derived from animal protein; 10 years shelf life?p489

A

protein based foam

1160
Q

should be stored in cool areas to maximize shelf life?p489

A

class be foam

1161
Q

generally ____ products are considered safer for the environment?p489

A

protein based

1162
Q

specifications developed by the US department of defense(DoD) for purchase of materials and equipment ?p489

A

military specifications(Mil-Specs)

1163
Q

form provided by the manufacturer and blender of chemicals that contains information about chemical composition, physical and chemical properties, health and safety hazards, emergency response procedures, and waste disposal procedures of a specified material?p489

A

safety data sheet(SDS)

1164
Q

class be foams are mixed in proportions of?p490

A

1 to 6 percent

1165
Q

concentration of hydrocarbon fuel?p490

A

1 to 3 percent

1166
Q

concentration for polar solvants ?p490

A

3 to 6 percent

1167
Q

result of adding air to a foam solution consisting of water and foam concentrate; increase in volume of solution once aerated?p490

A

foam expansion

1168
Q

method used to aerate foam solution will create varying degrees of expansion based on:p490

A

type of foamaccurate proportioning quality of foammethod of aeration

1169
Q

foam expansion is generally describe as being low, medium, or high; nfpa 11 states:p490

A

low- 20:1 ratiomedium- 20:1 up to 200:1high- 200:1 to 1000:1

1170
Q

rate of application depends on:p490

A

type of concentrateif fuel is on firetype of fuelfuel is contained or not

1171
Q

the minimum foam solution application rates for ignited fuels are specified in?p490

A

nfpa 11

1172
Q

to calculate the application rate available from a specific nozzle?p491

A

divide the flow rate by the area of the fireflow rate gpm/fire area ftŒ_= gpm/ftŒ_

1173
Q

unignited spills do not require the same application rate due to the absence of:p491

A

radiant heat, open flame, and thermal drafts

1174
Q

once foam application begins continue without interruption from uphill/upwind until?p491

A

extinguishment

1175
Q

derived from animal protein sources such as hooves, horns or feather meal?p492

A

protein foams

1176
Q

foam concentrate that consists of a protein hydrolysate plus additives to prevent from freezing, corrosion equipment and containers, bacterial decomposition during storage and control viscosity?p492

A

protein foam concentrate

1177
Q

to cause or go a chemical process of decomposition involving the splitting of a bond and the addition of the element of water?p492

A

hydrolyze

1178
Q

ability of foam blanket to resist direct flame impingement such as would be evident in a partially extinguished petroleum fire?p492

A

burnback resistance

1179
Q

foam concentrate that combines the qualities of fluoroprotein foam with those of aqueous film forming foam?p492

A

film forming fluoroprotein foam(FFFP)

1180
Q

synthetic foam concentrate that when combined with water can form a complete vapor barrier over fuel spills and fires and is a highly effective extinguishing and blanketing agent on hydrocarbon fuels?p492

A

aqueous film forming foam(AFFF, light water)

1181
Q

generally has good heat stability and burnback resistance; not as fluid and degrades more quickly in storage than synthetic?p492

A

regular protein foam

1182
Q

combination of protein-based foam and synthetic, surfactants are added, flow more readily than ordinary foam, longer lasting vapor suppression?p492

A

fluoroprotein foam

1183
Q

may be made alcohol resistant(approximately 15 minutes) with the addition of ammonia salts suspended in organic solvents,

A

fluoroprotein foams

1184
Q

most commonly used synthetic foam concentrate; fluorochemical and hydrocarbon surfactants combined with solvents to create a high boiling point?p492

A

aqueous film forming foam(AFFF, A triple F)

1185
Q

when AFFF or FFFP foam is applied to a fire involving a hydrocarbon fuel:p493

A

-air/vapor excluding film is released ahead of the foam blanket-fast moving blanket of foam spreads across the surface of the fuel surrounding objects/providing insulation-as aerated foam blanket drains water, more lim is released giving the foam an ability to recover or “heal” areas disturbed

1186
Q

*when applying foam be aware of the potential for _____ in previously covered areas where contact with hot objects may be present, more apparent with AFFF foam.p493

A

burnback

1187
Q

aqueous film forming foam that is designed for use with polar solvent fuels?p493

A

alcohol-resistant aqueous film forming foam concentrate(AR-AFFF)

1188
Q

commonly used on polar solvents (3-6%), may be used on hydrocarbon (1-6%)? p493

A

AFFF

1189
Q

applied gently to a fuel product in order allow membrane to form, aspirating nozzles generally best?p493

A

AR-AFFF

1190
Q

contains detergent base and a low water content?p494

A

high expansion foam

1191
Q

common applications for high expansion foam:p494

A

concealed space firefixed extinguishing systems for specific industrial hazardsclass a fire applications

1192
Q

foam proportioning devices operate by one of two basic principles:p494

A

venturi effect or pressurized proportioning

1193
Q

impart pressure on the foam solution with the use of the main pump, introduces air into the foam solution when it reaches the nozzle or is discharged from the nozzle?p494

A

low energy foam systems

1194
Q

a simple and common method of foam proportioning involves the use of a ?p494

A

portable foam proportioner

1195
Q

three common types of portable foam proportioner:p494

A

in-line foam eductorfoam nozzle eductorself educating master stream nozzles

1196
Q

type of foam delivery device that is located in line near the nozzle; foam is drawn into the water line using venturi method?p494

A

in-line foam eductor

1197
Q

flow in gpm through eductor must not exceed its; quality of foam may decrease or flow may stop if exceeded?p495

A

rated capacity

1198
Q

pressure at the discharge side of the eductor must not exceed _____ percent of the eductor inlet pressure.p495

A

70.00%

1199
Q

pressure loss or gain created by changes in elevation between the nozzle and pump?p495

A

back pressure

1200
Q

foam solution will only blend accurately if the inlet pressure at the eductor is correct?p495

A

150-200 psi

1201
Q

inlet pressure too low will not create venturi effect resulting in ?p495

A

mixture too lean

1202
Q

inlet pressure too high?p4

A

mixture too rich

1203
Q

educators must be properly maintained by immersing pick up tube in clean water and letting it induct water for at least?p495

A

1 minute

1204
Q

must be set to draw the correct percentage needed to develop correct quality foam?p495

A

metering valves

1205
Q

the foam concentrate inlet to the eductor should be no more than ____ above the liquid surface of the foam concentrate?p495

A

6 ft

1206
Q

foam concentrate are more viscous in ____ and less viscous when ____?p495

A

cold; heated

1207
Q

the nozzle and the eductor must have the same ___ ___ in order to operate successfully.p495

A

gpm rating

1208
Q

operates under the same principle as in-line eductor, but it is built in rather than attached to hoseline?p496

A

self-eructing nozzle

1209
Q

*use of foam nozzle eductors may compromise firefighter ____, because firefighters cannot quickly move and must abandon the supply of concentrate should they need to withdraw rapidly.p496

A

safety

1210
Q

large-capacity nozzle with built-in foam eductor, uses a modified venturi design, pickup tube is located in the center bore of the nozzle?p496

A

self-educting master stream foam nozzle

1211
Q

produces an over-proportioned that is diluted by the deflector plates in the nozzle, flows in excess of 350gpm(up to 14,000gpm), pressure drop is much lower(10 percent or less) than standard foam nozzle eductor?p496

A

self-educting master stream foam nozzle

1212
Q

type of foam eductor that is used to supply self-educting master stream nozzles?p497

A

jet ratio controller(JRC)

1213
Q

jet ratio controller allows the foam concentrate to be located as far as _____ away from a self-educting master stream nozzle, and elevation change of up to____? p497

A

3,000 ft; 50 ft

1214
Q

supplied by a hoseline from the main fire pump; flow of water of this device represents about 2.5% of total flow?p497

A

jet ratio controller

1215
Q

JRC proportion the concentrate at a ____ percent solution, then it is further proportioned by nozzle resulting in discharge solution of ____ percent.p497

A

66.5%; 3%

1216
Q

operate under the same principles as portable in-line eductor, but the system is fixed-position mounting on apparatus?p497

A

installed in-line eductor system

1217
Q

in some installations a ___ ___ is installed to reduce the friction loss across the eductor.p497

A

bypass proportioner

1218
Q

in ___ ___, a valve directs the water through a second chamber of the eductor that contains no orifice or restrictions; used when no foam is desired?p497

A

bypass mode

1219
Q

when a ___ ___ is required, a valve is directed to divert water through the eductor/orifice chamber?p497

A

foam line

1220
Q

most commonly used to proportion ____ foam, not as effective for proportioning the very low concentrations used in ____ foam operations?p497

A

class b; class a

1221
Q

apparatus-mounted foam proportioner in which a small quantity of water is diverted from the pump through an in-line proportioner; there it picks up foam and carries it to the intake side of the pump?p498

A

around-the-pump proportioner

1222
Q

in the open position valve for the around-the-pump proportioner eductor allows approximately ______ to flow through the piping?p498

A

10 to 40gpm

1223
Q

older model around-the-pump proportioner only work with onboard tank water, because inlet water pressure of greater than ____ will not allow foam concentrate to enter the pump intake.p498-499

A

10 psi

1224
Q

one of the most most common types of installed proportioners used in modern fire apparatus?p498

A

around-the-pump proportioner

1225
Q

is unable to pump both foam and plain water from the pump at the same time?p499

A

around-the-pump proportioner

1226
Q

foam concentrate proportioner that operates in tandem with a fire water pump to ensure a proper foam concentrate-to-water mixture?p499

A

bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner

1227
Q

used on large mobile apparatus installations (ARFF vehicles), is one of the most accurate methods proportioning?p499

A

bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner

1228
Q

features ability to monitor the demand for foam concentrate and adjust amount supplied, also a foam concentrate line supplied by a separate foam concentrate pump connected to each discharge?p499

A

bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner

1229
Q

pressure of the concentrate and water are monitored by a _____ that ensure proper balance.p499

A

hydraulic pressure control valve

1230
Q

because the water and foam concentrate are supplied at the same pressure and the sizes of the discharges are _____, the foam is proportioned correctly.p499

A

proportional

1231
Q

apparatus-mounted foam system that injects the correct amount of foam into the pump piping, thereby supplying all discharges with foam?p500

A

variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system

1232
Q

proportioner generally operates off power supplied but the apparatus electrical system, but larger units may use a combination of electric and hydraulic power?p500

A

variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system

1233
Q

proportion foam 0.1 to 3 percent; used with class a and many class b; not useable with alcohol resistant foam due to the viscous nature of the product?p500

A

variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system

1234
Q

able to adjust to changes in water flow as nozzles are opened or shut, and nozzles can operate above or below pump without adversely affecting foam proportioning?p500

A

variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system

1235
Q

foam proportioning system that is used both fixed and mobile applications; a variable speed mechanism drives the foam pump and automatically monitors the flow to produce effective solution?p500

A

variable-flow demand-typed balance pressure proportioners(pumped/demand system)

1236
Q

flow of concentrate matches the pressure demand; requires no flushing after use; water and/or foam solution may be discharged simultaneously from any number of outlets, up to rated capacity?p500

A

variable-flow demand-typed balance pressure proportioners

1237
Q

the dump in method is the simplest of proportioning foam, approximate amount of concentrate is poured into tank using top fill opening?p501

A

batch mixing

1238
Q

with batch mixing the size of water tank and desired proportioning percentage indicate the ____ that must be poured into tank?p501

A

quantity of concentratedesired 3%97 gal water+3 gal concentrate= 100 gal foam solution

1239
Q

generally batch mixing is only used with ____ and ___?p501

A

class a and regular AFFF(not alcohol resistant)

1240
Q

class a foam do not retain their foaming properties when mixed in water for more than?p501

A

24 hours

1241
Q

when batch mixing slowly circulate the water tank to avoid ____ and continue to do so for short period of time to ensure mixing is complete?p501

A

frothing

1242
Q

foam removes all lubricants from pump seals, thoroughly flush out tank and check seals for proper_____?p501

A

lubrication

1243
Q

conduct flushing operations in accordance with the ____ supplied by the foam manufacturer?p502

A

SDS

1244
Q

because of the shortcomings ____ ____ is used only if no other proportioning method is available?p502

A

batch mixing

1245
Q

introduce compressed air into the foam solution prior to discharge into hoseline; discharged greater distances than ordinary foam/water stream?p502

A

high energy foam generating systems/CAFS

1246
Q

in the mid-1980s, the ______ conducted research that resulted in development of the type of high energy class a foam system?p502

A

US bureau of land management

1247
Q

features a rotary air compressor and a standard centrifugal fire pump?502

A

compressed air foam system(CAFS)

1248
Q

apparatus equipped with CAFS also flow plain water, designed to flow foam only through ____ discharges?p503

A

preselected

1249
Q

CAFS apparatus use a standard centrifugal pump with an automatic discharge side proportioning system; due to low eduction rates, a variable flow rate sensing proportioner is required to supply the fire stream at a rate of?p503

A

0.1 to 1.0 percent

1250
Q

2 cubic ft per min of airflow per gallon per minute of foam solution produces a dry foam of up to 100gpm of foam solution?

A

10:1 expansion ratio

1251
Q

most structural and wildland suppression operations conducted with CAFS use an airflow rate of?p503

A

0.5 to 1.0ftŒ_

1252
Q

*to protect the attack team when using class a foam, ____ floe rates should be the same as those for plain water.p503

A

nozzle

1253
Q

any nozzle that can be safely handled by one to three firefighters and flow less the 350gpm?p503

A

handline nozzle

1254
Q

most common handline nozzles used for foam applications are:p503

A

smooth borefogair-aspirating foam

1255
Q

limited to application of class a foam from a CAFS, exception to the rule-discharge orifice be no greater than half the diameter of the hose?p504

A

smooth bore

1256
Q

may operate fixed flow, selective flow, or automatic when applying low expansion short duration foam blanket?504

A

fog

1257
Q

expansion ratios for most fog nozzles are in the ?p504

A

2:1 to 4:1 range

1258
Q

fog nozzle are most efficient during the application of ____, however may also be used with_____ ?p504

A

regular AFFF and class a; AR-AFFF(hydrocarbon fires)

1259
Q

fog nozzles are not an acceptable choice for delivery of ____ foams as insufficient aspiration is created; likewise not to be employed in incidents involving ____?p504

A

fluoroprotein foam; polar solvents

1260
Q

only nozzles that should be used with protein and fluoroprotein concentrates; can be used with class a in wildland?p504

A

air-aspirating foam nozzle

1261
Q

perform in similar manner to the handling nozzles; used in large-scale flammable and combustible liquid fires beyond the capabilities of hand lines?p504

A

master stream foam nozzles

1262
Q

high-expansion foam generator that uses a fan to inject the air into the foam solution as it passes through the unit?p505

A

mechanical blower

1263
Q

two basic types of medium- and high-expansion foam generators?p505

A

water aspirating an mechanical blower

1264
Q

produce foam containing high air content:p505

A

medium-expansion= 20:1 to 200:1high-expansion= 200:1 to 1000:1

1265
Q

similar to other foam producing nozzles, except considerably larger and longer; generate a lower air volume foam product than mechanical blowers?p505

A

water aspirating device for medium- and high-expansion

1266
Q

air is forced through the foam solution by fan instead of being pulled by water; foam contains very high air content for total flooding; limited to high-expansion applications?p505

A

mechanical blowers

1267
Q

techniques for applying foam to a fire or spill:p506

A

direct-applicationroll-onbank-down rain-down

1268
Q

fire attack class a foam; applying finished foam directly onto the burning material?p506

A

direct-application method

1269
Q

class b foam application; directing a foam fire stream on the ground near the front edge of a burning liquid pill and foam rolls across the surface of the fuel?p506

A

roll-on method

1270
Q

class b foam; foam is directed onto the vertical surface and allowed to run down and spread across the pooled fuel product?p506

A

bank-down method

1271
Q

class b foam; direct stream into the air above the fire allowing the foam to gently rain down on the surface of the fuel?p506

A

rain-down method

1272
Q

capable of being broken down into innocuous products by the actions of living things(microorganisms)?p508

A

biodegradable

1273
Q

chemical change in which a substance breaks down into two or more simpler substances(oxidation)?p508

A

decomposition

1274
Q

studies by the US forest service shows that release of foam into bodies of water can be?p508

A

lethal to fish

1275
Q

provide additional information regarding foam environmental impact?p508

A

safety data sheets(SDS) and nfpa 1150

1276
Q

extinguishing agents as well as pre-treatment of structures threatened by fire spread; retain fire retarding properties longer than class a foam?p508

A

durable or gelling agents (fire blocking gels, or aqueous fire fighting gels)

1277
Q

superabsorbent liquid polymers capable of absorbing hundreds of times their own weight in water?p509

A

gelling agents

1278
Q

water absorbent polymers, small bubbles filled with water, nontoxic and biodegradable, however slippery and more expensive than class a foam?p509

A

durable/gelling agents

1279
Q

applied for extinguishment, fire line construction, or structure protection through hand lines, master streams, or air drop?p509

A

durable/gelling agents

1280
Q

gelling agent standard application ratio?p509

A

extinguishing: 1:100(1%)fire line construction: 1.5-2%structure protection: 2-3%

1281
Q

durable agents will adhere to vertical structural surfaces for up to?p509

A

24 hrs

1282
Q

___ is tested upon completion and periodically for its entire service life?p515

A

new fire apparatus

1283
Q

two basic categories of testing fire apparatus?p515

A

preservice and performance

1284
Q

the purchaser should require these tests when writing specifications for the apparatus bid?p515

A

manufacturer’scertificationacceptance

1285
Q

commonly used as a basis for most apparatus bid specifications?p516

A

nfpa 1901 standard for automotive fire apparatusnfpa 1906 standard for wildland fire apparatusnfpa 414 standard for aircraft rescue and firefighting vehicles

1286
Q

fire department personnel are not normally involved in; performed by manufacturer or underwriter labs?p516

A

manufacturer or certification tests

1287
Q

fire department personnel, especially drivers may be involved in?p516

A

acceptance testing

1288
Q

if requirements of nfpa 1901 are included in apparatus bid specifications, manufacturer must perform two specific test in addition to pump certification tests?p516

A

road test and hydrostatic test

1289
Q

per nfpa 1901, ____ is to be conducted with vehicle loaded to the same weight as it will be when placed in service?p516

A

road test

1290
Q

preservice apparatus maneuverability tests designed to determine the road worthiness of a new vehicle?p516

A

road tests

1291
Q

apparatus road test minimum standards:p516

A

-0-35 mph within 25 seconds -achieve max speed of 50 mph(waived-off road vehicles)-full stop from 20 mph in 35 ft-parking brake must conform to manufacturer specifications

1292
Q

written list of expected capabilities for a new apparatus?p516

A

performance requirements

1293
Q

special requirements should be written into the bid specifications as ____, and not _____ or _____ specifications.p561

A

performance requirements; engineering or equipment

1294
Q

testing method that uses water under pressure to check the integrity of pressure vessels?p517

A

hydrostatic test

1295
Q

performed to ensure that the pump and associated piping are capable of withstanding high pressure pumping demands?p517

A

hydrostatic test

1296
Q

not subjected to hydrostatic testing?p517

A

tank fill and tank-to-pump lines on the tank side of the valves

1297
Q

during testing a minimum hydrostatic test pressure of _____ for a minimum of ____?p517

A

500 psi; 10 minutes

1298
Q

performed by an independent testing organization(UL), and are designed to ensure the fire pump will operate as designed?p517

A

pump certification tests

1299
Q

test performed at manufacturer plant before acceptance of vehicle, and results are stamped on a plate affixed to pump panel?p517

A

pump certification tests

1300
Q

nfpa 1901 requires following certification test on apparatus with fire pump of 750gpm up to 3,000gpm:p517

A

engine speed checkpumping testpumping engine overload testpressure control system testpriming system testvacuum testwater tank-to-pump testengine speed interlock testgauge and flowmeter testmanufacturer’s predelivery test*tank-to-pump flow test(onboard water tank)

1301
Q

procedure used to determine the rate of water flow available for fire fighting at various points within the distribution system?p517

A

fire flow testing

1302
Q

preservice tests on fire apparatus or equipment, performed at the factory or after delivery, to assure the purchaser that the apparatus or equipment meets bid specifications?p517

A

acceptance testing

1303
Q

should feature pump test in addition to the pump certification test?p517

A

acceptance test

1304
Q

if apparatus fails to perform to the requirements outlined in the bid specifications?p517-518

A

rejected by purchasermanufacturer must correct deficiency or new apparatusvoid and choose another vendor

1305
Q

higher than 2,000ft above sea level, ____ should be performed as part of acceptance testing?p518

A

pumping engine overload test

1306
Q

requirements for apparatus service testing are contained in?p518

A

nfpa 1911 standard for inspection, maintenance, testing and retirement of in-service automotive fire apparatus

1307
Q

based on nfpa 1911 a pumper must be performance tested at least ____, or whenever it has undergone ______?p518

A

once a year; major pump or powertrain repair

1308
Q

minimum performance testing required in nfpa 1911:p518

A

engine speed checkpump shift indicatorpump engine control interlockpriming system testvacuum testpumping test for fire pumpsoverload testspressure control test for fire pumpsintake relief valve system testgauge test flowmeter testtank-to-pump flow rate

1309
Q

nfpa 1911 allows performance testing to be conducted using ___ or ___ water supply, but ___ is preferred because it will provide easier evaluation of pump performance?p518

A

hydrant or static; static

1310
Q

distance of the centerline of the pumper intake above the surface of water is based on?p518

A

pump capacity

1311
Q

pumps rated at 1,500gpm or less ___ is maximum distance, while 2,000gpm pumps use a ____ maximum lift?p518

A

10ft; 6ft

1312
Q

air temperature when performance test is conducted should be between?p518

A

0ä‹Š(18ä‹€ ) and 110ä‹Š(43ä‹€ )

1313
Q

water temperature when performance test is conducted should be between?p518

A

35ä‹Š(2ä‹€ ) and 90ä‹Š(32ä‹€ )

1314
Q

barometric pressure should be at least ___ inches of mercury when corrected at sea level?p518-519

A

29

1315
Q

1 inch drop in barometric pressure reduces the static lift of a pumper by approximately?p519

A

1 foot

1316
Q

nfpa 1911 lists the minimum intake hose arrangements necessary to perform tests on pumps of various capacities accurate at altitudes of up to?p519

A

2,000 ft above sea level

1317
Q

intake hose diameter or the number of hoses may need to be increased when performance testing at higher altitude than?p519

A

2,000 ft above sea level

1318
Q

for pump test a sufficient number of discharge hoses must be stretched and operated, minimum diameter for this purpose?p519

A

2 1/2”

1319
Q

to monitor serviceability of the hose during test where hose and coupling meet scribe a ?p519

A

mark

1320
Q

if scribe mark has moved more than 3/8” from coupling?p519

A

stop the test and replace hose

1321
Q

performance tests are conducted at net pump discharge pressure of?p519

A

150 psi, 165 psi, 200 psi, and 250 psi

1322
Q

provides information on friction loss allowances for various sizes of intake hose that may be used during pump testing?p521

A

nfpa1911

1323
Q

nfpa 1911 specifies that all gauges used for service testing must be calibrated within ___ day of testing?p521

A

60

1324
Q

indicates flow in gallons per minute within +/- 5%?p522

A

flowmeter

1325
Q

hole through which a person may go to gain access to an underground or enclosed structure?p523

A

manhole

1326
Q

instrument that indicates the rotational speed of a shaft in revolutions per minute; used to indicate engine speed?p523

A

tachometer

1327
Q

should be conducted under no-load conditions after all fluid levels are within manufacturer recommendations?p523

A

engine speed check

1328
Q

if engine is not running at the same governed speed(+/- 50 rpm) at which it was rated then apparatus should be ?p523

A

evaluated by a qualified mechanic

1329
Q

evaluates the priming device, pump, and intake hose for air leaks?p523

A

vacuum test

1330
Q

if pump fails to reach ___ inches of mercury, remove apparatus from service until repair is made?p523

A

22

1331
Q

according to nfpa 1911 fire pumps of 1,250gpm must achieve prime in _____; 1,500gpm must be primed within ____?p524

A

30 seconds or less; 45 seconds

1332
Q

evaluates the overall operation of the engine and fire pump?p524

A

pumping test

1333
Q

must be tested to ensure the operate as designed, maintaining a safe level of pressure on the pump when valves are closed at a range of discharge pressures?p525

A

pressure control devices

1334
Q

performed in 3 part sequence, and may be completed while the pump is still set up from the pumping test for efficiency?p525

A

pressure control test

1335
Q

must be tested to ensure that the driver has accurate information on which to base decision on pump operations?p525

A

discharge pressure gauges/flowmeter

1336
Q

flow rate is measured using a ___ ___ reading at the discharge of the solid stream nozzle?p525

A

pitot gauge

1337
Q

difference in readings between flowmeter and pitot gauge should be no more than?p525

A

10.00%

1338
Q

must be conducted on any apparatus with an onboard water tank; verifies that piping between the onboard and pump is sufficient to supply minimum amount of water specified by nfpa 1911?p525

A

tank-to-pump flow test

1339
Q

tank capacity flow rate standards:p525-526

A

500 gal or less = 250gpmgreater than 500 gal = 500gpm

1340
Q

internal intake pressure relief valves as well as intake relief valves on any appliances used on the apparatus should be?p526

A

tested

1341
Q

any apparatus that achieves results less than ____ percent of its original rated capabilities, may be placed out of service or restored/tested again.p526

A

90.00%

1342
Q

accuracy of an apparatus foam system must be tested prior to ____ per nfpa 1911, does not require yearly testing?p527

A

delivery

1343
Q

methods for testing a foam proportioning system for calibration:p527

A

foam concentrate displacement methodfoam concentrate pump discharge volume methodfoam solution refractivity testingfoam solution conductivity

1344
Q

method checks the volume of foam concentrate that is drawn through the system to determine the accuracy of the proportioning equipment?p527

A

foam concentrate displacement method

1345
Q

at a predetermined flow water is drawn from a calibrated tank; water has a different viscosity than foam so a correction factor is used?p527

A

foam concentrate displacement method

1346
Q

used by certain direct injection type proportioning systems; discharge fro foam concentrate pump is collected in a calibrated tank for specified period of time ?p528

A

foam concentrate pump discharge volume method

1347
Q

ensures the quality of foam after it has been created using a refractometer to measure; accurate for protein and fluoroprotein?p528

A

foam solution refractivity testing

1348
Q

used to ensure the quality of synthetic based foam; difference in the level of conductivity can be used to measure the amount of foam concentrate in a given solution?p529

A

foam solution conductivity testing

1349
Q

due to the very light color of synthetic based foam, ___ testing is not accurate?p529

A

refractivity

1350
Q

method may be used when actual percentage of foam concentrate in a solution may be indicated on certain meters?p529

A

direct reading conductivity testing

1351
Q

method is used during testing with a meter that displays units of micro-siemens per centimeter(ms/cm)?p529

A

conductivity comparison testing

1352
Q

perfumed using a handheld temperature compensated conductivity meter ?p530

A

conductivity calibration curve testing

1353
Q

designing or selecting apparatus consider factor:p541

A

maneuverabilitymost common tasks requiredamount of equipment it will carrybudget constraintsinsurance industry recommendationsplanning department recommendationsnumber of responders it will carry

1354
Q

because of their size and versatility, _____ ____ often meet many of the criteria that fire departments consider when choosing or designing apparatus.p541

A

aerial devices

1355
Q

specialty category of fire fighting vehicle equipped with a hydraulically operated ladder, elevating platform, or other similar device for the purpose of placing personnel and/or water streams in elevated positions?p541

A

aerial apparatus

1356
Q

nfpa 1901 groups aerial devices into three basic categories; based on how they are used and their tactical advantages:p542

A

aerial ladderselevating platformswater towers

1357
Q

general term used to describe the hydraulically operated ladder or elevating platform attached to a specially designed fire apparatus?p543

A

aerial device

1358
Q

power operated ladder, usually employing hydraulics, that is mounted on a special truck chassis?p543

A

aerial ladder

1359
Q

trailer equipped with steerable rear wheels?p543

A

tillered trailer

1360
Q

assembly of bracing bars or rods in triangular shapes that form a rigid framework for the aerial device?p543

A

aerial ladder truss

1361
Q

engineering design has proven that trusses lend more strength if their assembled members form ____?p543

A

triangles

1362
Q

properly designed truss permits tension and compression stresses to be distributer over the length of the ladder for ____ strength with ____ weight.p543d

A

maximum; minimum

1363
Q

extendable section of ground extension or aerial ladder?p544

A

fly section

1364
Q

the bottom section of the aerial ladder is referred to a as?p544

A

base/bed section

1365
Q

two most common materials for construction of aerial ladders:p544

A

heat-treated aluminum alloy and steel

1366
Q

aerial ladders’ structural members may be:p544

A

fastened by rivetswelded(steel)heliarced(aluminum alloy)

1367
Q

three main portions of an aerial ladder:p544

A

base rails(beams)top rails(handrails)rungs

1368
Q

the lower cords of the aerial ladder to which the rungs, trusses, and other portions of the ladder are attached?p544

A

base rails(beams)

1369
Q

the top chords to which the opposite ends of the trussing are attached?p544

A

top rails(handrails)

1370
Q

the portions that are attached between the two base rails and are used as steps for personnel on the aerial ladder?p544

A

rungs

1371
Q

aerial ladders designed and built with “_____” as a standard feature provide greater strength than those with older designs?p544

A

“k-bracing”

1372
Q

____ establishes requirements for the dimensions of sections and structural members of the aerial ladder?p545

A

nfpa 1901

1373
Q

device that transfers the center of gravity of an apparatus and prevents it from tipping as it is extended away from the centerline of the chassis?p546

A

stabilizer

1374
Q

in the early days aerial apparatus, aerial devices and stabilizers were ____ operated; spring-operated, gear driven, or other means to raise and lower.p546

A

manually

1375
Q

all new aerial devices and virtually all stabilizers are ____ activated?p546

A

hydraulically

1376
Q

*on some apparatus the aerial device could be raised before the ______ are set; the _____ valve should be preset to stabilizer system; selector valve must not be inadvertently changed while the aerial device is ____?p546

A

stabilizers; selector; raised

1377
Q

hydraulic system has four main components:p546

A

actuatorshydraulic fluidhydraulic pumphydraulic reservoir

1378
Q

transforms power into mechanical force?p546

A

actuator

1379
Q

is the medium by which the system transmits force?p546-547

A

hydraulic fluid

1380
Q

creates force on the fluid; powered by power-take-off(PTO) arrangement off the vehicle’s main engine?p547

A

hydraulic pump

1381
Q

hydraulic systems can be either:p547

A

load sensing piston pumprotary vane pumprotary gear positive-displacement pump

1382
Q

hydraulic fluids may be under pressures of?p547

A

3,500 psi

1383
Q

Leaks in hydraulic systems occur at high pressure and can ____ or ___ skin.p548

A

burn or cut

1384
Q

supplies the hydraulic fluid that is moved in and out of the system?p548

A

hydraulic reservoir

1385
Q

the ____ allows air, heat, and foreign matter to be eliminated from the fluid before it is reintroduced into the hydraulic system?p548

A

reservoir

1386
Q

tubes and hoses that supply the hydraulic fluid throughout the system are:p548

A

steel tubing and aircraft-type, steel braided hose

1387
Q

hoses must be rated to withstand pressures of at least ___ ___ greater then normal operating pressure.p548

A

4 times

1388
Q

in order to control the flow of hydraulic fluid through the system a number of different ____ are used?p548

A

valves

1389
Q

start, stop, regulate and direct the flow of fluid to control pressure in the system?p548

A

valves

1390
Q

valves may be controlled?p548-549

A

manuallyelectricallyhydraulicallymechanicallycombination of these methods

1391
Q

prevent fluid from flowing backward through a component and act as safety feature in the event a leak develops in the system?p549

A

check valves

1392
Q

limit the pressure built up in the system, thus preventing damage due to over pressurization?p549

A

relief valves

1393
Q

prevent unintentional or undesirable motion of the device from its established position?p549

A

counterbalance valves

1394
Q

three-way valve on a fire department aerial apparatus that directs oil to either stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves?p549

A

selector valve(diverter valve)

1395
Q

*some older aerial apparatus still in use today do not have the ____ to prevent the unintended use of the aerial before setting the stabilizers?p549

A

interlocks

1396
Q

actuator valves, monitor valves, stack valves abd proportional directional control valves are used to direct and control the power in the operating systems are?p549

A

four- or five-way valves

1397
Q

convert energy in the system into linear mechanical force or motion when pressurized hydraulics oil is directed into a chamber created by lifting a piston into a cylindrical barrel?p549

A

hydraulic cylinders

1398
Q

hydraulic cylinders used for elevation and telescopic control of the aerial device and for operating the stabilizers are?p549

A

double acting cylinders

1399
Q

are capable of receiving oil under pressure from both sides of the piston so that force is created in either direction?p549

A

double acting cylinders

1400
Q

convert energy in the system into a rotary motion?p549

A

hydraulic motors

1401
Q

two rotary motor systems of the apparatus:p549

A

ring and pinion drive-rotates the aerialoperates a winch drive-extend and retract aerial

1402
Q

nfpa 1901 requires all manufacturers of aerial devices to provide an _____ hydraulic pump for use in the event of failure of the main?550

A

auxiliary

1403
Q

the ___ pump is typically 12-volt DC, electrically operated pump connected directly to the vehicle’s battery; 110-volt AC power or small internal combustion engine?p550

A

auxiliary

1404
Q

provide all the same motions as the main pump but at reduced speed; should be limited to bedding aerial only; operate only for intervals of 1:1 minute work/rest?p550

A

auxiliary hydraulic pumps

1405
Q

force the stabilizer arms outward and down to stabilize apparatus?p550

A

stabilizer cylinders

1406
Q

hydraulic cylinders used to lift the aerial device from its bed to a working position?p550

A

hoisting cylinder(elevation or lift)

1407
Q

heavy seamless steel outer shells bored to an extremely sooth inside surface?p550

A

hoisting cylinders

1408
Q

in a hydraulic cylinder, the pivoting end of the piston rod that is connected to the anchor ear by the heel pin?p551

A

trunnion

1409
Q

the larger the piston area the more ___ ___ is produced; normal hydraulic pressure is from ____ to ___ psi.p551

A

upward force; 850 to 3,000 psi

1410
Q

many new hoisting cylinders are equipped with ___ ___ ___ that lock and hold oil in the cylinder in the event of a leak or a blowout?p552

A

integral safety valves

1411
Q

used to lower the ladder by manually bleeding the pressure from the cylinder in case of failure?p552

A

bleed-down valve

1412
Q

dual cylinders fitted on the base section and used to extend the second section of the device, in some designs the simple operate a series of pulleys and cables that in turn extend the fly sections?p552

A

extension cylinders

1413
Q

its primary function is to provide rotation to the aerial device?p552

A

turntable

1414
Q

aerial ladders made in North America the fully extended(working) length ranges?p552

A

50-137 ft

1415
Q

some aerial apparatus made in the US and overseas may reach in excess of?p552

A

200 ft

1416
Q

the main uses of aerial ladders are?p552

A

rescueventilationelevated master stream applicationaccess to upper floorsexposure protectionabove ground fire fighting

1417
Q

aerial ladder may be mounted on :p552-553

A

two- or three-axle single chassis tractor-drawn type

1418
Q

aerial ladder apparatus that consists of a tractor power unit and trailer(tiller) section that contains the aerial ladder, ground ladders, and equipment storage areas?p553

A

tractor-drawn aerial apparatus(TDA)

1419
Q

equipped with steerable rear wheels on the trailer; more maneuverable than single-straight vehicles; capable of sharp u-turns in dead-end street or courts?p553

A

tractor-drawn aerial apparatus(TDA)

1420
Q

as an alternative may have some of the benefits of the tiller trucks in terms of maneuverability, and not widely manufactured ?p553

A

all-wheel steer apparatus

1421
Q

*apparatus with ___ ____ capabilities handle differently than apparatus with traditional front-wheel steering.p553

A

all-wheel steer

1422
Q

driver/operator of the trailer section of a tractor-tiller aerial ladder apparatus?p553

A

tiller operator(tillerman)

1423
Q

ifsta devices the nfpa classification of elevating platform apparatus into three distinct types of aerial devices:p555

A

aerial ladder platformstelescoping aerial platformsarticulating aerial platforms

1424
Q

work platform attached to the end of an articulating or telescoping aerial device?p555

A

elevating platform

1425
Q

power-operated ladder usually employing hydraulics, with a passenger carrying device attached to the end of the ladder?p555

A

aerial ladder platform

1426
Q

an elevating platform equipped with piping systems and nozzles for elevated master stream operations; not meant to be climbed and are equipped with a small ladder that is to be used only to escape from the platform in emergency situations?p555

A

telescoping aerial platform

1427
Q

aerial device that consists of two or more booms that are attached with hinges and operate in a folding manner with a passenger carrying platform attached to the working end?p555

A

articulating aerial platform

1428
Q

a 4-inch metal plate that runs around the bottom edge of any railing on a balcony or elevated walkway to prevent someone’s foot from slipping off?p556

A

kickplate(footplate)

1429
Q

required so that the platform’s position is horizontal to the ground at all times?p556

A

elevating platform leveling system

1430
Q

required minimum floor area of the platform is?p556

A

14ftŒ_

1431
Q

each platform must have a rail completely enclosing the floor area with no area opening under the railing greater than?p556

A

24 inches

1432
Q

two gates below the top railing provide firefighter/victim access and egress; surest standards cal for ____ opening doors unlike older apparatus with ____ opening doors.p556

A

inward; outward

1433
Q

all elevating platforms are required to have two operator control stations:p556

A

street level and platform

1434
Q

the controls at ___ ___ must be able to override the ____ controls.p556

A

street level; platform

1435
Q

a ____ ____ ____ is built in to platforms to protect firefighters from radiated heat.p557

A

heat protective shield

1436
Q

the heat protective shield can loose its ability to reflect heat through?p557

A

age, dirt or damage

1437
Q

nfpa 1901 requires a protective ___ be provided on the bottom of the platform?p557

A

water fog curtain nozzle

1438
Q

water fog curtain nozzle is designed to be operated using a ____ and required by nfpa 1901 to flow at least ____?p557

A

quick actuating lever; 75gpm

1439
Q

when the aerial device is fully extended, at any elevation within normal range of motion, and no water in the piping system all elevating platforms must have a minimum load capacity of?p557

A

750 lbs

1440
Q

load requirements of elevating platforms when the water delivery system is charged?p557

A

500 lbs

1441
Q

when the aerial device is in any position the water delivery system must be capable of discharging at least?p557

A

1,000 gpm at 100 psi

1442
Q

elevating platforms that are 110ft or shorter should be able to raised from bedded position to the maximum elevation and extension and be rotated 90 degrees in ?p557

A

150 seconds or less(no time requirement >110ft)

1443
Q

aerial ladder platforms commonly range in size from?558

A

85 to 110 ft

1444
Q

most common aerial ladder platform apparatus in service today is the ?p558

A

straight chassis, 3-axle, rear-mounted

1445
Q

aerial ladder platforms are designed with a ____ that allows firefighters and victims to climb either direction on the ladder.p558

A

large ladder

1446
Q

telescoping aerial platforms are not intended for ___, but are equipped with a ____ attached to the boom used as an emergency escape ladder for firefighters working in the platform.p558

A

climbing; small ladder

1447
Q

common sizes of telescoping aerial platforms in North America range from?p558-559

A

75 to 100 ft

1448
Q

telescoping aerial platform devices have two or more sections and are made of either?p559

A

box-beam or tubular truss-beam construction

1449
Q

a mechanically applied rivet used in the construction of some aerial devices; can only be removed by drilling?p559

A

huck bolt

1450
Q

boom sections are connected by a hinge and they fold/unfold like an elbow?p559

A

articulating aerial platforms

1451
Q

additional benefits of the articulating devices:p559

A

assembly enables the platform to go “up and over” and into areas not accessible with straight line apparatus

1452
Q

standard articulating aerial platforms range in height from?p559

A

55 to 85 ft

1453
Q

devices with two or more telescoping booms on each side of the articulating hinge?p559-560

A

combination aerial devices

1454
Q

combination(telescope/articulate) aerial devices range in height from?p560

A

90 to 174 ft

1455
Q

aerial device primarily intended for deploying an elevated master stream and not for climbing?p560

A

water tower(elevating master stream device)

1456
Q

most water towers are able to deploy fire streams range of elevation?p560

A

few degrees below horizontal to nearly 90 degrees from the ground

1457
Q

water towers range in sizes from?p560

A

50 to 130 ft

1458
Q

water tower are capable of maximum flows ranging from?p560

A

1,000 to 5,000 gpm

1459
Q

in order for devices to be truly considered an aerial ladder the ladder affixed to the water tower must meet requirements?p560

A

nfpa 1901 for aerial ladder

1460
Q

apparatus that serves as an engine and as a ladder truck?p560

A

quint

1461
Q

having 5 major features or functions the term quint is derived from?p560

A

quintuple fire apparatus or quintuple combination pumper

1462
Q

criteria for qualification as a quint apparatus:p560-561

A

F-fire pumpW-water tankA-aerial device/elevated platformG-ground laddersS-supply/attack hoses

1463
Q

on most aerial devices the 3rd, 4th, and 5th(if present) sections of the aerial device are extended and retracted by a system of ?p562

A

cables and pulleys

1464
Q

are usually corrosion resistant aircraft quality cables made with a very high strength steel, called plow steel and are resistant to abrasion?p562

A

extension and retraction cables

1465
Q

allows the various sections of the aerial to extend and retract without causing excessive wear on the parts of the device that come in contact with each other?p562

A

slide and rollers

1466
Q

most devices use a combination of the following to facilitate the movements of the device?p562

A

slide pads/blocks/rollers

1467
Q

rotational structural component of the aerial device; primary function is to provide continuous rotation on a horizontal plane?p563

A

turntable

1468
Q

turntable generally operate on?p563

A

large shear ball-type bearings

1469
Q

is designed for operators of all heights and is positioned on the turntable side of the aerial apparatus?p564

A

operator’s control pedestal

1470
Q

the top of the pedestal is usually designed with a ___ to make it easier to read the instruments mounted on it.p564

A

sloping panel

1471
Q

for apparatus equipped with a platform nfpa 1901 also requires a ____ in the platform.p564

A

control station

1472
Q

the turntable control station must have the ability to ____ the platform control station?

A

override

1473
Q

most control pedestals have three separate lever to control:p564

A

elevationrotationextension

1474
Q

because an aerial operator should first ___, ___, ___ the aerial device, the control levers should be located in order from ___ to ___ on the pedestal.p564

A

elevate, rotate, extend; right to left

1475
Q

some aerial devices, particularly water towers, telescoping and articulating platforms, feature a ____ type of control capable of making all aerial device movements?p564

A

single “joystick”

1476
Q

a safety device that prevents a component from functioning when another component is functioning?p566

A

interlock

1477
Q

certain interlocks are required by ______ which my be a combination of:p564

A

nfpa 1901; mechanical limit switches or incorporated into computer algorithms

1478
Q

the aerial device function must not activate unless the stabilizers are fully deployed?p566

A

aerial/stabilizer interlock

1479
Q

the device will not move into regions where it would make contact with the body or cab?p566

A

body collision interlock

1480
Q

the aerial device will not rotate over the side of the apparatus where the stabilizer are not fully extended?p566

A

rotational (short-jack) interlock

1481
Q

the device will slow down before reaching maximum elevation or extension?p566

A

maximum elevation slow-down interlock

1482
Q

the device will not retract completely without the activation of the retract override function?p566

A

retraction interlock

1483
Q

the device will not drop into the cradle if the master stream nozzle is not properly positioned?p566

A

nozzle stow interlock

1484
Q

the aerial device will not operate until the parking brakes have been set and the transmission has been placed in neutral or the transmission is in the drive position with the driveline to the rear axle disengaged?p566

A

aerial function interlocks

1485
Q

the cab will not raise in the engine is running ?p566

A

cab interlock

1486
Q

the engine starter will not work unless the tiller operator is seated and belted or a tiller cab start button is engaged?p566

A

tiller operator interlock

1487
Q

many aerial ladders are equipped with _____ that eliminate the need for laying hose up the ladder to a master stream nozzle.p567

A

pre-piped waterways

1488
Q

non-telescoping section of pipe usually 3”or 3 1/2” in diameter, attached to the underside of the bed section of the aerial with master stream nozzle at the end?p567

A

bed ladder pipe

1489
Q

often equipped with solid stream nozzles because of their inability to telescope prevents them from being positioned for effective fog stream application?p567

A

bed ladders pipes

1490
Q

most ladder pipes are equipped with manually operated nozzles, which may be operated from:p567

A

the tip of the retracted aerial device or preferably the ground or turntable with ropes attached to the nozzle

1491
Q

most new aerial ladders are equipped with a ____ waterway that extends toward the top of the ladder?p567

A

telescoping

1492
Q

ladders that are ___ or shorter and equipped with a telescoping water system have piping that extends directly to the tip of the fly section?p567-568

A

110 ft

1493
Q

consist of 3 or 4 sections that decrease in diameter(largest-base to smallest-fly); made of aluminum or other metal; generally minimum internal diameter of 4”?p568

A

telescoping piping system

1494
Q

the piping that goes through the turntable is equipped with a continuous ___ ___ that allows 360 degree rotation while flowing water.p568

A

swivel joint

1495
Q

switches near the tip or at the control pedestal can be used to ___ control nozzles in telescoping waterway systems.p568

A

remotely

1496
Q

most telescoping water systems are capable of flows up to?p568

A

1,000 gpm

1497
Q

mechanical means to secure the master stream monitor to the ladders?p568

A

pin

1498
Q

some telescoping pre-piped waterway systems allow the operator to ____ or ___ the master stream monitor to two locations along the device.p569

A

secure or pin

1499
Q

anchoring mechanisms in pin-able waterways may include:p569

A

pins, levers, or clamps

1500
Q

the ladder must be fully retracted and the waterway uncharged before the operator adjusts the ?p569

A

pin locations

1501
Q

drivers should always be sure that the master stream monitor is?p569

A

secured in its anchor

1502
Q

*always ____ pre-piped monitors before charging with water or they can launch pipe sections through the air, and always ensure there in no ____ in the waterway before changing the pin location.p569

A

anchor; pressure

1503
Q

aerial ladders not equipped with pre-piped waterway systems have?p569

A

detachable ladder pipe appliances

1504
Q

main components of the detachable ladder pipe:p569

A

ladder pipefire hosehose strapssiamese/LDH with 3-way wye

1505
Q

designed to be clamped to the top two rungs of the fly section, and for additional security also lashed to the ladder using rope/hose straps?p569

A

ladder pipe

1506
Q

detachable ladder pipes are typically limited to flows of less than?p569

A

750 gpm

1507
Q

hose appliance with one female and two or more male outlets; outlets usually smaller then inlet and gated?p569

A

wye

1508
Q

a twisting action or an applied force resulting in a rotational twist?p570

A

torsional stress

1509
Q

hose appliance that has two or more female inlets and a single male outlet, equipped with hinged gates(clapper valves) that prevent water from being discharged through an open inlet?p570

A

siamese

1510
Q

counterforce directed against a person/device holding a nozzle by the velocity of water being discharged?p570

A

nozzle reaction

1511
Q

ladder pipe hose should run up the ___ to avoid torsional stress and secured at a minimum _____ locations on the ladder.p570

A

center; 2-3

1512
Q

most ladders with detachable ladder pipe appliances restrict the sideways movement of the nozzle to about _____ either side of the center.p571

A

15 degrees

1513
Q

because elevating platforms typically have greater load capacities than aerial ladders, the piping systems may be larger and flow up to?p571

A

2,000gpm

1514
Q

is safer and has more working room than aerial ladders; some are equipped with two nozzles that can be operated individually or simultaneously and at least one 2 1/2” discharge?p571

A

elevating platforms

1515
Q

equipped with system similar pre-piped water system found on aerial ladders; with controls for both the motion of the water tower and nozzle on the control panel?p572

A

water tower system

1516
Q

most commonly the water discharged from a water tower is pumped from? p572

A

fire pump on the apparatus

1517
Q

are sometimes equipped with video camera and thermal imagers at the tip and a video monitor at the control panel?p572

A

water towers

1518
Q

water towers may have an optional ___ nozzle at the tip of the aerial device, this ____ _____ nozzle penetrates through sheet metal buildings, aircraft skins, and metal roofs.p572

A

piercing; hardened steel

1519
Q

piercing nozzles on water towers have a ____ ____ nozzle at the tip capable of discharging flows up to ____?p572

A

broken stream; 300gpm

1520
Q

permit fire fighters at the tip of the aerial device to communicate with the driver at his position?p572

A

voice communication systems

1521
Q

system consist of a “hands-free” transmitter/receiver at the tip of the ladder or in the elevating platform and a transmitter/receiver at the operator position/pump panel(does not have to be “hands-free”)?p572

A

voice communication system

1522
Q

the voice communication system receivers are?p572

A

hard-wired or radio transceivers

1523
Q

now requires a two-way communication system on all aerial device apparatus?p573

A

nfpa 1901

1524
Q

allow one or more firefighters operating at the tip of the aerial device to breathe clean air without the need to don a SCBA?p573

A

fixed breathing air system

1525
Q

nfpa 1901 does not require aerial devices to have breathing air systems, but installed it establishes requirements for:p573

A

number of firefighters to be supported by systemcapacity of compressed air cylinders pressure requirements for the piping systemlow air warning alarmsconformity to government regulations

1526
Q

establishes requirements for the quality of the air in breathing air systems?p573

A

nfpa 1989 standard on breathing air quality for emergency services respiratory protection

1527
Q

establishes the requirement to annually test the breathing air system and the quality of the stored air?p573

A

nfpa 1911

1528
Q

today’s aerial apparatus are often equipped with ___ ___ equipment used to power floodlights, and other electrical tools/equipment on emergency scene.p574

A

electrical generation

1529
Q

regardless of type of electrical generation equipment used, its design and installation must meet pertinent electrical ___ and include proper ____?p574

A

codes; grounding

1530
Q

____are the most common power source used for emergency services and can be _____ or _____?p574

A

generators; portable or fixed

1531
Q

used on aerials when it is not necessary for the apparatus to be able to generate large amounts of power?p574

A

inverters

1532
Q

a step-up transformer that converts the vehicle’s 12-or 24-volt DC current into 110- or 220-AC current; most commonly used to power vehicle mounted floodlights?p574

A

inverter

1533
Q

advantages of inverters are:p574

A

efficiency and low or nonexistent noise during operation

1534
Q

disadvantages of inverters are:p574

A

small capacities and limited mobility from apparatus

1535
Q

typically have 110- and/or 220-volt capacities; gasoline or diesel powered; extremely useful when power is needed in areas not accessible to the vehicle-mounted system?p574

A

portable generators

1536
Q

powered by variety of fuels or power take-off(PTO) and usually have larger capacity than portable units; provide power to portable equipment, and floodlight system ?p574

A

vehicle-mounted generators

1537
Q

usually have 110- and 220-volt capabilities, fixed floodlights are wired directly to the unit through a switch or circuit breaker and provides outlets?p575

A

vehicle mounted generators

1538
Q

device designed to protect against electrical shock by opening a circuit to shut off the flow of electricity when grounding occurs?p575

A

ground fault circuit interruptor(GFCI or ground fault indicator GFI receptacle)

1539
Q

if apparatus is equipped with a GFCI the driver must know?p575

A

how the system operates and how to test/reset the system

1540
Q

used where fixed lights are not able to reach or when additional lighting is necessary?p575

A

portable lights

1541
Q

mounted on the vehicle or aerial device and their main function is to provide overall lighting of the emergency scene?p575

A

fixed lights

1542
Q

usually mounted so they can be raised, lowered, or turned, with more elaborate setups including electrically, pneumatically, or hydraulically operated booms with a bank of lights?p576

A

fixed lights

1543
Q

_____ the power-generating equipment will result in poor lighting and may damage the power-generating unit, lights, or restrict the operation of electrical tools.p576

A

overtaxing

1544
Q

needed to conduct electric power to portable equipment; must be adequately insulated, contain a ground wire, waterproof, and have no exposed wires?p576

A

electrical power cords

1545
Q

driver should examine electric power cords ____ for damage to the insulation or connections; recommended lengths should not exceed ____ per reel or cord.p576

A

daily; 200ft

1546
Q

provide one form of secure and safe connections?p576

A

twist-lock recepticles

1547
Q

used when multiple connections are needed; supplied by one inlet and fitted with several outlets; 110- and 220-volt?p576

A

junction boxes

1548
Q

junction boxes are commonly equipped with a ____ ____ on top to make them easier to locate and to provide visual assurance that they are energized.p576

A

small light

1549
Q

should be carried so that equipment can be interchanged and firefighters can plug their equipment into standard outlets?p576-577

A

adapters

1550
Q

it is common for FD aerial apparatus to carry a variety of ___ ___, most commonly used are ___ ___?p577

A

extrication equipment; hydraulic powered

1551
Q

rescue workers use four common types of hydraulic power tools:p577

A

spreaders, shears, combination spreaders/shears, and extension rams

1552
Q

___ ___ receive their power from compressed air, electric motors, two- or four-cycle gas engines, or apparatus-mounted PTO ?p577

A

hydraulic tool pumps

1553
Q

hydraulic tool pumps may be ___ and carried with the tool, or they may be ___ on the vehicle and supply tools through long coiled hoses/hose reel.p577

A

portable; mounted

1554
Q

hose distances of ____ or greater from the hydraulic pump may have a negative effect on tool operation.p577

A

100ft

1555
Q

in addition to apparatus-mounted systems aerials may also carry a large array of?p577

A

portable tools and equipment

1556
Q

crews assigned to aerial apparatus historically have been assigned a variety of fireground functions including:p577

A

forcible entryventilationsearch and rescuesalvage and overhaul

1557
Q

contains a list of the minimum equipment with which each aerial apparatus should be equipped?p577

A

nfpa 1901

1558
Q

used when the main aerial devices cannot reach a portion of the building, additional ladders are needed, or when only they are needed?p578

A

ground ladders

1559
Q

nfpa 1901 requires that the ladder complement must include at least:p578

A

attic, roof, and extension ladders

1560
Q

many fire agencies choose to carry an extension ladder that is 40ft or longer to reach 4th or 5th story windows a called?p578

A

“pole” ladders

1561
Q

due to the extreme weight and awkwardness “pole” ladders are equipped with “_____” or “_____” for stability and leverage during raising.p578

A

“staypoles” or “tormentors”

1562
Q

driver should be familiar with ___ ___ carried on the apparatus and procedures for ___, ___, and ___ ground ladders.p578

A

ladder load; inspecting, testing, and maintaining

1563
Q

driver should be familiar with the location, operation, inspection, and servicing of each type of ___ ___ equipment carried on the apparatus.p578

A

forcible entry

1564
Q

two common types of equipment used to supplement the natural flow of heat, smoke, and gases from a fire building?p579

A

exhaust fans(smoke ejectors) and positive pressure blowers

1565
Q

placed in window, door, or roof openings for drawing out heat, smoke, and gases by creating a lower pressure inside the fire building?p579

A

exhaust fan/smoke ejector

1566
Q

used to increase the air pressure in the structure and thus force out the by-products of combustion?p579

A

positive-pressure ventilation fan

1567
Q

___ ___ starts from the minute companies leave the station and continues throughout the entire incident.p579

A

loss control

1568
Q

loss control activities include:p579

A

safe driving skills water applications techniquessalvage and overhaul

1569
Q

nfpa 1901 requires aerials to be equipped with ____ and ____ to assist with salvage and overhaul efforts.p579

A

multiple salvage covers and two scoop shovels

1570
Q

drivers should inventory their equipment ___ per SOP, and power equipment should be started ____and inspected for readiness.p580

A

periodically; daily

1571
Q

drivers should follow a ___ tiller inspection procedure based on department SOPs, nfpa standards, and manufacturer.p581

A

systematic

1572
Q

there are a myriad of forces on the ___ ___ that cause wear and tear greater than other chassis components and more than a regular tractor trailer system where the trailer follows the tractor.p581

A

tiller components

1573
Q

tiller axle is a steering axle therefore steering wheel free play must not exceed ____ on a 20” wheel or ____ degrees?p581

A

2”; 10ŒÁ

1574
Q

most tiller steering systems can be locked in the straight ahead position by the use of ____; used so a single driver in front cab to transport for maintenance, training, other non-emergency?p581

A

lever or pin

1575
Q

all tractor drawn aerials have permanently mounted ______ attaching the “trailer” to the “tractor” power unit, since it is the articulation point insufficient ____ will result in the coupling system binding creating difficulty in steering control.p581

A

coupling systems; lubrication

1576
Q

unlike tractor suspension systems most tiller systems have ____ suspension that require additional attention during inspections.p581

A

air bag

1577
Q

should be done with proper supervision and is not considered to be routine maintenance?p582

A

regular structural testing

1578
Q

most often the agency will have its own ____ ___ that will serve as a checklist for the aerial device inspection; furthermore some have forms for ____, ___, and ___ inspections?p583

A

official form; daily, weekly, and monthly

1579
Q

check and fill the hydraulic fluid when system is ______; using the _____ or _____ provided on apparatus; only when the stabilizers and aerial device are in ____?p583

A

cold; dipstick or sight gauge; stowed positions

1580
Q

*adding hydraulic fluid while the stabilizers or aerial device are deployed can lead to ____ the system which could result in hydraulic leaks and damage to the system when cylinders are retracted.

A

overfilling

1581
Q

the operational inspection serves two purposes:p583

A

to ensure aerial device is in proper working condition and serves as a review of the aerial device operation for the driver

1582
Q

by operating the aerial device at least ____, the driver will be more prepared to operate efficiently under emergency conditions.p583

A

once every work period

1583
Q

the location to perform operational test must be:p584

A

suitable for operating aerial deviceclear of overhead obstructionsapproved by the property ownerstable/reinforced parking area that will support the weight of apparatus

1584
Q

before performing operational tests?p584

A

transmission in neutral, set parking brake, and chock the tires

1585
Q

____ drivers should not rotate and extend the device at the same time.p585

A

inexperienced

1586
Q

operating a hydraulic pump without allowing flow through the system; this generates tremendous heat and pressure and can damage components?p585

A

deadheading

1587
Q

apparatus tests are grouped into two basic categories:p585

A

preservice and service

1588
Q

all tests should conform to the most current editions at time apparatus was manufactured of _____?

A

nfpa 1911 and nfpa 1901

1589
Q

service tests are conducted on at least a ___ basis while apparatus is in service.p586

A

yearly

1590
Q

nondestructive testing is conducted:p586

A

every 5 yearsafter accidents aerial has been subject to unusual stresses and loadsmajor repairs and overhauls

1591
Q

service testing includes inspecting and testing components such as:p586

A

stabilizerstorque boxaerial devicewater systems

1592
Q

the best guarantee that the apparatus will perform within its design limitations is :p586

A

an organized system of apparatus testing and regular maintenance

1593
Q

the ___ ___ requires apparatus testing in order for the community to receive full insurance rating credit, and this ultimately affects rates.p586

A

insurance industry

1594
Q

for efficient and safe fire control apparatus drivers must work together to ensure _____ ____ are positioned for maximum use and minimum stress to the aerial device.p610

A

aerial apparatus

1595
Q

SOPs provide basic guidance but positioning the apparatus at an actual incident is influenced by conditions and will be at the discretion of:p610

A

IC, truck company officer, driver/operator

1596
Q

aerial apparatus placement on the foreground is critically important because aerial devices and ladders have?p610

A

fixed maximum lengths

1597
Q

it is crucial to obtain the optimum scene position for the aerial preferably on the first attempts when placing consider:p610

A

aerial objectiveturntable placementscene conditionsproper stabilization