driver simple_csv Flashcards
qualities and skills needed by driver/operators? intro 1
safe driving techniques, types of pumping apparatus, positioning the apparatus to maximize efficiency and water supply, fire pump theory and operations, hydraulic calculations, water shuttle procedures, foam system operations, hydraulic calculations, and apparatus testing and maintenance.
fire apparatus are classified according to?p13
the primary function for which they are designed
main purpose of the fire department pumper is to?p13
provide adequate water pressure for effective water streams
nfpa 1901 standard for automotive and fire apparatus requirements for pumper design?p14
minimum pump capacity of 750 gpm and a water tank with capacity of at least 300 gpm
most municipal FD operating pumpers?p14
2000 gpm or less (250 gpm increments)
pumpers must have?p14
fire pump, intake and discharge pump connections, pump control and gauges, variety of hoses types and sizes.
nfpa 1901 specifies the portable equipment that must be carried on pumpers?p14
ground ladders, SCBA, forcible entry tools, salvage tools and equip., portable water tank, emergency medical equip.
rescue pumper?p14
combines the functions of both a rescue vehicle and a fire department pumper
what are the pumper foam capabilities?p15
discharge foam on class A(ordinary combustible) and class B(flammable and combustible liquid/gas) fires
compressed air foam systems (CAFS)p15
high-energy foam-generation system consisting of a water pump, foam proportioning system, and an air compressor (or other air source) that injects air into foam solution before it enters hose line
size foam tanks on municipal fire pumpers?p16
20-100 gallons
types of elevating devices that apply fire streams on pumpers are?p16
articulating and telescoping 50-75 ft
initial attack fire apparatusp16
primary purpose is to initiate a fire attack on structural, wildland, and support fd actions
characteristics of initial attack fire apparatus? p16
scaled-down versions of full-size pumpers(smaller chassis, pump, and agent tank sizes) aka mini-pumper or midi-pumper.
mini-pumperp16
small fire apparatus mounted on a pick-up truck size chassis, pump rated 500 fpm or less(speed and mobility)
midi-pumperp16
sized between mini-pumper and full sized, gross vehicle weight 12000 lbs, pump rated 1000gpm or less
system NIMS-ICS uses categorizes apparatus based on capabilities?p17
apparatus typing
used to transport water to areas where a water system is nonexistent or inadequate?p17
water supply apparatus(water tenders or tankers)
capacity of mobile water supply apparatus operating in a particular jurisdiction is based on?p17
terrain, bridge and weight limits, monetary constraints, interoperability
mobile water supply apparatus tank capacity per nfpa 1901?p17
1000 gpm or greater(greater capacity accommodated by tandem rear axles, tri-axles, or tractor trailer)
design and construction process of water supply apparatus should meet safety and efficiency requirements?p18
1 adequate/reasonable water capacity2 efficient fill/dump time3 suspension/steering matched to terrain4 properly sized chassis5 adequately sized engine for vehicle/terrain6 sufficient breaking ability (vehicle/terrain)7 proper tank mounting and baffling8 adequate tank venting system9 ability to dump water sides and rear
mobile water supply has two basic function on the fire ground?p18
mobile shuttle operation or stationary reservoir(nurse tender)
wildland fire apparatus design?p19
brush trucks, brush breakers, or booster apparatus-lightweight, highly maneuverable, all-terrain, one-ton or larger chassis, all-wheel drive, pump capacities and water tank of 500 fpm or less(up to 1000 gpm also available), pump and roll system
pump and roll system?p19
allows the apparatus to be driven while discharging water(separate motor or power take off PTO to power fire pump)
*riding on the outside of the apparatus may result in?p20
death or severe injury.
what is extremely effective in attacking wildland fires and protecting exposures?p20
class a foam agents
used to provide immediate suppression of flammable liquid fires and vapors from fuel spills?p20
aircraft rescue and fire fighting (ARFF) apparatus
ARFF units will respond off airport to assist municipal FD with?p20
large scale flammable liquid incidents
requirements for ARFF apparatus are found in?p20
nfpa 14 standard for aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles
nfpa 14 classifies apparatus by?p20
type of suppression agent(s) carriedagent capacitynumber of drive wheels
local jurisdictions devide apparatus into three categories:p20
major fire fighting vehicles rapid intervention vehiclescombined agent vehicles
fireboatp21
vessel or watercraft designed for fighting fires in marine environment(capacities as high as 50000 gpm)
functions of fireboat?p21
protect hazards on and adjacent to waterwaysice/water rescueemergency medical servicesfire fighting/relay pumping to land based apparatus
aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps may? p21
function with the capabilities of an engine or ladder company
always consider the placement of an aerial because it is limited by its?p21
reach
quintp22
serves as an engine and ladder, equipped with fire pump, water tank, ground ladders, hose bed, and aerial device
nfpa 1901 standard for automotive fire apparatus, the vehicle(quint) must be equipped with?p22
pump rated at 1000 fpm or greater and water tank of 300 gallons or greater
rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumpsp22
small fire pump/tank=small fires/protective hose line extrication;do not have fire fighting capability of rescue pumpers
trailer mounted fire pumpsp22
long term pumping operations-petroleum storage facilities
responsible for operation of specialized mounted equipment as well as the fire pump?p22
driver/operator
step-up transformer the converts a vehicles 12- or 24-volt DC current into 110- or 220- volt AC current?p23
inverter
characteristics of inverter?p23
fuel efficient nearly noiseless operationmoved only short distancesmall power supply capabilitiestypically used to power vehicle-mounted flood lights
most common power source used for emergency services?p23
generators
powered by small gas/diesel engines 110-220 volt capacity, used when power is needed remote from apparatus, various capacities 5000 watts is typically highestp23
portable generators
larger capacity than portable units; power floodlights/any portable electrically operated equipment; powered by gas/diesel, pro, hydraulic system; 110-220 volt; capacities up to 12000 wattsp23
vehicle mounted generator
capacity up 50000 watts or greater, noisyp23
fixed generator systems
types of lighting equipment carried on pumping apparatus?p23
portable or fixed 300-1000 watts
advantageous when illumination is needed some distance away or additional lights requiredp23-24
portable lights
provide general lighting around the apparatus and nearby scene; raised, lowered or turned; banks of lights mounted on booms powered by electrical, pneumatic, or hydraulic; 500-1500 watts per lightp24
fixed lights(mounted)
commonly used during incident operations; stored on coils, portable reels, or fixed automatic rewind reels; 12-guage 3-wire 600 volt insulation and twist lock receptaclesp24
extension cords
most common rescues tool found on apparatus?p24
extrication(spreaders/shears)combination spread /shearsextension rams
rescue tools are powered by ?p24
hydraulic pressure, compressed air, or apparatus power take-off system
requires that driver/operator be skilled in the performance of certain maintenance tasks?p29
nfpa 1002
in many jurisdictions who is required to perform routine maintenance checks and functions?p29
driver/operators
keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness?p29
maintenance
to restore that which has become inoperable?p29
repair
provides a basis to train and certify fire apparatus and fire department maintenance officers?p29
nfpa 1071 standard for emergency vehicle technician professional qualifications
nfpa 1002 requires driver/operators to be able to perform routine tests, inspections, and servicing which systems?p30
batteries oilbreaking systems tires coolant system steering systemselectrical system beltsfuel system tools, apps, equiphydraulic fluids
repair work that involves complex tools, parts, or in-depth mechanical knowledge is left to a?p30
certified mechanic
inspection and maintenance check should be done ?p30
beginning of each tour of duty
more detailed inspection list may be completed on?p30
weekly or monthly basis
road salt during inclement weather?p32
corrosive effect on steel body components
most vulnerable areas to diesel fuel residue which leaves gummy residue?p32
engine compartments where linkages, fuel injectors, or other control may become inoperable
when washing the vehicle body and components care should be taken no to strip away?p33
necessary lubricants
new and unseasoned paint and protective coating should be washed frequently using cold water to harden the paint and keep it from spotting for how long?p33
first 6 months
clean automotive glass with?p34
warm soapy water or commercial glass cleaner
new apparatus have sensitive electronic equipment that can be damaged or destroyed by?p35
water or cleaning fluids
incoming driver/operator should consult the person being relieved for any pertinent information regarding?p35
incident activityequipment usageproblems
issued to individuals who demonstrate competence inspecting and driving vehicles with a gross vehicle rating of 26001 lbs or more?p36
commercial driver’s licence CDL
inspection method in which the driver/inspector starts at one point going clock/counter inspecting the entire apparatus?p36
circle or walk-around method
inspecting apparatus/equipment to ensure all equipment is in place, and ready for service?p36
operational readiness inspection
visual inspection of an apparatus to ensure the major components of the chassis are present and in proper working condition?p36
pre trip road worthiness inspection
inspection where a certain system or component of an apparatus is operated to ensure that it is functioning properly?p36
functional check
helps ensure that all required items are checked each time an inspection is completed?p36
systematic approach
whenever the apparatus is parked, be sure to?p37
chock the wheels
*do not run engines in ____ areas for any period of time , because diesel exhaust may contain up to ____ ?p37
unvented; 100 harmful chemicals and compunds
maximum amount of weight that an axle system can safely carry?p38
gross axle weight rating
*left and right orientation?p38
driver side/officer side; street side/curb side
is it acceptable to mix radial tires with bias-ply tires, or have different size and weight ratings?p38
always same type, size and weight
when examining tire condition check for?p39
proper tread depth and separationcuppingexcessive wear on sidewalls cutsdry rottingcracking tiresimpaled objects
nfpa 1911 requires all tires be replaced regardless of their condition every?p39
7 years
*inflate tires to there commended ____ tire pressure?p39
operating and not maximum
electrical monitoring system that will shed electrical load in a predetermined order if the chassis voltage begins to drop below a predetermined level? p40
load management system
operation of equipment or a conductor in excess of its rated capacity?p40
overload
device in an electrical system that turns lights on at specified intervals, so that the start-up load for all the devices does not occur at the same time?p40
load sequencer
device that “watches” an electrical system for added loads that may threaten to overload the system?p40
load monitor
when the overload condition occurs, the load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment to prevent overload?p40
load shedding
component of the power train that receives torque from the engine and converts it to rotation to the wheels?p41
manual shift transmission
amount of travel the clutch has before it begins to disengage the engine from the transmission?p41
free play
component used to push on the internal clutch fingers connected to the clutch pedal and when activated, disengages the clutch from the engine?p41
throw-out bearing
in a steering system, the amount of travel between turning the wheel and when the steering system moves?p41
steering wheel play
steering wheel play should be no more than?p41
10 degrees either direction; 20 inch steering wheel=2 inches
maximum weight at which a vehicle can be safely operated on roadway in ideal conditions?p41
gross vehicle weight rating GVWR
braking system that uses a fluid in a closed system to pressurize wheels cylinders when activated?p42
hydraulic braking system
electronic system that monitors wheel spin and when wheel is sensed to begin locking up, the brake on that wheel is temporarily released to prevent skidding?p42
antilock braking system ABS
braking system that uses compressed air to hold off a spring brake(parking brake) and applies air pressure to a service brake for vehicle stopping?p42
air-actuated braking system
per nfpa 1901 and 1911 a side-to-side variance in weight should not exceed?p42
7.00%
in cab fire/rescue equipment should be?p42
in good working order and securely stowed
apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an _____ that prevents air horns or other nonessential devices from being used when pressure drops below ____?p43
air pressure protection device; 80 psi
apparatus brakes should be tested at least ____ using methods outlined in____?p43
annually; nfpa 1911
a series of tests used to ensure the serviceability of air braking system?p43
air break test
devices used in the air brake system that connect between the activation pads and the brake pads that compensate for brake pad wear?p43
slack adjusters
truck that uses a cab that lowers over the power train?p44
tilt cab
*before ____, be sure that there is adequate vertical clearance and secure all loose equipment in the cab?p44
lifting the cab
ifsta considers the air brake testing procedures outlined in the manual to be the ____________?p44
minimum acceptable daily air brake test
most fluid checks can be done be done before or after the engine has been run but not while the vehicle is running with the exception of ?p44
transmission fluid level
device designed to remove diesel particulate matter or soot from the exhaust gas of a diesel engine?p45
diesel particulate filter DPF
applying grease and other lubricants to specific parts of the chassis to reduce wear, noise, and binding?p45
chassis lubrication
cab should be tilted on a ____ basis for a thorough inspection of the engine compartment?p45
weekly
in addition to DPF system, engines produced after January 1, 2010, may be equipped with an exhaust after treatment system called?p45
selective catalyst reductant SCR
failure to use the proper engine oil per manufacturer’s recommendation can lead to _____ and _____ damage?p46
costly engine and emission system
most modern truck batteries are ______, where older ones require the addition of ________ to replenish the cell’s fluid as it evaporates over time?p46
maintenance free; distilled water
most automotive batteries contain ?p47
lead and sulfuric acid
*batteries give off explosive hydrogen gas which can injure/kill, driver/operator should?p47
ventilate area, wear safety goggles, and wear acid resistant gloves
before attempting to jump-start a vehicle:p47-48
vehicles have same voltage verify which battery to use in operations manualcables are connect in recommended manner
specific inspection to an area of the chassis or apparatus to ensure that the unit i operating properly in accordance with the manufacturer’s initial design?p48
port-maintenace/repair inspection
fire pumps are tested at?p48
regularly scheduled intervals
anytime a pump has been operated at draft from saltwater source, lake, pond, or areas served by older water mains:p48
pump and piping should be thoroughly flushed.
who is responsible for the safe transport of firefighters, apparatus, and equipment to and from the scene of an incident?p79
driver/operator
___ has established minimum qualifications for apparatus driver/operators?p79
nfpa 1002
driver/operators should possess the following abilities and skills:p80-82
reading,computer, writing, and mathematical skillsphysical fitness, victual acuity, and adequate hearing
*while driving, the driver/operator should no operate a _____, focus on driving only!p81
mobile computer
periodic medical evaluation should be administered to establish and maintain fitness for duty in accordance with?p82
nfpa 1500
provides specific standards that contain information and specific details on uncorrected vision and diseases of the eye?p82
nfpa 1582
contains a list of frequencies that a driver must be able to hear/recommends rejecting those that don’t?p82
nfpa 1582
who establishes the basic requirements for licensing a driver in the US? Canada?p82
department of transportation DOTtransport canada TC
you are subject to all traffic regulations when driving under?p83
nonemergency conditions
regulate driver/operator in their duties?p83
federal lawstate/provincial motor vehicle codescity ordinancesnfpa standardsdepartment policies
act of proceeding to do something with a conscious awareness of danger, while ignoring any consequences?p84
reckless regard
breach of duty in which a person or organization fails to perform at the standard required by law or as expected by a reasonable person under similar circumstances?p84
negligence
willful and wanton disregard?p84
gross negligence
drive with due regard for the safety of others?p84
due regard
when responding to an emergency lights and sirens may be exempt from:p84
speed limitdirection of traveldirection of turnsparking statues and ordinaces
drivers who do not obey driving regulations can be subject to ____ if involved in an accident?p84
civil or criminal prosecution
perception of one’s surrounding environment and the ability to anticipate future events?p85
situational awareness
most common place for a collision to occur is at?p85
intersection
before allowing drivers to drive on public they should have?p85
completed training in a practice area/controlled environment
collision en route to an emergency will ?p85
end response of apparatus involved
fire apparatus collision are grouped into 7 basic causes which reflect the lack of due regard and situational awareness?p86
improper backingreckless driving excessive speedlack of skill/experienceoverloading and misusemechanical failurepersonal readiness
loss of braking function which occurs due to excessive use of the brakes?p87
brake fade
must not put yourself or members of the public in a position where there is no alternative to a ?p87
collision
lack of driving skills may result from:p88
overconfidenceinability to recognize a dangerous situationfalse sense of security-good driving recordmisunderstanding apparatus capabilitiesinsufficient training
in _____ of all collisions the driver was not aware of the problem until it was too late to correct?p88
42.00%
difference in weight empty/full of apparatus with a tank of 1000 gallons ?p88
8000lbs
apparatus with a properly baffled tank that is ____ may be more dangerous than ________ tank?p88
partially filled; empty/full
accidents occur because(apparatus)?p88
overloading, non engineered modification, and misuse
driver must be prepared to report to duty without any compromise of _____ or _____ ?p89
physical/mental ability
driver must always ensure the safety of_____ riding on the apparatus?p90
all personel
all riders on the apparatus must be ____ within the cab/body and wearing their _____ before apparatus is put in motion.p90
seated; seat belts
*driver is responsible for confirming all personnel have seat belts fastened, confirmation must be done ____?p90
verbally
nfpa 1500 provides the following direction on loading hose while driving:p91
train all member, fd must have SOPleast 1 safety observer, visual and voice comm with D/Eclose of are to trafficdrive forward only, 5 mph or lessno standing on apparatus while in motion
*fire fighters must ____ride on the outside of a moving apparatus for any reason.p92
never
____allows a detachable seat to be placed next to the tiller operator’s position in which an instructor may sit. p93
nfpa 1500
drivers must be capable of ___, ___ and ___the apparatus in a safe and efficient manner.p93
starting, idling, shutting down
when preparing to start the apparatus whether for emergency or routine trip driver must first known the ?p94
destination and route of travel
allowing a diesel engine to idle unnecessarily will waste fuel and may lead to the buildup of ____ in the injectors, valves, and piston causing damage to internal engine components and emission system.p94
carbon
lights when the exhaust system is very hot, usually due to an active regeneration in process.p94
high exhaust system temperature (HEST) indicator
lights up to indicate that the DPF is loading up with soot.p94
PDF indicator
allows driver to manually initiate an active regeneration to burn off the DPF soot loadp94
manual(parked) regeneration switch
allows driver to keep the engine from initiating an active regeneration process. parked on dry grass or combustible material.p94
regeneration inhibit switch
force that tends to create a rotational or twisting motion.p95
torque
the exhaust may never get hot enough to burn out the soot and an active regeneration is required if ?p95
frequent short run or in very cold climates
allows the cleaning of the DPF in stationary truck operations and requires operator involvement to initiate?p95
parked regeneration
parked regeneration cannot be initiated during?p95
pumping operations
apparatus equipped with selective catalyst reductant (SCR) has an additional tanked and must be filled with?p95
diesel exhaust fluid DEF
failing to keep the DEF tank full may _____ the apparatus engine, or limit the vehicle speed.p95
derate(reduce its torque output)
never shut down an engine immediately after full load operation, idle for?p95
3-5 minutes
*never rev a diesel engine immediately before shutting it down because damage to _______ may occur?p96
internal components
never shut down engine while apparatus is in ?p96
motion
mirrors help minimize blind spots and should be adjusted ?p96
beginning of shift/new driver assigned
apparatus equipped with _____ transmissions becoming the norm for many fd.p97
automatic
because of large size of aerials there are several points of potential contact under, so be cautious of:p97
steep rampscurbsspeed bumpsetc
angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus.p97
angle of approach
angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the rear of the apparatus.p97
angle of departure
angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the at the wheelbase midpoint.p97
breakover angle
weight transfer follows the law of inertia:p98
objects in motion stay in motion, objects at rest stay at rest unless acted upon by outside force
ensure axle loading is balanced within ___ percent side to side and with the ____ front to back.p98
7%; weight ratings
limit downhill speed to lower than maximum rpm to prevent ?p98
engine damage
unsafe and may be illegal to allow apparatus to coast out of gear or ____ while driving downhill.p98
freewheel
process of injecting or supplying the diesel engine with more fuel than can be burned?p99
over-throttling
when the throttle is applied when a manual transmission is too high a gear for the demand on the engine?p99
engine lugging
what results in an excessive amount of carbon particles in the exhaust, oil dilution, and additional fuel consumption?p99
over-throttling
when determining travel route avoid ?p99
low overpasses and incompatible bridges
19824 locations in the US where there less than 100 feet following the railroad track and account for an average of?p99
122 accidents annually
it may take ______ times greater distance for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow/ice than it does on dry pavement?p99
15-Mar
civilian drivers when encounter emergency vehicles with lights and sirens must:p100
pull to rightstopclear intersectionsremain motionless until emergency vehicle passes
guidelines to help avoid potential collisions:p100
aim high in steeringget the big picturekeep your eyes movingleave yourself an “out”maintain distance from front vehiclemake sure others can hear and see you
use of warning devices should be limited to response to?p100
true emergencies
electronic or mechanical sirens as well as air horns are?p101
audible warning
what is the best way to get the attention of motorists?p101
short air horn blasts and constant up and down oscillation of siren
above what speeds may you outrun the affective range of audible warning devices?p101
above 50 mph
in some instances increasing speed by 20 mph can decrease the audible distance by ?p101
250 feet or more
when multiple apparatus are responding together they should travel?p101
300-500 feet apart
*in-cab ___ ____ may make it more difficult to hear ambient noise or sirens of other emergency vehicles.p101
intercom headseats
driver should turn on headlights as part of the response because white lights are ?p101
readily visible even during daylight
the presence of traffic control devices(street light) does not relieve the driver from using?p102
defensive driving techniques
traffic signals in front of fire stations allow the apparatus to enter the roadway more _____?p102
safely
generates an optical signal that is received by the street light as apparatus approaches?p102
strobe lights (emitters)
activated by vehicles siren from several hundred feet to about half mile away, device will have 3 inch white and blue lights mounted?p103
traffic signal preemption device
data can be transmitted to a radio receiver on the traffic light using a gps device and radio transmitter?p103
gps based traffic signal preemption
many _____ as well as ____ require fire apparatus to come to a full stop and account for vehicles in all lanes before crossing the intersection.p104
jurisdictions; nfpa1500
when driver release pressure from the accelerator, the ____is activated?p105
engine break or retarder
distance vehicle travel from time the brakes are applied to until it comes to a complete stop?p105
braking distance
sum of the driver reaction distance and the vehicle braking distance?p105
total stopping distance
distance a vehicle travels while a driver transfers a foot from accelerator to break?p105
reaction distance
time needed to stop the apparatus or perform an evasive maneuver at current speed?p105
visual lead time
factor’s affecting the driver’s ability to stop the apparatus?p105
road conditionsspeed of apparatus weight of vehicletype/condition of tires/braking system
an uncontrolled slide across a surface in a wheeled vehicle?p107
skid
*using ordinary parking lots to conduct fire apparatus skid training may result in?p108
rollover accidents
*use extreme caution at minimal speeds for skid training using ?p108
tractor-drawn aerials
occurs when the gas pedal is applied too quickly?p108
acceleration skid
caused by braking too hard at a high rate of speed and locking the wheels?p108
locked wheel skid
should not apply the brakes, ease off the accelerator, and straighten out the front wheels?p108
acceleration skid
ease off the brake to unlock the drive wheels and then straighten the front wheels as the apparatus begins to respond to control?p108
locked wheel skid
losing control when descending grades most common causes involving driver error?p108
driving too fastfailing to anticipated obstaclesimproper use of auxiliary brakesimproper tire pressure/depth
____ system minimize the chance of the vehicle skidding when brakes are applied forcefully?p108
antilock braking system ABS
vehicles equipped with ABS driver should not pump the break pedal but rather ?p109
maintain steady pressure on the break pedal until stop
____ requires that all apparatus with a GVWR of _____ or greater be equipped with an auxiliary braking system.p109
nfpa 1901; 36000 lbs
four types of auxiliary brakes?p109
exhaust brakeengine compression brake transmission output retarderelectromagnetic retarder
_____ and _____ provide the highest level of braking torque and are unaffected by transmission gear shift changes.p109
transmission output retarders and electromagnetic retarders
*drivers should remember to ____ and ____ in inclement weather.p109
turn off the auxiliary brake and reduce speed
any device that uses the engine and transmission to impede the forward motion by compression of the engine?p110
engine compression brake
uses a valve to restrict the flow of the exhaust, which creates back pressure that adds to the engine ‘s inherent braking ability.p110
exhaust brakes
least capable of the 4 auxiliary brake devices?p110
exhaust brakes
electronically-actuated mechanical system added to the engine valve train; has no impact on engine temperature?p110
engine compression brake
mounted in the driveline, or supplied as an integral part of the rear axle; loss of effectiveness at high temperatures?p110
electromagnetic retarders
an electromagnetic field is created by supplying electrical power to a rise of coils in the retarder, inhibits the the rotation of rotor=braking torque rear wheels?p110
electromagnetic retarders
uses viscous property of the automatic transmission fluid to retard the driveline?p110
transmission retarders
can provide high braking capacity but are limited in high ambient environments by the capacity of vehicle cooling system?p110
transmission retarders
traction device which may be ineffective in snow deeper than 3-6 inches?p110-111
automatic chains
automatically reduces engine torque and applies the brakes to wheels that have lost traction and begin to spin; found in vehicles with ABS?p111
automatic traction control (ATC)
improves traction and handling by locking the differential during off-road and wet weather conditions?p111
driver controlled differential lock
allows operator to lock out the interaxle differential action between the rear tandem driving axles, creating one solid drive line between rear axles?p111
interaxle defferential lock
designed to help prevent roll-overs and tipping caused by cornering or sudden changes in direction?p112
stability control systems
integrated into ABS system; beside ABS sensor there is also a lateral accelerometer that sense when the side force caused by concerning approach to the roll over threshold?p112
roll stability control (RSC)
applies the brakes independently to aim the vehicle in the direction that the operator positions the steering wheel?p112
electronic stability control (ESC)
more capable than RSC: RSC merely slow down vehicle; has steering wheel sensor in addition to lateral accelerator?p112
electronic stability control (ESC)
*drivers must not rely solely on backup cameras to provide a full and accurate view of the scene, ___ are still required?p113
spotters
to safely back an apparatus drivers should use all means including scanning between ?p113
direct field of vision, video screens, and spotters
methods of communication between driver and spotter can be accomplished via?p114
radio and/or hand signals
*upon losing sight of the spotter, the driver must ____ ____ because the spotter could be killed or injured by the apparatus.p114
stop immediately
when backing spotter should be positioned in the vision of the driver:p114
preferably left mirror, 8-10 feet behind and slightly to the left of apparatus
how should hand signals be executed?p115
slow and exaggerated motion
permits tillering of the tractor-trailor apparatus in and out of traffic and around turns that would be difficult or impossible for other vehicles?p117
tiller axle
must be qualified to operate the aerial ladder and be familiar with the assigned to all truck company personnel?p117
tiller operator
tiller operator driving assignments:p117
straight line divingturning and backingproper placement of trailer at fires
provides specific directions on driver/op candidates’s evaluation, should be followed to certify personnel to the standard?p118
nfpa 1002
all fire apparatus training and testing should follow?p118
nfpa 1451 standard for fire and emergency service vehicle operations training program
always close ___ or ___ ____ ____ to reduce the potential for personnel to be injured from accidentally walking into doors left open.p119
swing-up or swing-out compartment doors
*stepping on open compartment doors can cause serious injury or death because they do not?p119
support heavy weight
always have a second person present when ?p119
working on, around, or under apparatus
when working on top of the apparatus wear?p120
PPE including helmet
before placing apparatus in motion driver must ensure that any hose carried will not ?p120
come loose during travel
*loose hose my drag behind vehicle and?p120
injure or kill
take special care to lay the hose in a manner conductive to the ____ design and keep apparatus very slow during deployment.p120
chute or trough
guidelines for hose loading and deployment:p120
couplings=pulled straight out not flippingnever cross hose over itself5 mph or less5 mph=7 ft hose per second
specifies that any equipment not needed while driving to scene must be secured?p120
nfpa 1901
securing bracket or cabinet must be capable of restraining the equipment against a force up to ____ the equipments weight?p120
10 times
*secure equipment in the ___ ___ before placing vehicle in motion, unsecured equip can cause serious injury or death in a crash.p121
crew areas(cab)
hydraulic fluids can leak from hoses at high temps and pressures causing?p121
burns or other injuries(toxic to human tissue)
*release pressure before working on system because high pressure fluid leak will pierce skin with pressures as low as?p122
100 psi
never attempt to remove any inlet or discharge cap on an apparatus until making certain there is no?p122
trapped pressure
*always open drain/bleeder valve before removing inlet or discharge cap, it can blow off with ____?p123
explosive force=injury or death
drivers should position the apparatus for the safest most advantageous use of the ?p135
features of the apparatus
act of preparing to manage an incident at a particular location/type of incident before it occurs?p136
pre-incident planning
ongoing evaluation of influential factors at the scene of an incident?p136
size-up
person in charge of the ICS and responsible for the management of all incident operations during an emergency?p136
incident commander (IC)
fire pumper’s primary function on the foreground is?p136
provide water directly for fire streams or to support other pumpers/earials
fire conditions upon arrival place apparatus:p136
safe positionbest tactical advantageexit route
pull past front of the building to view three sides?p136
no fire evident(investigation mode)
position apparatus to facilitate the most efficient deployment of ground ladders or aerial?p137
rescue situations
spot so that fire streams can be deployed to protect exposure avoiding high levels of radiant heat, falling embers, or other products of combustion.p137
exposures
area of limited access first arriving should consider laying their own supply line and laying out of the way of later arriving units.p137
water supply
considering wind direction, position apparatus ___ whenever possible.p138
upwind
regarding terrain always attempt to park ?p138
hard surfacesuphill(except wildland fires)
spot in location safe from incident hazards, protect personnel from traffic by blocking lanes where fire fighter operate plus 1 additional lane?p138
roadway response
spot either at corner of the building or 1 1/2 the height of the building away?p138
structural collapse or suspected
aids in identifying buildings with high potential for collapse?p139
pre-incident planning
old and poorly maintained, interior collapse, reinforcement rods identified by ornamental stars or bolts, bulging walls, traveling exterior cracks and falling brick indicate?p139
large scale structural collapse
apparatus, equipment, and personnel operating within ____ of the base of a high-rise fire may need protection from falling debris.p139
200 feet
pumpers yield an optimum position close to a building for ?p140
aerials
aerials are of no use beyond their?p140
maximum reach
“inside/outside” method building less than 5 stories tall?p140
pumper/aerial
“inside/outside” method building greater than 5 stories tall?p140
aerial/pumper
point which FD can connect into sprinkler/standpipe to boost water pressure and flow in the system?p141
fire department connection (FDC)
connection consist of a clappered siamese with 2+ 2 1/2 inch intakes or 1 ldh (4 in+) intake?p141
fire department connection (FDC)
to shuttle water between a source and an emergency scene using mobile water supply apparatus?p141
relay
acquiring water from a static source and transferring it into a pump that is above the source’s level?p141
drafting
atmospheric pressure on the water surface forces the water into the pump where a partial vacuum was created during?p141
drafting
supply of water at rest that does not provide a pressure head for fire suppression but may be employed as a suction source for fire pumps?p141
static water supply
water in a reservoir, pond, or cistern are examples of?p141
static water supply
friction loss due to distance and elevation are major considerations when supporting?p141
elevated streams
to supply a FDC most efficiently, a pumper should position as closely as possible to the?p141
water source
hydrants are usually in close proximity to FDC, if distance is great other options are?p141
relay or water shuttle
drivers should not _____ a non potable(non drinkable) and a potable(drinkable) water source.p141
cross-contaminate
may supply apparatus at the fireground directly or may serve as source pumpers for relay or water shuttle ops?p141
drafting pumper
permanently installed pipe that has a pumper suction connections installed at the static water sources to speed drafting operations?p142
dry hydrant
*any personnel working near the edge of bodies of water are required to wear a?p142
personal flotation device (PFD)
most common source of water?p142
fire hydrant
not designed/intended to be used under positive pressure conditions(coupling failure or hose rupture)?p142
hard intake hose
*only hard intake hose that has been designed to withstand ___ ___ should be connected to a fire hydrant.p143
positive pressure
hose used to connect a fire department pumper/or a portable pump to a nearby water source; may be soft/hard?p143
intake hose 10-50ft, 100ft
operation where a strong hydrant is used to supply two pumpers by connecting the pumpers intake-to-intake, 2nd pumper uses excess water.p144
dual pumping
short relay operation in which the pumper taking in water from the supply source pumps into the intake of the second which boosts pressure even higher?p144
tandem pumping
when opening hydrants stand _____ to prevent injury should a coupling disconnect/fail.p144
behind
2 pumpers are in close proximity and both are being used as attack pumpers?p144
dual pumping
form of relay pumping, pumpers close together rather than evenly spaced, when pressures higher than a single engine can supply?p144
tandem pumping
supplying high-rise sprinkler/standpipe; short distance from water source, but great from fire (up to 300ft)= ___ pumping?p145
tandem pumping
line, area, or zone where undeveloped wildland area meets a human development area?p146
wildland/urban interface
___ pumping is generally used to increase volume, while ___ pumping is most often undertaken to increase pressure.p146
relay; tandem
positioning apparatus for fighting wildland fires differs greatly from structural fire fighting considerations:p146
reposition often
point from which a fire line is begun; usually natural or man-made barrier that prevents fire spread and the possibility of the crew being “flanked” while constructing fire line?p147
anchor point
roads, lakes, ponds, or previously burned areas?p147
anchor points
ability of an apparatus to traverse a body of standing water?p148
fording
-the act of making a fire safe after it is controlled by extinguishing/removing burning material along/near the control line;overhaul of fire/hazmat scenep148
mop-up
driving the shoulders of railroad beds is dangerous tactic as coarse rock making up these beds may cause?p148
tire damage, sliding and rollovers
while wildland fire fighting a portion of the onboard water tank should be reserved for?p148
protection of vehicle and crew
resources responding to an incident are held in reserve at an away location while awaiting assignment?p150
staging
used on all multi company incidents, first arriving of each type proceed to scene while others stage 1-2 blocks away(closest intersection)?p150
level 1 staging
used on large scale incidents where a larger number of companies are responding; are sent to a specified remote location to await assignment?p150
level 2 staging
company officer of the first arriving company at staging takes command?p150
staging area manager
location where incident management logistics functions are coordinated and administered; only 1 per incident?p150
base
policies that allow for orderly placement of vehicles and enable the IC to maximize the potential of each apparatus?p150
staging policies
apparatus should not travel opposing the normal flow of traffic on highways or ramps unless ?p151
police have closed roadway to traffic
use sirens only to clear ____ moving traffic?p151
slow
fire apparatus are often placed to act as a shield between ?p151
oncoming traffic and firefighters working on roadway
side mounted pump panels should be positioned facing the ___ ___?p153
incident scene
consider when responding to any potential hazmat incident:p153
wind speed/directionapproach upwind/uphillidentify before approachdistance until identified
system of barriers surrounding designated areas at emergency scene, intended to limit exposures and facilitate mitigation?p153
hazard-control zones
with the changing dynamics of an incident control zone may be ?p153
expanded or contracted
hazardous area immediately surrounding the incident site; ppe/equipment, tech-level personnel?p154
hot zone (restricted, exclusion, red)
area between the hot and cold zones that usually contains the decontamination corridor; lesser ppe than hot zone?p154
warm zone(limited access, yellow)
safe area outside the warm zone where no contamination is expected; IC post/support functions?p154
cold zone(support, green)
never position apparatus on or too close to tracks; FD personnel must consider all railroad tracks to be?p154
“live”
for a fully loaded train to come to a complete stop it may require?p154
1-2 miles
*apparatus should maintain a clear zone of at least ____ from railroad tracks to prevent contact with objects on railroad cars.p155
30 feet
when positioning apparatus at emergency medical incidents consider:p155
leave ambulance enough roomspot on stable surface that supports weightuse apparatus as shield between work area/traffic
H2O is a compound(molecule) formed by 2 hydrogen atoms combined with 1 oxygen atom?p167
water
below 32ä‹Š (0 ä‹€) the freezing point of water it converts to a solid state of matter?p167
ice
above 212ä‹Š(100ä‹€) the boiling point of water it converts to a gas?p167
water vapor or steam
for fire protection purposes ordinary fresh water is considered to weigh?p167
64.2 lb/ft3 or 8.3 lb/gal
it can cool/absorb heat from fires as well as smother(exclude oxygen) from fire?p168
ways water extinguishes fire
fire in a closed space where water converts to steam; combustible liquids whose specific gravity is higher that one(heavier than water) will be?p168
smothered by water
advantages of water:p169
heat-absorbing capacitylarge amount of heat required convert water to steamgreater area exposure to water=greater heat absorbedat 212ä‹Š water=steam 1700 x original volumeinexpensive and readily available
disadvantages of water:p169
high surface tensionreactive: fuels,metals, sodium metal, triethyl aluminumopacity/reflectivity-radiant heat passesfreezes in cold weather climate(<32ä‹Š)electrical conductorrelatively heave at 8.3 lbs/gal
force per unit area exerted by a liquid or gas measured in pound per square inch(psi) or kilopascals(kPa)?p170
pressure
simple measure of weight, usually expressed in pounds or kilograms?p170
force
speed at which a fluid travels through a hose/pipe is?p172
velocity
fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it acts?p172
1st principle of pressure
fluid pressure at a point in fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions?p172
2nd principle of pressure
pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions?p172
3rd principle of pressure
in a closed 100ft pipe at 100psi, top of the pipe is 100psi but the bottom is 143.4 psi?p172-173
weight of water
the pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is often proportional to its depth? taller=heavierp173
4th principle of pressure
the pressure of a liquid in an open vessels proportional to the density of the liquid? 1’ mercury=13.55’ water p173
5th principle of pressure
the pressure of a liquid at the bottom of a vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel?p174
6th principle of pressure
the ___ pressure the surrounds the earth has depth and density, exerting pressure on everything.p174
atmospheric
atmospheric pressure is greatest at ____ altitudes and least at very____ altitudes.p174
low; high
atmospheric pressure at sea level is?p174
14.7 psi(100 kPa)
notation for an actual atmospheric pressure reading is?p174
pounds per square inch absolute (psia)
for purpose of this text psi means psig(pounds per square in gauge).p174-175
sea level 10 psi = 10 psig + 14.7psi (AP), gauge is calibrated to zero at ambient pressure.
a pressure that is somewhat less than atmospheric pressure; needed to facilitate drafting from static source?p175
vacuum
alternative term for pressure, especially pressure due to elevation?p175
head1 foot äåÊ¥Ÿ = 0.434 psiäåÊ¥Ÿ
absolute zero pressure is called?p175
perfect vacuum
gauge read 10 inches of Hg of vacuum on the compound gauge, it actually indicates less than?p175
atmospheric pressure
water supply is 100 feet above the hydrant opening then is?p175
100ft of head
to convert head/ft to head/pressure divide feet by 2.304(# of feet 1 psi will raise 1 square inch column of water).p175
100 of head/2.304 = 43.4 psi
stored potential energy available to force water through pipes, fittings, hose, and adapters?p175
static pressure
rest or without motion?p175
static
water pressure may be produced by?p175
elevated water supply, atmospheric pressure, or pump
the portion of the total available pressure not used to overcome friction loss or gravity while forcing water through pipes, fittings, hoses, and adapters?p176
residual pressure
height of a point above sea level or other reference point?p176
elevation
geographic position of a location or object in relation to sea level, may be above, sea level, or below?p176
altitude
gain or loss of pressure in a hose line due to a change in elevation(aka elevation loss)?p176
elevation pressure
pressure found in water distribution system during normal consumption demands?p176
normal operating pressure
difference between static pressure and normal operating pressure is ____ caused by water flowing through pipes, valves, and fittings.p176
friction
while water is flowing from a discharge opening, the forward velocity pressure is considered?p176
flow pressure
above ____ the lessening of atmospheric pressure means FD pumpers must work increasing harder to produce pressures required for fire streams.p176
2000 ft (sea level - 2000ft little affect)
above sea level atmospheric pressure decreases approximately _____ for every _____.p176
0.5 psi; 1000 ft
loss of pressure created by the turbulence of water moving against the interior walls of the hose or pipe ?p177
friction loss
causes of friction loss in fire hose:p177
movement of water molecules against each otherlinings of hose/delaminating hosecouplingssharp bends/kinkschange in hose size/orifice by adaptersimproper gasket size
friction loss in older hose may be much greater that of brand new hose, as much as?p177
50% greater
cause of friction loss in piping:p177
movement of water molecules against each otherinside surface of pipingpipe fittings valves
if all conditions are the same, friction loss varies directly with the length of the hose or pipe.p178
1st principle of friction loss100’=10psi and 200’=20psi
when hoses are the same size, friction loss varies approximately with the square of the increase in the velocity of the flow.p178
2nd principle of friction losshose lenght/diameter =X flowing 200 gpm= 3.2psihose lenght/diameter =X flowing 400 gpm= 12.8psihose lenght/diameter =X flowing 600 gpm= 28.8psiflow doubles/friction loss squares
for the same discharge, friction loss varies inversely as the fifth power of the diameter of the hose.p179
3rd principle of friction lossFL 3’ hose is 0.4 that of 2 1/2’ (ground rules .5)2.5x2.5x2.5x2.5x2.5=97.66/3x3x3x3x3=243 =0.4FL 4’ hose is 0.24 that of 3’ 3x3x3x3x3=243 / 4x4x4x4x4=1024 243/1024 = 0.24
using 4 inch supply hose instead of 3 inch equates to a friction loss reduction of?p179
76% (FL 4’ is 0.24 that of 3’)
for given velocity, friction loss is approximately the same, regardless of the pressure on the water.p179
4th principle of friction loss
with water being virtually incompressible, a pressure of ___ is required to reduce its volume _____ percent?p179
30,000 psi; 1%
the smaller the hose, the ___ the velocity needed to deliver the same volume?p179
greater
produces a stream that normally has no use in fire fighting?p180
open fire hose (open butt)
if velocity is increase beyond practical limits, the friction will become so great that the entire system is agitated by resistance causing a degree of turbulence known as?p181
critical velocity
forced created by the rapid deceleration of water; causes a violent increase in pressure powerful enough to rupture piping or damage fixtures?p181
water hammer
to prevent water hammer when water is flowing ?p181
slowly close nozzles, valves, and hose clamps
when a large volume of water is needed, FD can request an increase to water pressure from?p182
water utility department
the primary water supply can be obtained from?p182-183
surface water(rivers and lakes) or ground water(wells or water producing springs)
engineer estimates of total amount of water needed for domestic, industrial and fire fighting use?p183
community water needs
in cities the domestic and industrial water requirements far exceed that for?p183
fire protection
in small towns the requirements for _____ may exceed that for domestic and industrial.p183
fire protection
three methods of moving water in a system?p183
direct pumping systemgravity systemcombination system
most community use a combination system of?p183
direct pumping and gravity
a dependable ____ ____ involves reliable, duplicated equipment and proper sized, strategically located storage containers.p184
combination system
part of an overall water supply system that receives the water from the pumping station and delivers it throughout the area to be served?p184
distribution system
water supply system that utilizes lateral feeders for improved distribution?p184
grid system
fire hydrant that receives water from only one direction is known as ?p184
dead-end hydrant
fire hydrant receives water from 2 or more directions it is said to have ?p184
circulating feed or a looped line
grid system consists of:p184-185
primary feederssecondary feedersdistributors
the function of a valve in a water distribution system is to provide means for controlling the?p185
flow os water through the distribution piping
type of valve use to control underground water mains found on the supply main of installed fire protection systems?p186
post indicator valve (PIV)
a type of valve for a sprinkler system in which the position of the center screw indicates whether the valve is open or closed?p186
outside screw and yoke (OS&Y) valve
to keep them in good condition valves should be inspected and operated at least?p186
once a year
one of the most important factors in the water supply system is the water department’s ability to promptly operate the valves during?p186
an emergency or breakdown of equipment
visually shows whether the gate or valve seat is open, closed, or partially closed?p186
indicating valvesPIV- “open” or “shut”OS&Y- threads out open, threads in closed
valves in the private fire protection system are usually of the?p186
indicating valves
most common type of valves used on most public distribution systems; installed in valve boxes or manholes?p186
nonindicating valves
control valves in the public water distribution system are generally?p187
gate valves
nonrising-stem gate valves should be marked with a number indicating the number of turns necessary to ?p187
completely close the valve
water pipe that is used underground is generally made of:p187
cast iron, ductile iron, asbestos cement, steel, plastic, or concrete
adverse effects of encrustation and sedimentation can be reduced by?p188
flushing hydrants periodically
average amount of water used per day based on the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over a period of one year?p188
average daily consumption (ADC)
maximum total amount of water that was used during a 24 hour interval within a 3 year period(unusual situations not considered)?p188
maximum daily consumption (MDC)
maximum amount of water used in any 1 hour interval over the course of a day?p188
peak hourly consumption (PHC)
in general the private water supply system exists to provide water:p188
strictly for fire protection purposesfor sanitary and fire protection purposesfor fire protection and manufacturing processes
most commonly private water supply systems receive their water from?p188
municipal water supply system
if private source of water for fire protection is non-potable then measures must be taken to prevent?p188
cross contamination of municipal water supply system (back flow prevention measures)
interconnecting potable and non-potable water systems is restricted by the ?p189
environmental protection agency(EPA) and numerous state and local water quality codes
advantages to having separate piping arrangements in a private water supply system?p189
control over the water supply sourcefire protection or domestic/industrial are unaffected by interruptions to each other
if there is a question about the reliability of a private water supply system for fire fighting operations ?p189
augment the private water supply by:relaying from municipal systemdrafting from static source
fire service operates three types of nozzles to produce three basic fire streams: p193
solidfogbroken
stream that stays together as a solid mass, not to be confused with straight stream; produce by fixed orifice/smooth bore nozzle?p194
solid fire stream
nozzle pressure and size of the discharge orifice determine the flow and reach of a?p194
solid stream
solid stream handlines should generally be operated at a maximum of?p194
50 psi
master stream appliances should generally be operated at a maximum of?p194
80 psi
formula for discharge rate ?p195
GPM=29.7x d2xäš_NPGPM=discharge in gallons per minute29.7=constantd=diameter of orifice in inchesNP= nozzle pressure in psi
water stream of finely divided particles used for fire control?p196
fog stream
fog stream may be produce by :p196
deflection at the periphery, impinging jets of water or combination of both
angles of fog stream?p196
narrow fog = 15-45 degreeswide fog = 45-80 degrees
the reach of a fog stream is directly related to:p197
width, size of water particles(droplets), wind, volume of water flowing
designed to flow a specific volume of water on all stream patterns at a specific nozzle discharge pressure?p197
constant flow fog nozzle
feature a periphery-deflected stream and has adjustable pattern range; designed to operate at 100 psi, but some may at 50 psi?p197
constant flow fog nozzle
designed for adjustable gallonage settings; many are designed to flow gallonage indicated at?p197
selectable gallonage nozzles; 100 psi
with selectable gallonage nozzles if driver does not supply the proper pressure, the handline will not achieve ?p197
gallonage selected at the nozzle
type of variable flow nozzle flow nozzle with the ability to change patterns while maintaining the same nozzle pressure?p198
automatic fog nozzles
most automatic fog nozzles are designed to operate at ____, but some models may operate at _____?p198
100 psi; 75 psi
all hoselines must be supplied with 8adequate pressure, especially those with ____, or they will provide sufficient _____ for fire suppression even though the stream may appear well formed.p198
automatic nozzles; flow
within the limitation of its design an ____ ____ maintains its constant operating pressure even if the pump discharge pressure ____ above this level.p199
automatic nozzle; rises
produce a stream with significant forward velocity, but a relatively low volume of water delivery?p199
high pressure fog nozzles
nozzles best suited for wildland fire and not recommended for structural fire fighting due to low water flow of 8-15 gpm; up to 800 psi?p199
high pressure fog nozzle
solid, fog, or broken with 350 gpm maximum flow; ranging in size from 3/4 inch “booster” to nozzle suited for 3 inch diameter hoseline?p199
handline nozzles
capable of water flow in excess of 350 gpm?p199
master stream nozzle
operated during incidents where handlines would be ineffective, conditions require defensive posture, or personnel are limited?p199
master stream appliances
smooth bore master stream?p199
80 psi
fog nozzle master stream?p199
100 psi
designed for a feed position, _____ generally change the direction of water through the device in order to reduce the nozzle reaction and achieve delivery of the fire stream?p199
master stream appliances
three basic type of master stream appliances are?p200
fixedcombinationportable
commonly called “deck guns” permanently mounted on the apparatus?p200
fixed monitors
may be used in a mount on the apparatus or removed and used remotely from vehicle?p200
combination monitors
stored on the apparatus for deployment to the location where they may be used?p200
portable monitors
may be pre-plumbed and permanently attached to and aerial or designed as a detachable appliance?p200
elevated master streams
movement of ladder pipes is limited to a ____ motion accomplished by placing a firefighter at the tip or using ropes?p200
vertical up and down
pre-piped waterways generally feature a master stream that may be remotely controlled from the turntable and is generally able to move?p200
up and down and side to side
most often lowered through holes or other openings to the cellar of an occupancy, also for attic or void space fire?p200
cellar nozzles
cellar nozzles may be referred to as ___, but they have unique flow rates that differ from cellar nozzles.p201
distributor
nozzle with an angled, case hardened steel tip that can be driven through a wall, roof, or ceiling to extinguish hidden fire?p201
piercing nozzle(aka piercing applicator, puncture, penetrating)
commonly used in aircraft fire fighting, car fires, voids, attics, other areas inaccessible to standard fire streams?p201
piercing nozzles
impinging jet nozzle flow approximately 125gpm at 100 psi, 3-6 ft hollow steel 1 1/2 inch rod, with striking surface opposite to the tip.p201
piercing nozzle
designed to suppress fires in chimney flues; supplied by a booster hose?p201
chimney nozzle
slid piece of brass or steel with many small impinging holes; 1.5-3 gpm at 100 psi; very fine mist?p201-202
chimney nozzle
counterforce directed against a person/device holding a nozzle by the velocity of water being discharged?p202
nozzle reaction
nozzle reaction demonstrates Newton’s third law of motion:p202
for every action there is an equal or opposite reaction
*___ nozzle reaction may seriously injure firefighters and hamper fire suppression efforts.p202
excessive
formula for solid stream nozzle reaction p203
NR=1.57xd(2)xNPNR=nozzle reaction in pounds1.57=constantd=nozzle diameter inchesNP=nozzle pressure psi
formula used to achieve the approximate solid stream nozzle reaction:p203
NR=Q/3NR=nozzle reaction in poundQ=flow of water in gpm flowing through nozzle3=constant
formula for fog stream nozzle reactionp204
NR=0.0505xQxäš_NPNR=nozzle reaction in pounds0.0505=constant Q=total nozzle flow in gpmNP=nozzle pressure in psi
the primary function of the driver/operator on the fireground is to?p209
provide water to attack crews in sufficient volume and pressure to achieve control and extinguishment of fires
to effectively provide water for fire streams it is necessary to know the amount of _____ in the fire hose and _____ due to elevation?p201
friction loss; pressure loss/gain
friction loss is caused by a number of factors including the condition of the hose and couplings, kinks, but the primary consideration is?p210
volume of water flowing per minute
friction loss and elevation pressure loss are combined with the loss associated with appliances is?p210
total pressure loss(TPL)
friction loss may be determined by?p211
calculations or performing tests
relies on the use of mathematical equations or field application methods that may not be completely accurate?p211
calculation method
only truly accurate method, measuring the pressure at both ends of the hoseline and subtracting the difference?p211
performing tests
formula for friction lossp212
FL=CQ(2)LFL= friction loss psiC=friction loss coefficientQ=flow rate in hundreds gpm (gpm/100)L=hose length in hundreds (feet/100)
generic term applied to any nozzle, wye, siamese, deluge monitor, or other piece of hardware used in conjunction with fire hose to deliver water?p213
appliance
friction loss in cases where total flow through the appliance is less than 350 gpm is considered?p213
insignificant
friction loss for each appliance in a hose assembly when flowing less than 350 gpm p213
0 psi
friction loss for each appliance(other than master stream devices) in a hose assembly when flowing 350 gpm or greater p213
10 psi
friction loss for all master stream appliances regardless of flow p213
25 psi
created by the height difference between the nozzle and the pump and must be factored into total pressure loss(TPL)?p213
elevation pressure
formula for elevation pressure lossp214
EP=0.5HEP=elevation pressure psi0.5=constantH=height in feet
formula elevation pressure loss buildingp214
EP=(5psi)x(# of stories-1)
whether used for supply or attack line presents the simplest friction loss calculation?p215
single hoseline
using more than one hoseline of equal length and equal diameter friction loss calculations need only to be made for one line?p215
multiple hoselines equal length
2 1/2”, 3”, 4” hoseline eyed into 2 or more smaller lines for fire attack, only one of the wyed calculated if they are same NP, length, and diameter?p215
wyed hoselines equal length
to accommodate larger volumes of water and keep friction loss rates reasonable, two or more parallel hoselines may be laid?p216
siamesed hoselines equal length
siamese hoselines friction loss is approximately ____ less than that of single hoseline at the same NP.p216
25.00%
many FD have predetermined pressure that a driver is expected to supply the?p216
FDC(25 psi)
driver must calculate the friction loss for each for each hoseline supplied by separate discharges to individual nozzles?p216
multiple hoselines unequal length
fed by a large diameter hoseline that supplies several smaller attack lines?p217
manifold appliance
when hose lengths/diameter are unequal the total pressure loss in the system is based on the?p217
highest pressure loss in any of the lines
unless each manifold discharge is equipped with a pressure gauge, _____ hoselines is based on guesswork and may endanger attack crews on the line.p27
gating down
calculating pressure loss with a master stream add?p217
25 psi
pressure loss in aerial device; elevation must be considered as part of the total pressure loss?p218
25 psi
actual pressure of the water as it leaves the pump and enters the hoseline; total amount of pressure being discharged by the pump? p218
pump pressure discharge (PDP)
must be sufficient to overcome all pressure loss? p218
PDP
formula for pump discharge pressurep218
PDP=NP+TPLPDP= pump discharge pressureNP=nozzle pressureTPL=total pressure loss(friction, elevation, appliances)
actual amount of pressure being produced by the pump(difference between intake pressure and discharge pressure)?p219
net pump discharge pressure(NPDP, engine/net pressure)
formula for NPDPp219
NPDP(pps)=PDP-Intake ReadingNPDPpps= net pump discharge pressure from positive pressure sourcePDP=pump discharge pressure
safe and efficient NP for common fire streams:p219
solid handline=50 psisolid master=80 psifog=100 psipressure fo= 50 or 75 psi
friction loss coefficients-single hoselinep222
1 3/4” with 1 1/2” coupling=15.5(15)2 1/2”=23” with 2 1/2” coupling= 0.8(1)4”=0.25”=0.08(0.1)
friction loss coefficients-siamesed lines equal lengthp229
two 2 1/2”=0.5three 2 1/2”=0.22two 3”=0.2one 3” and one 2 1/2”=0.3two 2 1/2” and 3”=0.16two 3” and one 2 1/2”=0.12
mechanical device installed in a discharge line that senses the amount of water flowing, reads out gpm?p281
flowmeter
methods for determining pressure loss and PDP:p281
flowmetershydraulic calculatorspump chartscondensed Q methodgpm flowing
based on the _____ standard, for every discharge outlet equipped with a flowmeter, a _____ _____ shall also be provided?p282
nfpa 1901; pressure gauge
flowmeters must display flow in increments of?p282
10 gpm or less
two most common types of flowmeters to the fire service?p282
paddlewheel and spring probe
mounted at the top of a straight section of the discharge pipe so that only a small portion of the device extends into the waterway?p282
paddlewheel
sensor measures speed of wheel spin and translates to flow measurement; placement reduces impediment of water flow and lessens chances of damage from debris?p282
paddlewheel
employs a stainless steel spring probe to detect water movement in the discharge piping?p282
spring probe
the greater the flow the more the spring bends sending an electrical charge to display unit; one simple moving part, require very little maintenance?p282
spring probe
flowmeter in good working order should be accurate to a tolerance of ?p282
+/- 3%( 100 gpm=103/97)
each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within ____of the control valve?p282
6 inches
pressure gauge is not mounted at ___ location, the flowmeter must be mounted within ____ adjacent to the pressure gauge.p282
6 inch; 2 inches
apparatus monitoring device addition information displayed:p282-283
flow through specific dischargetotal water flow through pump “real time”total water flowed through pump for incident durationamount of foam being flowed
who determines when to use each type of flowmeter?p283
authority having jurisdiction (AHJ)
driver may use flowmeter reading to identify waterflow issues:p283
kink of partially open valve-flowmeter will register a change in reading burst- attack team sends message saying volume suddenly decreased without change in flowmeter
when engaged in a relay pumping operation,driver may feed supply line without having to know volume of water flowing from receiving pumper? p283
using a flowmeter and the pumper’s master discharge gauge during initial phase of relay setup.increase throttle=flowmeter will rise, continue to increase until flowmeter no longer increases=correct discharge pressure
intake pressure reading cannot be allowed to drop below?p283
20 psi
apparatus equipped with electronic pressure governors involved in relay pumping, with the exception of attack pumper should be in ?p283
revolution per minute(rpm) mode
number and types of nozzles on line operating from the standpipe may be factored by adding the ___ ___ for each nozzle and pumping the ____ of water that matches.p283
flow rate; volume
when a line is shut down electronic pressure governors set in psi mode?p284
should compensate
when a line is shut down electronic pressure governors set in rpm mode?p284
will not automatically compensate
charts carried on fire apparatus to aid the pump operator in determining the proper pump discharge pressure when supplying hoselines?p284
pump charts
determine the pump discharge pressure required for virtually any hose layout without relying on mental calculations?p284
hydraulic calculator
slide or dial that can be moved to cover or reveal rates of flow, size of hose, and length of hose layout in order to come to a conclusion to a problem?p284
manual hydraulic calculator
specially programmed to allow you to input the variables of each hose layout, including length, diameter, and elevation?p284
electronic hydraulic calculator
may be used for operations in which the friction loss can be determined for 3-, 4-, or 5-inch hose; formulas cannot be used with metric measurements?p284
condensed Q formula
condensed Q formula 3”p287
FL=Q(2)FL=friction loss in psi for 100’Q=flow rate in hundreds (gpm/100)
friction loss results will be 20% greater than coefficient formula(in 1000ft of 3” the difference may be up tp 50 psi) ?p287
condensed Q formula 3”
condensed Q formula 4”p287
FL=Q(2)/5FL=friction loss in psi for 100’Q=flow rate in hundreds (gpm/100)
condensed Q formula 5”p288
FL=Q(2)/15FL=friction loss in psi for 100’Q=flow rate in hundreds (gpm/100)
applicable to both solid and fog streams and is calculated using flow in gpm?p288
GPM flowing(-10 method)250 gpm= 25-10=15 psi/100’
gpm flowing method is not applicable to metric system and 2 1/2” hoselines flowing less than?p288
160 gpm
gpm flowing:FL of 1 1/2” =FL of 2 1/2” flowing x4 gpmp288-289
1 1/2” 50gpm=10 psi/100’2 1/2” 200gpm=10 psi/100’
gpm flowing: 1 1/2” 50-75 gpm and 2 1/2” 200-300 gpmp289
FL increases 2 psi for every 5 gpm-1 1/2” and 20gpm-2 1/2”50/200 gpm=10 psi55/220 gpm=12 psi60/240 gpm=14 psi
gpm flowing: 1 1/2” 80-100 gpm and 2 1/2” 320-400 gpmp289
FL increases 3 psi for every 5 gpm-1 1/2” and 20gpm-2 1/2”80/320 gpm=23 psi85/340 gpm=26psi90/360 gpm=29 psi
gpm flowing: 1 1/2” 105-125 gpm and 2 1/2” 420-500 gpmp289
FL increases 4 psi for every 5 gpm-1 1/2” and 20gpm-2 1/2”105/420 gpm=39 psi110/440 gpm=43 psi115/460 gpm=47 psi
self-priming pump that utilizes a piston on interlocking rotors to move a given amount of fluid through the pump chamber with each stroke of the piston or rotation?p295
positive displacement pump
early pumps used in the fire service where a handle was pumped operating a piston in a cylinder forcing water to pump out?p295
hand-operated piston pump
_____ ____ followed, using a hand crank to to rotate a gear forcing water through the pump and hoses.p295
rotary pumps
rotary pumps were replaced by?p295
single and double action piston pumps also referred to as positive displacement pumps
these pumps produce the same flow at a given speed regardless of the discharge pressure?p295
“constant flow machines”-positive displacement pumps
modern FD pumpers are equipped with ___ ___ as their main pump.P296
centrifugal pumps
this type of pump does not use positive action to force water from the pump; rather, it depends on the velocity of the water produced by the centrifugal force to provide the pressure?p296
centrifugal pumps
positive displacement pump has been replaced by the ___ ___ as the main pumping unit on fire apparatus.p296
centrifugal pumps
continue to play a vital role on modern apparatus because of their ability to pump air and foam; used as priming devices during drafting?p296
positive displacement pump
positive displacement pump using one or more reciprocating pistons to force water from the pump chambers?p296
piston pump
no longer used as high-capacity pumps; some still used for high pressure stream fire fighting; can provide pressures up to 1000 psi; multi cylinder PTO driven pump?p296
piston pumps
the simplest of pumps; in modern apparatus confined to small capacity, booster type pumps; low volume high pressure pumps; and priming pumps?p296
rotary pumps
driven by either a small electric motor or through a clutch that extends from the apparatus drive shaft?p296
rotary pumps(gear or vane construction)
consist of two gears that rotate in a tightly meshed pattern inside a watertight case?p296
rotary gear pump
gears form watertight/airtight pockets as they force water/air out of of the discharge chamber and as they return to intake side no water/air returns?p296
rotary gear pump
total amount of water that can be pumped by a rotary gear pump depends on?p297
the size of the pockets in the gears and speed of rotation
rotary gear pump build up pressure therefore to handle excess pressure there must be?p297
pressure relief device
susceptible to damage from normal wear and tear as well as from sand or other debris?p297
rotary gear pump
rotary gear pump casing is made from?p297
strong alloy(cast iron)
to prevent damage to casings, gears are made from?p297
bronze or other soft metal
a rotor with attached is mounted of-center inside the pump housing; pressure is imparted on the water as the space between the rotor and pump housing wall decreases?p298
rotary vane pump
constructed with moveable that automatically compensate for wear, maintaining a tighter fit with closer clearance as the pump is used?p298
rotary vane pump
most common type of pumps used to prime a centrifugal fire pump?p298
rotary vane pump
self adjusting feature makes the ___ ___ ___ much more efficient at pumping air than a rotary gear pump.p298
rotary vane pump
pumps cause air being evacuated from the intake side reduces pressure creating a vacuum?p298
rotary pumps
these pumps should be operated during routine apparatus check, because they are prone to failure if no exercised regularly?p298
rotary pumps
pump with one or more impellers that rotate and utilize centrifugal force to move water; most modern fire pumps are this type?
centrifugal pump
since it does not pump a definite amount of water with each revolution it is classified as a?p298
nonpositive displacement pump
self-priming, deliver a definite volume of water or air, and exhaust air from the pump and deliver water?p295
positive displacement pump
vaned circulating member of the centrifugal pump that transmits motion to the water?p299
impeller
intake orifice at the center of a centrifugal pump impeller?p299
impeller eye
spiral, divergent chamber of the centrifugal pump in which the velocity energy given to water by the impeller blades is converted into pressure?p299
volute
the ___ of the impeller dictates the amount of ____ that is developed.p299
speed; pressure
impeller assembly:p299
impellershaftseals
the ___ transmits energy in the form of velocity to the water?p299
impeller
the ___ ___ houses the impeller assembly, collects the water, and confine its in order to convert the velocity to pressure.p299
pump casing
the ___ capacity of the pump is dictated by the size of the ___.p299
volume; impeller
the off-center mounting of the impeller within the casing creates a water passage of gradually increasing in size as it nears the discharge outlet, this section is called?p299
volute
the increasing size of the volute is necessary because the ?p299
volume of water passing through it increases as it nears he discharge outlet
the volute’s gradual increase of size reduces the velocity of water, enabling the pressure to build up___?p300
proportionately
3 main factors influence the centrifugal fire pump’s discharge pressure:p300
amount of water being dischargedspeed at which impeller is turningpressure of water when it enter the pump from a pressurized source
amount of ___ ___ that a pump may develop directly dependent on the volume of water it is discharging.p300
output pressure
the discharge volume affects both the ____ and ____ pressures?p300
intake; discharge
the increase in pressure is roughly equal to the ___ of the change in impeller speed?p300
squarepsi=rpm(2)
water will flow through a ____ ____ even if the impeller is not turning.p300
centrifugal pump
because the incoming pressure adds directly to the pressure developed by the pump, incoming pressure changes are reflected in the ___ ___?p300
discharge pressure
a ___ ___ in unable to pump air and is not self-priming.p300
centrifugal pump
ways to prime a centrifugal pump to draft?p300
1 external priming pump2 use of a device that employs air from the apparatus braking system to power a venturi device that removes air from the suction side of the pump3 foot valve attached to the suction side of the pump
two basic types of centrifugal pumps used in the fire service?p300
single stage and multistage
due to recirculation in single stage-pumps, where excess capacity is not allowed to escape the impeller area?p300
cavitation
pump constructed of single impeller; front-mount pumps, PTO, auxiliary engine driven, and midship; up to 2250 gpm?p300
single-stage centrifugal pump
to minimize the lateral thrust of large quantities of water entering the eye of the impeller a ___ ___ impeller may be used.p301
double-suction
takes water from both sides; reaction of each side being equal and opposite cancels out the lateral thrust; provides a larger waterway?p301
double-suction impeller
water is diverted into two streams that are 180ŒÁ apart causing the water to be removed at opposite direction cancels out the?p301
radial thrust
has impeller for each stage mounted in a single housing and usually on a single shaft driven by a single drive train?p301
multistage centrifugal pump
each of the impeller takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge?p301
pumping in parallel(volume) position
each of the impellers is capable of delivering its rated pressure while flowing?p301
50%two stage pump rated 1000gpm at 150 psi each impeller supplies 500gpm
all water from the intake manifold is directed into the eye of the first impeller?p302
pumping in series(pressure) mode
first stage increases the pressure and discharges ___-___ percent of the volume capacity through the transfer valve and into the the eye of the second impeller.p302
50-70
greatly increases the maximum pressure that may be obtained with a corresponding loss of volume?p302
series(pressure) mode
same stream of water has passed through two impellers with each boosting the pressure?p302
series(pressure) mode
process of switching between pressure and volume is sometimes referred to as?p302
“changeover”
maximum net pump discharge pressure at which the transfer valve may be safely operated varies by?p302
manufacturer and age of the pump
*switching from volume to pressure can result in immediate ____ of the previous discharge pressure, which can damage the pump, hoselines, and injure fire fighters.p302
doubling
any ____ must be carefully coordinated with attack crews so they can prepare for slight interruption.p303
changeover
pump is capable of supplying 100% of its rated capacity at 150 psi at 10 ft of lift with 20 ft of suction hose while drafting?p303
parallel(volume) mode
transfer valve on older two-stage pumps is performed ____; safeguard making it ____ ____ to accomplish the transfer while pumping at ___ ____.p303
manually; physically impossible; high pressure
newer pumps us a ____ ____ valve, activated by electricity, air pressure, or water itself and can operate at pressures as high as ____.p3030
power-operated; 200 psi
hinged valve that permits the flow of water in one direction only?p304
clapper valve
automatic valve that permits liquid to flow in only one direction?p304
check valve
essential to the operation of a multi-stage pump; stick open/closed, or hampered by debris pump will not operate properly in series(pressure) mode?p304
clapper/check valves
four impellers connected in series to develop pressures up to 1000 psi for ?p304
high pressure fog
single-stage high-pressure centrifugal pump mounted outboard in conjunction with a conventional two-stage pump with a separate drive system when pressure needed higher than?p304
250 psi
replaceable rings that are attached to the impeller and/or the pump casing to allow a small running clearance between the impeller and pump casing without causing wear of the actual impeller or pump casing material?p304
wear rings
opening between pump casing and the hub of the impeller is usually limited to?p304
0.01 inch or less
sediment and dirt cause wear on the impeller as it turns at nearly ____ when pump nears it capacity.p304
4000 rpm
initial indication of wear may occur during pump tests when increased engine rpm is required to pump at the ___ ___?p304
rated capacity
unlike the positive displacement pump, no harm results from shutting off all the pump discharges for ___ periods of time in a centrifugal pump?p304
short
newer centrifugal pumps may be equipped with a ___ ___ ___ that opens to allow overheated water to circulate between the pump and the main tank/atmosphere.p306
thermal relief valve
non circulating water in the pump heats up causing metal parts of the pump to expand causing ?p306
pump damage
driver can check for excessive temperature manually by placing hand on the ___ ___ ___ pipe, if warm to touch the open ____, ____, or ____.p306
direct pump intake; discharge, tank fill, or circulator valve
point where the shaft passes through the pump casing a semi-tight seal must be maintained to prevent air leaks for ___; ____ seal most common seal type.p306
drafting; mechanical
most common type of seal packing material is composed of:p306
rope fibers impregnated with graphite or lead
some centrifugal pumps are equipped with ___ or ___ seals that are not adjustable.p306
ceramic or mechanical
packing rings are primarily used in?p306
older fire pumps
as packing rings wear with the operation of the shaft, the packing gland can be tightened in order to control?p306
leaks
spacer that causes small leak around the packing where it is in contact with the shaft to provide cooling?p306
lantern or slinger ring
*if a pump is operated dry for any length of time, damage to the shaft may result, any weakening may cause ____ during future use.p307
failure
pump seal material offers superior resistance to warping, stretching, and corrosion?p307
ceramic
factors that determine which fire pump would work best for local FD?p307
intended use and costappearancespace requirementsease of maintenance
pumps powered by gasoline or diesel engines independent of the vehicle-drive engine are?p307
examples of auxiliary pumps
most common applications for auxiliary engine driven pumps:p307
ARFF vehicleswildland fire apparatusmobile water supply apparatustrailer mounted fire pumpsportable fire pumps
type of pump that may be part of skid mount assembly with pumping capacity of 500gpm or less?p307
auxiliary engine driven
skid mount assembly?p307
small water tank, booster reel, small diameter attack lines
pump is driven by a driveshaft connected to the PTO, common to initial attack, wildland, or mobile water supply?p307
power take-off (PTO) driven pump
manufacturers offer rear-engine PTO design that is driven off the engine’s ?p307
flywheel
mechanism that allows a vehicle engine to power equipment such as a pump, winch, or portable tools and is typically attached to the transmission?p307
power take-off (PTO) system
ability of an apparatus to pump water while the vehicle is in motion?p308
pump and roll
offers versatility of pump and roll, mounting of the pump offers shorter wheelbase, additional room for compartments, as well as cross lays that are packed lower on apparatus?p308
rear engine PTO design
proper mounting of rear engine PTO is essential for dependable and smooth operation, therefore pump gear case must be mounted in location:p308
that allows for minimum of angles in driveshaftmust not extend too far below the chassis(damage during driving)
PTO pump does permit pump and roll operations, but it is not as effective as?p308
separate engine unit
during pump and roll operations while drive using the ___ ___ rather than the speedometer?p308
pressure gauge
PTO units range from conventional units at ___to other manufacturers provide full torque PTO as large as____.p308
500gpm to 1250gpm
mounted between the front bumper and grill; is typically driven through a gear box and clutch connected by a driveshaft to the front of the crankshaft?p308
front-mount pumps
gear box uses a step up gear ratio, which causes the impeller of the pump to turn faster than the engine with limitations typically up to 1250gpm in ?p308
front-mount pumps
disadvantages of the front-mount pump are :p309
exposure to weather and vulnerable todamage
most ___ pumps are engaged and operated at the pump location, putting the driver in a vulnerable position.p309
front-mount
pump mounted laterally across the frame behind the engine and transmission?
midship pump
power is supplied to the pump using a split shaft gear case(transfer case) that diverts power from rear axle to fire pump through gears, drive chain or belt?p309
midship pump
ratio is arranged so that the impeller turns faster than the engine?p310
1 1/2 to 2 1/2 times as fast
fire pumps can be configured to operate over a range of capacities determined by piping arrangement and gear ratio; pump ratings can range:p310
500-2250 gpm
the usual arrangement provides control of the transfer case from the inside of the apparatus by using a:p310
mechanical linkage or electrical, hydraulic, or air-operated controls
when driver places the transmission in the correct gear, a ____ feature engages, preventing the transmission from switching gears as rpms are raised or lowered.p310
lockout
with the engine idling and the pump engaged most speedometers will read?p310
10-15 mph
some apparatus are designed so that the speedometer does not register above 0 mph when pump is engaged including ?p310
all PTO pumps
signs indicating that the apparatus is ready to pump:p311
pump indicator lightspeedometer reading sound of the pump engaging
used for auxiliary systems, including compressed air foam systems(CAFS) and generators on some apparatus?p311
hydrostatic pumps
pump design that offers more even weight distribution on the chassis and more usable compartment space?p312
rear-mount pumps
disadvantage of the era-mount pump is:p312
driver may be more directly exposed to oncoming traffic
rear-mount pumps are powered by:p312
split-shaft transmission or by a power take-off
piping and valves attached to a pump are integral components of the fire pump system, primary parts of piping system are:p312
intake and discharge pipin, pump drains, and valves
nfpa 1901 requires all components of the piping system to be of?p312
corrosion resistant material
most fire pump pipes are constructed of:p312
cast iron, brass, stainless steel, or galvanized steel and may include rubber hoses in certain applications
the piping system and the fire pump itself must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of _____ before being placed into service.p312
500 psi
all piping and hoses must be designed to run as straight as possible with a minimum number of bends and turns in order to?p312
minimize pressure loss within the apparatus
according nfpa 1901 pumpers with a capacity of 500 fpm or less should have piping capable of flowing?p312
250gpm
according nfpa 1901 pumpers with a capacity of 500 fpm or greater should have piping capable of flowing?p312
at least 500gpm
many pumpers are equipped with tank-to-pump as large as?p312
4”
mobile water supply units may feature multiple?p312
tank-to-pump lines
modern pumps are equipped with ___ ___ that prevent damage to the tank if the tank-to-pump valve opens inadvertently while water is being supplied tho the pump under pressure(relay operation).p312
check valves
if flow requirements allow it, refill the ___ ___ and keep it maintained as an emergency water supply during pumping operations.p313
booster tank
the ___ is tapped into the pump at a high point on the suction side or the impeller eye and use a priming valve.p313
primer
as piping nears the pump it typically tapers to a ____ shape in order to eliminate the vortex that may occur in water that flows through circular piping.p314
square
unless certified by the manufacturer to deliver the rated capacity these intakes should be considered auxiliary?p314
front and rear
2 1/2” pipe used with 90ŒÁ bends and T-fittings the flow is limited to?p314
250gpm
3” pipes is used with straighter piping route, a flow as high as ____ may be possible through one of the intakes(may be used as auxiliary drafting point).p314
450gpm
nfpa 1901, a sufficient number of 2 1/2” discharge openings must provide to flow the?p314
rated capacity of the pump
as a minimum all fire apparatus with a rated pump capacity of 750gpm or greater must be equipped with?p314
at least two 2 1/2” discharges
pump rated less than 750gpm, are required to have?p314
only one 2 1/2” discharge
apparatus may be equipped with discharges smaller than 2 1/2” which are commonly used with?p314
pre-connected attack lines
a minimum of ____ piping, valves, and elbows must be used to supply discharges where 1 1/2”, 1 3/4”, or 2” handlines are attached.p314
2-inch
discharges are usually equipped with a ___ ___ valve that can be operated and locked in any position.p314
locking ball
all valves should be designed and maintained so that they are easily operated at pressures up to?p314
250psi
allows the the tank to be filled without making additional connections when pump is being supplied from external source?p315
tank fill line(tank recirculating valve)
according to nfpa 1901 apparatus with tanks less than 1000 gallons must have a tank fill line of at least?p315
1-inch
according to nfpa 1901 apparatus with tanks greater than 1000 gallons must have a tank fill line of at least?p316
2-inches
on pumps not equipped with thermal relief valve, the ___ ___ line can be used in conjunction with the ____ _ ___ valve to circulate water.p316
tank fill; tank-to-pump
serves the same function as a circulating valve; small-diameter copper tubing with a very limited flow capability?p316
booster line cooling valve
control most of the intake and discharge lines from the pump, must airtight and wear resistant?p316
valves
most common type of valve and permits the full flow of water through a line with minimum friction loss?p316
ball-type valve
most common actuators for ball-type valves?p316
push-pull handles (T-handles) or quarter-turn handles
has a simpler mechanical linkage with the handle mounted directly on the valve stem?p316
quarter-turn handle
some apparatus may feature valves that are hydraulically, pneumatically, or electrically controlled; operated by toggle switch or touch screen?p317
ball-type valve
*drivers must ensure that ___ ___ are open or fully closed by the visual indicator on the pump panel.p317
intake valves
large diameter intakes and discharges commonly use these types of valves?p317
gate or butterfly
gate valves are most commonly operated by?p317
handwheel
butterfly valves are most commonly operated by?p317
quarter-turn handles
nfpa 1901 require that all intakes or discharges that are 3” or greater be equipped with?p317
slow acting valve controls
slow acting valve controls prevents the valve movement from open to close in less than?p317
3 seconds
provide a way for the driver to drain the hose side of of the valve after the discharge valve and nozzle are both closed?p317
drain valve
allows the changeover from tank water to a supply without interruption to the attack lines operating from the tank?p318
bleeder valve on the gated intake
all air is evacuated, bleeder valve is discharging steady water, bleeder valve can be closed, the intake valve opened, and the tank-to-pump valve closed?p318
change over with no interruption to water flow
___ all drain immediately after draining. leaving drains opened may result in inability to prime the pump. p318
close
when pump is supplying multiple attack lines, any sudden change in flow on one line can cause a ____ ____ in another.p318
pressure surge
nfpa 1901 requires some type of ____ ____ ____ to be part of any fire apparatus pumping system.p318
pressure control device
pressure control device must operate within ___ to ___ after discharge pressure rises and restrict the pressure from exceeding ____ above the set level.p318-319
3 to 10 seconds; 30 psi
relief valve systems and governor systems must have an indicator to show that the system is activated; and whether it is controlling the?p319
engine speed of pump pressure
sensitivity to pressure change and its ability to relieve excessive pressure within the the pump discharge?p319
relief valve
two basic concepts for pressure relief valves:p319
relieve excess pressure on the discharge and intake side of the pump
most common relief valve uses a?p319
spring loaded pilot valve
discharge pressure relief valves are ___ to react and ___ to reset back to “all closed” positions.p320
quick; slow
intake pressure relief valves are intended to reduce the possibility of damage to the pump and discharge hoselines caused by?p320
water hammer
two basic types of intake pressure relief valves include:p320
supplied by the pump manufacturer and is an integral part of the pump intake manifoldadd-on device that is screwed onto the pump intake connection
generally recommended that the intake relief valves be set to open when the intake pressure rises more than _____ above the necessary operating pressure.p320
10 psi
pressure control device that controls engine speed, eliminating hazardous conditions that result from excessive pressures?p321
pressure governor
pressure in a centrifugal pump may also be regulated by a ___ or ___ governor that is pressure activated to adjust the engine throttle?p321
mechanical or electronic
designed to regulate engine speed to match the pump discharge requirements?p321
pressure governor
it is only necessary to reduce engine speed to reduce pressure because?p321
pressure governor-engine speed- impellers-discharge pressure
excessive pressure is generally caused by?p321
shutting down one or more operating hoselines
when ___ a tube from the discharge side of the pump transmits the resulting pressure rise to a governing device, which then cuts back the throttle.p321
excessive pressure builds up
uses a pressure sensing element(pressure transducer) that is connected to the discharge manifold?p321
electronic governor
electronic governor’s pressure sensing element(pressure transducer) changes the throttle setting as needed by adjusting the amount of ____ supplied to the engine.p321
fuel
electronic governor also features cavitation protection by returning the engine to idle when intake pressure drops below?p321
30 psi
condition in which vacuum pockets form due to localized regions of low pressure at the vanes in the impeller of the centrifugal pump, causing vibrations, loss of efficiency, and possible damage to the impeller?p321
cavitation
when discharge is closed the engine rpm is adjusted, but the same discharge pressure is maintained on any line still flowing?
electronic governor
when discharge is closed the engine rpm is adjusted, and results in lower discharge pressure for all lines as the engine rpm is lowered?p321
mechanical governor
any device, usually a positive displacement pump, used to exhaust the air from inside a centrifugal pump and the attached hard suction?p322
priming device
depends on creating a lower pressure within the pump and intake hose than exists in the atmosphere?p322
drafting operation
categories of primers:p322
positive displacement, exhaust, vacuum, and air primers
most modern pumpers use ______ primers.p322
positive displacement
small versions of _____ and ____ type positive displacement pumps are commonly used as primers.p322
rotary vane; rotary gear
primers may be driven off the transfer case of the transmission, but most popular means of powering primer pumps is?p322
electric motor
many conventional primers use an oil or other type of fluid that serves to:p322
seal gapsfill irregularitiespreserve pump
activate the primers with the engine in idle then increase the throttle to specified rpms; in general the rpm range for priming?p322
1000-1200 rpms
devices constructed of materials that do not require lubrication; most new pumpers are equipped with?p323
oil-less primers
generally found in skid-nount pumps or older fire apparatus, uses exhaust gasses diverted to a chamber where passing velocity creates a vacuum?p323
exhaust primers
primer that requires high engine rpms to create vacuum; requires great deal of maintenance to remove carbon deposits?p323
exhaust primers
simple device that makes use of the vacuum already present in the intake manifold of any gasoline-driven engine?p323
vacuum primers
engine vacuum is greatest at near idle speed, the primer works best at low engine rpm; not common because gasoline-powered engines are a rarity?
vacuum primers
physical law stating that when a fluid, such as water or air, is forced under pressure through a restricted orifice, there is an increase in the velocity of the fluid passing through the orifice and a corresponding decrease in the pressure exerted against the sides of the constriction. Because the surrounding guild is under greater atmospheric pressure, it is forced into the are of lower pressure?p324
venturi effect
uses the compressor to supply an airline to a jet pump that creates a ____ that primes the pump using no moving parts or lubricants.p324
venturi effect
___ requires that all controls and instruments necessary to operate the pump are located on the pump operator’s panel.p324
nfpa 1901
not specifically required by nfpa 1901, but it is recommended and generally found on the pump operator’s panel?p324
engine fuel gauge
two primary gauges used by the driver to determine the water entering and leaving the pump?p324
master intake and discharge gauges
connected to the intake side of the pump and measures either positive or a vacuum?p324
master intake gauge(vacuum or compound)
calibrated from 0-600 psi of positive pressure and 0-30 inches of mercury on the negative side?p324
master intake gauge(vacuum or compound)
when the vacuum reading approaches ____, the pump is nearing capacity and is not able to supply additional lines.p325
20 inches
master intake gauge also provides a reading of the ____ when the pump is operating from a hydrant or supply from another pumper?p325
residual pressure
displays the engine speed in revolutions per minute?p326
tachometer
during acceptance testing the rpm required to pump the ____ is determined and the information is recorded on the identification plate on the pump panel.p326
rated capacity
displays the temperature of the coolant in the engine that powers the fire pump?p326
pumping engine coolant temperature indicator
engine that operates too cool is not _____ and too high may result in ____ to mechanical.P326
efficient; damage
shows if an adequate supply of oil is being delivered to the critical areas of the engine that power the fire pump; does not measure the amount of oil in crankcase but if too low oil pump will be unable to maintain proper pressure?p326
pumping engine oil indicator
pump panel may be equipped with an ____ or ____ indicator that warns the driver when the pump will over heat?p326
audible; visual
device used for measuring existing voltage in electrical system; provides relative indication of battery condition?p326
voltmeter
gauge that indicates both the amount of electrical current being drawn from and provided to the vehicle’s battery; indicates status of the alternator and charging system?p326
ammeter
must be connected to the outlet side of the discharge valve so that the pressure being reported is actually the pressure supplied to the hoselines after the valve?p327
pump pressure indicators or discharge gauges
____ ____ gauges may also be supplied with master stream devices or the lines that supply them.p327
individual pressure
nfpa 1901 allows flowmeter readouts to substitute for?p327
individual pressure discharge gauges(master intake and pressure gauges must be present)
device used to increase/decrease the speed of the engine that powers the fire pump; must be contained on the pump panel?p327
pumping engine throttle
can be turned clock- or counterclockwise to achieve the required pressure?p327
throttle knob or vernier
operated by throttle switch or push button are commonly found on newer apparatus?p327
automatic throttle control
used to operate the priming device when the pump will draft from a static water supply; push button, toggle, or pull lever?p328
primer control
displays the quantity of water held in the onboard water tank; uses a series of lights to indicate the signals sent by sensors within the tank in increments of one quarter levels(1/4, 1/2, 3/4, full)?p328
water tank level indicator
during routine daily inspection, driver should verify the accuracy of the ____ ____ ____ by inspecting the fill opening to verify the tank i full.p328-329
water level gauge
the gauges and other controls related to the CAFS or other foam systems are usually located on the?p329
pump operator’s panel
primary function is to control the temperature of th coolant in the apparatus engine during pumping operations?p329
auxiliary cooling system
older apparatus usually contain one of two auxiliary coolers:p329
marine or immersion type
auxiliary coolers are designed so that the coolant in the radiator does not mix with the water from the fire pump so that engine coolant will not be?p329
contaminated
in older apparatus radiator fill valve allows water from the pump to be circulated to the radiator to cool engine; causes the original coolant to ____ and should be operated in ____ only; should be flushed and filled with fresh coolant after use.p329
dilute; emergency
*in extreme situations ( cooling element failure) during pumping operations, what can be done for brief time while interior crews withdraw and immediately after driver should? p329
direct a water stream at the engine for cooling; shut down engine
making the fire pump operational is commonly referred to as?p336
putting the pump into gear
IFSTA recommends the wheels be ___ every time the driver exits the cab.p336
chocked
when the driver is ready to operate the pump to generate sufficient pressure to create an effective fire stream?p337
fire pump made operational
while the pump is in operation the driver must:p337
monitor all gauges(engine/pump)adjust throttle until desired flow rate achieved if using flowmeter
can be opened and set to circulate water back into the tank if pumped is equipped:p338
circulator; bypass; or booster cooling valve
driver must be aware that tank fill line may be plumbed with pipe large enough to cause pump?p338
cavitation
to partially open the tank fill valve and avoid cavitation, some drivers use the distance of?p338
thumb to pump panel
in an incident requiring more water than carried aboard apparatus?p338
transition to external water supply before depleting onboard tank
two basic pressurized water supply sources that a driver will encounter:p339
fire hydrant or supply hose from another pumper
pumping at a _____ _____ _____ while being supplied by other apparatus is equally dangerous.p330
low residual pressure(below 20 psi)-can cause hose collapse or cavitation
driver should maintain a residual pressure of at least ____ on their master intake gauge.p340
20 psi
safety and fire fighting needs may indicate that the _____ hydrant to the fire may not be the most prudent choice.p340
closest
many water supply districts use a _____ ____ system to indicate the capacity of the hydrants.p340
color-coded marking
least desired hydrants are those located on “ ___ ___ ___” that are served by smaller main from one direction.p340
dead end mains
water main that is not looped and in which water can flow in only one direction?p340
dead end mains
method of laying hose from the water supply to the fire scene?p341
forward lay
stopping at the hydrant, dropping the end of one or mrs supply hoselines at the hydrant, and then proceeding to the fire location?p341
forward lay
to aid the process of making a forward lay, allows second arriving pumper at the hydrant to connect without interrupting water flow and is able to boost supply of attack pumper?p341
four-way hydrant valve
when supplying pumper directly from hydrant keep the distance as short as possible to avoid excess friction loss when using what diameter hose?p344
2 1/2” or 3”
method of laying hose from the fire scene to the water supply?p344
reverse lay
executing a reverse lay is a common method for setting up a water supply operation using ____ ____ hose as supply line?p344
medium diameter
2 1/2” or 3” hose used for both firefighting attack and relay-supply purposes?p344
medium diameter hose(MDH)
a common two-pumper operation provides for?p344
an attack pumper and a water supply pumper
first pumper reports directly to the incident scene to begin initial operations using water from onboard tank?p344
attack pumper
second arriving pumper lays a supply line from the attack pumper back to the water source?p344
water supply pumper
close the tank to pump valve if the intake is not equipped with a ?p344
shutoff valve
valve in the tank-to-pump line that prevent water from entering the tank under pressure from the pump intake?p344-345
check valve
pumpers built before ___ may not be equipped with a check valve in the tank-to-pump line.p345
1991
regardless of whether apparatus has check valve/shutoff valve on the intake, the driver should close the ____ ___ after transitioning to external water supply?p345
tank-to-pump valve
the driver should record the ___ ___ reading before he or she begins to pump.p346
static pressure
if the master intake gauge drops below 20 psi the throttle must not be ___ any further because the pump may begin to cavitate. p346
increased
methods to prevent overheating:p347
continuous minimum flowbooster line/small diameter line discharge water in direction that won’t interfere or back into tank
during prolonged operations a bypass circulator may not provided sufficient cooling, additional measures:p347
open a discharge drain valve partially open tank-fill or tank-to-pump
formula percentage method(available hydrant water)p348
percent drop= (static-residual)(100)/static10% or less= 3 lines same flow11%-15%= 2 lines same flow>25%= 0 lines
fist digit method:p349
difference in psi=static-residual 70-65=5multiply 1st digit of static:7x1-equal or less= 3 lines same flow 0-7*x2-equal or less= 2 lines same flow 8-14x3- equal or less= 1 line same flow 15-21
squaring the lines method?p350
difference in psi=static-residual 60-52=8psimultiplication factor=(number of lines)2 2(2)=4resultant pressure drop in system at the new flow rate= (multiplication factor)x(original pressure drop) 4x8=32psi60-32=28psi left 3rd line no go
each time the flow rate is double, the pressure drop in the system is?p350
quadrupled
all changes in flow should be made slowly and smoothly to avoid ____ ____ and ____ ____ on water systems.p351
water hammer and pressure surges
effect of altering the atmospheric pressure within a confined space by mechanical means?p352
pressure differential
it is not possible to ___ water into the pump.p352
pull
it is possible to evacuate some of the air inside the pump creating a ____ ____(partial vacuum), which allows atmospheric pressure acting on the surface of the water to force it into the fire pump.p352
pressure differential
atmospheric pressure at sea level is ?p352
14.7 psi
the amount of ___ ___ is proportional to the amount of water moving through hose or appliance.p352
friction loss
pumper supplied with 4 1/2” intake hose can attain its rated capacity of?p352
750gpm
pumper supplied with 5” intake hose can increase its rated capacity to?p352
820gpm
what measurement is used in drafting since the changes of pressure are so minute?p352
inches of mercury
pressure decreases approximately ___ psi or ___inch of Hg for each 1000 feet of altitude gain.p352
0.5psi or 1 inch of Hg
in a city located 5000 feet above sea level the atmospheric pressure is ?p352
12.2 psi5000ft(0.5x5=2.5)14.7-2.5=12.2
increasing the hight of the lift will decrease?p353
total pump capacity(pump rated at 750pgm with 10ft lift will do 585gpm at 16ft lift)
most pumps are able to develop vacuum capacity of approximately ___ inches of mercury.p354
22
in theory, ____ can be described as water being discharged faster than it is coming into the pump.p354
cavitation
indicators of pump cavitation:p354
pressure gauge will fluctuatehose streams pulsate/popping or sputtering soundsound like gravel passing through pumplack of reaction on pressure with increase throttle
drafting site may be selected by:p355
amount of watertype/quality of wateraccessibility of water
most important factor in choosing a draft site?p355
amount of water available
in order for the pumper to approach its rated capacity using a traditional strainer there must be at least _____ of water over the strainer.p355
24 inches
in drafting operations with less than _____ of water above the strainer it is more likely that floating debris may clog strainer.p355
24 inches
rapid intake of water into the strainer may cause a _____; placing a blank ___ ___ above the strainer may lessen the chances of it happening.p355
whirlpool; floating object(capped plastic jug or beach ball)
in order to draft from a swift moving shallow stream?p355
dam or dig out bottom
strainer where water is drawn in through a series of holes on the bottom because of this no whirlpools?p355
floating strainer
because floating strainers take in water from bottom only pumper may not receive enough water to achieve its?p355
rated discharge capacity
strainer used portable tank or swimming pool for drafting operation?
low-level strainer
low-level strainer are designed to sit at bottom of portable tank or pool draft effectively to a depth of approximately?p356
2 inches
in jurisdictions that may draft using ocean water, ___ ___ must be considered.p356
tidal movement
water temperature below _____ or above _____ may adversely impact the ability of the pump to reach capacity.p356
35ä‹Š(1.7ä‹€); 90ä‹Š(32ä‹€)
water that has not been examined, properly treated, and not approved by appropriate authorities as being safe for consumption?
non-potable water
almost any type of water may be used for fire suppression, but ____ water may be harmful to the pump.p356
non-potable
using saltwater or water supply from vicinity of mining operations/industrial plants may expose the pump to?p356
corrosion(salt and caustic chemicals)
the pump and piping should be thoroughly flushed with fresh water soon after pumping?p356
non-potable water
as the amount of lift required to reach the pump increases, the following effects occur:p357
elevation pressure increasesless friction loss can be overcomecapacity of pump decreased
all fire pumps meeting nfpa and underwriter’s laboratories inc. requirements are rated to pump their capacity at ___ of lift?p357
10 feet
if lift is less the capacity of the pump is ____; if the lift is greater the capacity _____?p357
higher; decreases
a pumper in good working order can lift water a maximum of?p357
25 ft
to create an effective fire stream recommended lift no greater than?p357
20 ft
percentage of rated capacity of the pump working with 20 ft lift is?p357
60.00%
important variables to consider during draft site selection include ?p357
stability of the ground surfaceconvenience of connecting hoselinesafety of the driver operator
usually easier to connect the hose to the intake fittings by first putting the strainer into the water and then placing ?p358
apparatus into position
routing intake hose over high point(fence or guard rail) that is higher than the pump intake may?p358
trap air in the hose
when pump made operational, ____ the pump will begin draft operation.p358
priming
two-stage pumps, the transfer valve must be in the ____ position because in _____ position may trap air.p358
parallel(volume); series(pressure)
most priming pumps are intended to work most effectively when the engine is set at a rate between?p359
1000-1200 rpms
if priming pump is driven by electric motor the exact rpm is not critical, but should be sufficient to keep ____ ____ and prevent loss of prime.p359
alternator charging
the engine rpm should be kept as low as possible without causing engine to stall?p359
vacuum type primer
pump made airtight, engine rpm set, operate primer control to evacuate air then the master intake gauge will register vacuum reading of?p359
1 inch of mercury per foot of lift required
entire priming action from start to finish typically requires?p359
10 to 15 seconds
up to 20 ft of intake hose lifting a maximum of 10 ft vertical priming may take as long as?p359
30 seconds(45 pumps larger than 1250gpm)
most common cause of air leak is?p359
open drain or valve, gasket of intake hose(tighten with mallet)
other potential problems cause air leak:p359
insufficient fluid in priming reservoirengine speed(rpm) too lowlift is too highhigh point in intake hose create air pocket
after successful prime increase/maintain throttle setting between ____ before opening discharge to avoid loss of prime.p360
50-100 psi
driver should not attempt to set desired discharge pressure until water is flowing and the gauge is?p360
stabilized
most common source of problems while operating at draft?p360
air leak intake side(air entering along with water)
if there is not enough water above drafting strainer air may be entering because of ?p361
whirpool
if onboard water tank is empty the tank-to-pump line may be source of leakage due to?p361
defective pump packing
*damaged or leaking ____ valves may lead to the inability to achieve or maintain a draft.p361
tank-to-pump
gradual increase in the vacuum noted with no change in flow rate indicates?p361
blockage
immediate solution to cavitation?p361
decrease rpm
the most common place for a blockage to occur is the ?p361
strainer
intake hose operating under vacuum the inner liner can become _____ from the hose itself and ____ causing a block.p362
detached; collapse
steps to shut down drafting operation:p362
slowly decrease engine speed to idletake pump out of gearallow pump to drain
integral part of the fire protection features of many buildings?
fixed fire suppression systems
designed to support the flow of a specified number of fire sprinklers based on the hazard being protected?p362
sprinkler system
automatic water supply for sprinkler system is designed to supply only a ____ number of the total sprinklers at any given time.p362
fraction
should be identified in pre-incident planning;p362
occupancies with automatic sprinkler systemsFDCcloses hydrant/static water
FDC connection may consist of:p363
siamese 2-2 1/2” female connections connected to a clappered inlet or one LDH sexless connection
*when interior attack crews operate from combination sprinkler/standpipe system pressure supplied should be based on safe operating pressure for the?p363
interior crews
it is advisable to confirm the presence of actual ___ before pumping to FDC.p363
fire
when pumping to sprinkler system multistage pumps should be operated in ____ position, and general guideline to discharge pressure is ____.p363
parallel(volume); 150 psi
prevents water from sprinkler system back into FDC, but allows water from FDC into sprinkler systems as long pressure is greater than that holding the check valve closed?p363
check valve
sprinkler control valves should be checked and those closed should be opened except one the control area of building where sprinkler system is undergoing?p364
construction or renovation
wet or dry system of pipes in a large single- or multi-story building with fire hose outlets?p364
standpipe system
allow for quicker access to water supply for attack hoselines with 2 1/2” or 1 1/2” connections?p364
standpipe system
contain water under pressure and may be used as soon as a hoseline is stretched and the valve is opened?p364
wet pipe system
must be charged with water from the occupancy’s water supply, stationary fire pump, FD pumper, or combination of the sources?p364
dry pipe system
FD should always support the ____ to ensure adequate flow and pressure is provided for fire fighting operations.p364
FDC
pump discharge pressure when supplying FDC depends on:p364-365
pressure loss standpipe 25psi(flow exceeding 350gpm)friction loss pumper to FDCfriction loss hose fire floornozzle pressureelevation
approximate elevation loss for each floor above the FDC?p365
5 psi
do not use PDP in excess of ____ unless standpipe system, hose, and appliances have been designed to function under high pressure.p365
185 psi
valve installed at the standpipe connection that is designed to reduce the amount of water pressure at that discharge to specific pressure?p365
pressure reducing valve(PRV)
pressure reducing valves usually reduce pressure to?p365
100psi
water will be discharged at all the points where caps are off and the valve is open when the standpipe is/p365
charged
when a dry standpipe is charged there will be a time delay as?p365
water fills the system and expels the air
in unable to use FDC an alternative way to provide some support is?p366
using a double female connector supply the 1st floor standpipe connection
immediately upon indication that water supply or pumping ability may be unattainable or interrupted you must notify?p366
officer or IC
the difference in elevation between the surface of the static water supply and the center if the pump intake?p403
lift
a ____ vacuum is impossible to create using fire service equipment?p404
total
theoretical scientific height that a column of water may be lifted but atmospheric pressure in a true vacuum; at sea level is?p404
theoretical lift; 33.9 ft
maximum height to which any amount of water may be raised through a hard suction hose to a pump; determined by the ability of the pump to create a vacuum?p404
maximum lift
variables affecting maximum lift include:p404
atmospheric pressure condition of fire pump, primer, intake hose, gaskets, and valves
formula for determining maximum liftp405
L=1.13HgL=height of lift (ft)1.13= constantHg=inches of Mercurygauge read 14 Hg lift= 15.82ft (1.13x14)
height a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable flow?p406
dependable lift
after factoring in the surrounding atmospheric pressure and friction loss in the intake hose, every fire pump that is operating properly should have a dependable lift of at least?p406
14.7 ft
if lift is increased to 15ft pump may only deliver _____ percent of its capacity and if increased to 20ft it may deliver only _____ percent of its capacity.p406
70%; 60%
must account for all factors that contribute to the amount of work required by a pump to produce a fire stream?p407
net pump discharge pressure(NPDP)
formula for pressure correction
PC= lift+total intake hose friction loss/2.3PC=pressure correctionlift=required lift in lifttotal intake hose friction loss=# from table 11.22.3=constant
formula for net pump discharge pressure at draft
NPDPdraft=PDP+PCNPDPdraft=net pump discharge pressure at draftPDP=pump discharge pressurePC=intake pressure correction
natural water supply sources include:p410
lakes, ponds, streams, rivers and oceans
when evaluating a potential water supply source first determine:p410
adequacy and accessibility
smaller natural sources may be more susceptible to fluctuations in adequacy during periods of _____ than larger bodies of water.p410
drought
floating pumps placed in an adequate water source can develop and maintain a flow of up to?p411
500gpm
allows the utilization of static water supplies that are located a modest distance from fire apparatus?p411
water eductor
operating apparatus on unstable terrain is ___ and may result in a ____?p411
dangerous; rollover
sufficient depth recommended for barrel-type strainer?p412
2 ft of water all around
sufficient depth recommended for floating strainer?p412
shallow as 1 ft
sufficient depth recommended for low-level strainer?p412
1-2 inches
cleaning the fire pump or piping by flowing water through it in the opposite direction of normal flow?p412
back flushing
if an adequate draft cannot be established due to clogging at the strainer, _____ _____ with tank water may help to dislodge the debris.p412
back flushing
may restrict the volume of water that can be drafted, but allows for more efficient access to a natural supply source through a pre-piped installation?p412
dry hydrant
methods for gaining access to static water supplies during freezing weather include:p413
allow barrels filled with antifreeze to freeze in place and knockout bottom for accessset wooden plug or plastic can to freeze in place, drive through ice if access is neededchain saw, power auger, axe, or combination of tools to breach the ice
*regardless of the assumed depth all firefighters working close to water must?p414
wear pfd and use safety line
___ ___ often make it difficult to keep the strainers submerged below the surface of the water.p414
strong currents
common artificial static water supply sources:p414
cisterns private water storage tanksground reservoirsswimming poolsagricultural irrigation systems
water storage receptacle that is usually underground and may be supplied by a well or rainwater runoff; not service by hydrants?p415
cistern
most often used for domestic or agricultural purposes, but some are specifically constructed and placed for fire department use?415
cistern
typically range from 10,000 to 100,000 gallons; accessed through utility cover or installed dry hydrant?p415
cistern
found in large residential, industrial, or agricultural locations; several hundreds to tens of thousands of gallons of water; ground level or elevated(technically not static source as it has pressure at outlet)?p415
private water storage tanks
artificial installations that have similar characteristics as a pond or lake?p415
ground reservoirs
contain millions of gallons of water; may be more accessible to fire apparatus than natural bodies of water?p415
ground reservoirs
due to their backyard location and the presence of fences access may be difficult?p415
swimming pools
typical residential swimming pool may contain adequate water supply for a fire in?p416
single family dwelling
formula square/rectangular pool capacityp416
C=7.5xLxWxDC=capacity in gallons7.5=number of gallons per cubic footL=length in ftW=width in ftD=average depth in ft
formula round pool capacityp417
C=7.5x“óxrŒ_xDC=round pool capacity7.5=number of gallon in cubic ft“ó=pi or 3.14r=radius(1/2 diameter) in ft D=average depth in ft
large pools pre-planned as potential static water may be equipped with connections similar to a ____ ____ for quick FD hook-ups.p418
dry hydrant
flush FD pumpers with fresh water after drafting from ___ ___ in order to remove damaging chlorine residue.p418
swimming pool
*using an internal combustion engine indoors creates a danger of ____ ____ poisoning to the occupants of the building.p418
carbon monoxide
agricultural irrigation systems may function as a potential water source because they may flow in excess of ?p418
1,000 gpm
consists of a pumper positioned at the water supply source that is used to pump water under pressure through one or more supply lines to another pumper connected further down the supply line(s)?p425
relay pumping operation
using two or more pumpers to move water over a long distance by operating them in series?p425
relay operation
pumper that takes water from the hydrant or static source and pumps it under pressure to the next apparatus in the relay pumping operation?p426
water supply pumper
should be the apparatus with the largest pumping capacity (aka source pumpers)?426
water supply pumper
using a smaller pumper as a supply pumper should be avoided because?427
will limit the overall fire flow for the incident
pumper(s) connected with the really that receive water from the source pumper or another relay pumper, raises the pressure and then supplies next apparatus?p427
relay pumper
this pumper may be of smaller capacity due to its ability to use acquired energy of previous pumpers in the relay?p427
relay pumper
term used within the ICS for a mobile piece of apparatus that has the primary function of supporting another operation?p427
tender
can carry a mile or more of LDH on hose bed or reel, equipped with a wide assortment of valves, manifolds, and other appliances for relay pumping?p427
tenders
relay supply hose of 3 1/2”-6” in diameter; used to move large volumes of water quickly with a minimum number of pumpers and personnel?p427
large diameter hose(LDH)
the amount of water required at an incident and the distance between the incident scene and the water source determine the need for?p427
relay pumping
the amount of water required will have a major impact on the design of the?p427
relay system
if the amount of flow through a relay operation needs to be increased:p428
increase diameter/number of supply linesincrease PDP of pumpers involveadd pumper(s) to overcome friction loss
centrifugal pumps are rated to pump their maximum volume capacity at _____ at _____?p428
150psi; draft
at no time should discharge pressure exceed the pressure at which hose or appliances have been?p428
service tested
*pumper are rated to flow:p429
maximum capacity at 150 psi70% at 200 psi60% at 250 psi
formula for relay distance(all answers rounded up to the nearest whole number)p430
P=R/D+1P=total number of pumpers neededR=relay distanceD=distance from Tables 12.1a or 12.1b
when relaying long distances the hose lays between each pumper should as ____ as possible.p432
equalized
overall capacity of the relay system is determined by?p432
smallest pump and smallest diameter hose used
failure to keep water moving through the pump when using a static water supply may result in?p432
loss of prime or overheating of the pump
secured hoseline that is used to handle excess water during a relay operation?p433
dump line
the relay pumper should be waiting for water with?p433
a dump line or discharge open and the pump out of gear
when a steady flow of water begins to issue from the dump line, the pump on the relay pumper may be?p433
engaged
the driver of the relay pumper should maintain an intake pressure of?p433
20-30 psi
as water begins to reach each pumper, the driver should ____ any air from the line before opening the intake valve.p433
bleed
process of releasing a liquid or gas under pressure such as releasing air from the regulator or cylinder of a SCBA, or allowing air to escape from hoseline?p433
bleed
device that serves an important role in the safety of relay operation because the cumulative effect of pressure increases when in changes in flow occur?p433
pressure governor
apparatus equipped with pressure governor should set be set in pressure mode when acting as the ___ ___ and in the rpm mode while working as a ___ ____.p433
attack pumper; relay pumper
relay pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve, they should be set to ____ above the static pressure of the water system/discharge pressure of the previous pumper in the relay.p434
10 psi
attack pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve should be set between ___ and ___ to establish a stable operating condition.p434
50-75 psi
do not attempt to correct minor fluctuations as long as the intake pressure does not drop below?p434
20 psi
when the need for relay pumping has ended the operation should be discontinued from the?p434
fire scene first
beginning with the attack pumper and coordinating with the other pumpers in the relay, each driver should?p434
slowly decrease the throttle, open the dump line valve, and then disengage the pump
operating from portable folding drop tanks eliminates the ___ ___ and inconsistent supply sometimes found in closed relay.p435
pressure surges
to attain ____ ____, these relay task force units must train together and have compatible equipment.p435
maximum proficiency
using hose for supply:p435
median diameter hose(MDH) 2 1/2”or 3” multiple lineslarge diameter hose(LDH) 4” or 5” requires only 1
refer to ____ for further information regarding the placement of relief devices.p435
nfpa 1962
appliances intended to enhance firefighter safety and reduce the possibility of damage to the pump and other water supply components that may be caused by water hammer?p435
relay relief valves
placed along the length of the supply hose that permits a pumper to connect to the valve to boost pressure in the hose?p436
inline relay valve
used to provide water supply to incident scenes where relay pumping is not a viable option?p443
water shuttle operations
deliver their load of water to the incident scene, dump it into portable tanks, travel to a fill site and then return to the incident scene to dump another load of water?p443
water supply apparatus(tenders or tankers)
usually provides more reliable supply of continuous water with the use of fewer apparatus, but it is more labor intensive to take up when incident is terminated?p443
relay pumping
relies on the constant movement of apparatus at the fill site and dump sites as well as along the route?p444
shuttle operations
in shuttle operations with movement of multiple apparatus the chance of _____ increases?p444
collision
location at which tankers/tenders will be loaded during a water shuttle operation?p444
fill site
location approved for water shuttle apparatus to discharge their water for other apparatus to draw during incident operations?p444
dump site
most favorable aspect of a water shuttle operation is the?p444
ease with which it is terminated when the incident is concluded
in some cases an incident may begin with a ___ ___ operation for the sake of expediency and then transition to a ___ as supply lines are laid.p444
water shuttle; relay
major components of a water shuttle operation:p444
fill site, shuttle route, and dump site
with the exception of operations that feature a vacuum tanker or the use of a hydrant, most water shuttles require at least ___ pumpers for water supply.p445
2
pumper located at the water source and has the responsibility of filling water tenders?p445
fill site pumper
pumper located near the fire scene and is used to draft water from portable tanks that are filled by water tenders making shuttle runs to and from fill site?p445
dump site pumper
according to nfpa 1901 water tenders must be designed to be filled at a rate of at least ____ so that pumpers assigned to the fill site must be rated at that capacity or greater.p445
1,000gpm
vehicle weight restrictions generally limit single rear axle apparatus to a maximum capacity of?p446
2,000 gallons
with regards to weight apparatus with a capacity greater than 2,000 gallons require?p446
tandem rear axles, tri-axles, or semi-trailers
water tenders used for shuttle operations do not require a ___ ___ if they are equipped with suitable dumping system.p446
fire pump
tenders featuring pumps of 750gpm or greater rating are often called?p446
pumper/tenders
in order to be considered a tender under NIMS typing requires?p446
an onboard or portable fire pump
is bale to self-fill from a static water source at a rate of up to 2,000gpm with a lift of up to 22ft.?p446
vacuum tender
vacuum tenders are capable of discharging its water tank at a rate of up to?p446
1750 gpm
the success of a water shuttle operation depends on its?p446
efficiency
variable of water shuttle operation that can be controlled through equipment and training to increase efficiency?p446
filling and dump times
attempt to “make up time” by driving faster during water shuttle operation is unsafe and may result in?p447
property damage, injury, death to firefighters/civilians
if using medium diameter hose for filling should have at least ___ external fill connections piped directly to the tank; if using LDH ____ fill connection is generally sufficient.p447
2 MDH; 1 LDH
an alternative to using heavy and harder to handle LDH a ____ hose for each tank fill with quarter turn connectors.p447
3”
it is preferable to have an “____” in the fill pipping to avoid pressurizing the vehicles onboard water tank.p447
“air gap”
*filling through the ___ of the tanks is dangerous and should be discouraged.p447
top
apparatus equipped with ___ ___ valve, this design often do not meet the 1,000gpm flow requirement of nfpa1901.p448
front dump valve
multiple dump valves help improve ___ and ___ by eliminating the need for backing at many dump sites.p448
efficiency and safety
tanks must be ____ ____ to ensure proper dumping operations.p448
adequately vented
two primary types of large tank discharges in use on water tenders?p448
gravity and jet-assisted dumps
gravity is used to empty water from tank; use 8” or larger round or square piping; valve that extends to the exterior of the vehicle?p448
gravity dump
use small diameter in-line discharge inserted into the piping of the large tank discharge; in-line discharge is supplied by the water pump on the water tender and creates a Venturi effect increasing water flow through large tank discharge?p448
jet-assissted dumps
larger gravity dumps limit cost and address operation issues concerning jet-assissted dumps:p448-449
apparatus must be equipped with fire pumppump must be engaged before dumping/adds time water can be discharged without engaging pump at lower ratehigh velocity of water discharge may miss portable tank/strike people or other apparatusmechanism may freeze between dumping-cold weather
with exception of ___ ___, the onboard tank of water tenders must be properly vented to avoid a sudden pressure failure of the tank during quick-filling operations.p449
vacuum tenders
the driver must be sure that the ___ are completely open during fill and dump operations.p449
vents
success of a water shuttle operation relies on several decisions:p449-450
location of dump sitelocation of fill siteroute of travelnumber of apparatus necessary
best time to make tactical decisions id during?p450
pre-incident planning for target hazards and specific geographical areas
must be relatively close proximity to the incident scene, but not so close where it would hamper operations or be in danger of exposure/collapse?p450
dump site
if incident is located on a narrow lane, driveway, or dead end street, it may be advantageous to locate the dump site at?p450
nearest intersection
best location for a dump site is where water tenders can have through access to complete their water shuttle without having to?p450
turn around
for water shuttle operation most suitable site to meet the travel safety and flow requirements of a particular incident may not be always be?p450
geographically closest site
*_____ accidents involving mobile water supply apparatus are a major cause of death and injury to firefighters each year.p453
rollover
the route of travel for water tenders should be selected based on ?p453
safety and operational effectiveness
this route is the optimum arrangement for a water shuttle circuit?p453
circular
fully loaded tenders should travel ____ and empty tenders should make return trip traveling ____.p453
downhill; uphill
consider the following safety issues when planning a route of travel for water shuttle operations:p454
narrow roadslong drivewaysblind curves/intersectionswinding roadssteep gradesinclement weather conditionsfreezing water
US mandated incident management system that defines the roles, responsibilities, and standard operating procedures used to manage emergency operations; creates unified response structure for federal, state, and local governments?p454
national incident command system-incident command system(NIMS-ICS)
when water supply group is established, the person in charge is known as?p454
water supply supervisor
when multiple radio channels are available it may be advantageous to assign dedicated channel to water supply to reduce traffic on the ____?p454
main incident channel
person assigned the role of ___ ___ for water supply operation must have considerable experience in pumper, water supply, and shuttle operations, as well as familiarity with local conditions and a working knowledge of the ICS.p455
group supervisor
system described in nfpa 1561 that defines the roles, responsibilities, and standard operating procedures used to manage emergency operations?p455
incident management system (IMS)
group supervisor will appoint individual responsible for fill and dump sites, which typical ____ or ___ of apparatus stationed at site.p455
company officer or driver/operator
during large scale incidents it may be necessary to establish two or more water shuttle operations, in these cases IC may develop a?p455
water supply branch(east shuttle and west shuttle)
the goal of the fill site is to load tenders as ___ and ___ as possible?p455
safely; efficiently
positioning at fill site must allow for drafting or hydrant connection and the best possible approach and departure for ___ ___ traffic?p456
water tender
ideally position fill site pumper to allow view of?p456
water source and water tender to be filled
if possible fill water tenders at a rate of?p456
1,000gpm
when operating from a hydrant driver must connect at a minimum a ____ intake hose; connect ___ hydrant discharges to pump intake to maximize the potential.p456
LDH; all available
when positioning for draft at static water supply seek position that requires minimum of lift in order to?p456
maximize flow
when fill site pumper has been positioned at source layout and make ready ____ and ____ necessary for the operation?456
hose and appliances
commonly water tenders have at least ___ or ___ direct tank fill connections?p456
2- 2 1/2” or 1- LDH
position a traffic cone/marker so that it is adjacent to ___ ___ denoting the best stopping point for water tender?p456
driver’s door
*using hose clamps on LDH is ___; flow through LDH should be controlled at the ____ or with ____ ____?p457
unsafe; pumper or with valve appliances
*do not fill water tenders with ____ fill device or an ___ due to the reaction of hoseline and possibility of firefighters sustaining serious injuries due to falls from the top of the tender.p48
portable; open hose butt
at fill site assign one firefighter to ___ and ___ each fill line that is laid out.p458
maneuver and connect
firefighters operating fill lines are referred to as?p458
“make and break”
personnel should remain at the gate valves or manifold until the tender is?p458
full
the hand signals/flashlight signals at fill site should be given by ____ in order to maintain continuity and clarity of instruction.p459
one individual
monitor ground conditions as the shuttle operation progresses because of?p459
water spill
drivers of responding tenders should fill their tanks before returning to _____; so that apparatus is in “____” status.p459
quarters; “ready”
provides a continuous supply of water to the apparatus attacking the fire?p459
dump site
primary methods for operating a dump site:p459
direct pumping nurse tenderportable water tank
water tenders pump the water from their tanks directly into the pump intake of an attack apparatus?p459
direct pumping method
two pumpers connect to a siamese intake of attack pumper, 1st pumper supplies at slightly higher pressure and once its out of water the 2nd will begin the supply without delay?p460
alternating supply operation
dump site method generally performed only when a minimal volume of water is required?p460
direct pumping
dump site method of positioning a large water tender immediately adjacent to the attack pumper, serving the same role as a portable tank?p460
nurse tankers(tenders)
tractor-trailer tenders are typically used as?p460
nurse tankers(tenders)
portable water tanks located near the incident scene to eliminate the need for backing or turning around is an efficient way to manage?p460
dump site water supply
very large water tanker(generally 4,000 gallons or larger) that is stationed at the fire scene and serves as a portable reservoir rather than as a shuttle tanker?p460
nurse tanker
method generally considered to be the simplest and quickest method to ensure a constant water supply for fire attack operations?p461
portable tank method
generally pumping through a discharge is ____ ____ than using a dump valve?p461
less efficient
fire fighters should not attempt to manually hold the ___ ___ of a hoseline?p461
open butt
end of a charged hoseline that is flowing water without a nozzle or valve to control the flow?p461
open butt
the tank ____ must have opening of sufficient size to allow free movement of water at the bottom and air at the top during rapid filling or dumping.461
baffles
intermediate partial bulkhead that reduces the surge effect in a partially loaded liquid tank?p461
baffles
nfpa 1901 requires all tenders to dump at a minimum average flow of ____ for the first ____ percent of its tank capacity.p362
1,000gpm; 90%
collapsible storage tank used during a relay or shuttle operation to hold water from water tanks or hydrants?p462
portable tank(catch basin, fold-a-tank, port-tank or portable basin)
operation that is generally adequate for firefighting operations that require relatively low flow rates(less than 300gpm)?p462
portable tank
portable tank variation consisting of a large bladder with a floating collar around the opening; must be set up on level surface to hold max capacity?p462
self-supporting or frameless water tank
regardless of type portable tanks should be set up on level surface and have a capacity of at least?p462
500gpm
when drafting from portable tanks dump site pumper should use _____ strainer for continuous drafting until about 2 inches.p462
low-level
incident that require a flow rate in excess of 300gpm are best served by a?p463
multiple tank operation
most multi-tank operations use?p463
2-5 tanks
the goal of multi-tank operation is to keep the tank used by attack pumper?p463
full at all times
ways to transfer water between portable tanks:p463
connect drain openingsuse jet siphons(more efficient)
must monitor conditions around the dump site as operations progress?p464
dump site officer
if conditions at dump site deteriorate the new dump site must be put into use before original one is ?p464
terminated
all attack apparatus and the dump site pumper should be refilled prior to?p464
concluding operations
overall tender performance is based on a number of factors:p464
loading and unloading time, rive-train capabilities, and tank size
two basic methods for calculating a flow rate for specific tender:p465
timer(dump valve is opened-return to dump site)ISO formulas
formula water shuttle ratep465
FLOW=0.9xTS/trip timeFLOW= water shuttle flow rate in gpm0.9=constant(90% tank)TS= tank size
private national insurance organization that evaluates and rates fire defense for all communities through the fire-suppression rating schedule?p465
insurance services office(ISO)
formula travel timep466
travel time=0.65+(1.7)(distance) 5 mile water shuttletravel time=0.65+(1.7)(5)travel time=9.15 minutes
formula handling timep466
handling time=fill site time+dump site time4,000 gal tender/rate of 2,000gpm fill time=(2min+[4000/2000])=4dump time=(2min+[4000/2000])=4handling time=4+4=8 min
flow rate of the fill site pumper must be established in order to use what formula?p466
handling time
some FD have found that they actually routinely dump less than ____ of each load?p467
90.00%
one of the most accurate ways to to determine the amount of water left in tank after dumping id to ____ the truck full and after dumping.p467
weigh
formula tender flow ratep467
Flow=0.9xTS/Travel time+handling timeFlow=tender flow rate gpm0.9=constant(90% tank)TS=tank size
matching local capabilities with water supply requirements should be completed prior to an?p468
incident
effective water shuttle operations are the result of safe and efficient practices and not excessive?p468
driving speeds
use of foam agents in all areas of the fire service has _____ dramatically in recent years.p479
increased
foam used by a physical agitation of a mixture of foam concentrate, water, and air?p480
mechanical foam
mixing water with appropriate amount of foam concentrate in order to form a foam solution?p480
proportioning
introduction of air into a foam solution to create bubbles that result in finished foam?p480
aeration
process used to mix foam concentrate with water in a nozzle or proportioner; concentrate drawn into the water by venturi effect?p480
eduction
raw chemical compound solution that is mixed with water and air to produce finished foam?p480
foam concentrate
device that injects the correct amount of foam concentrate into the water stream to make foam solution?p480
foam proportioner
the result of mixing the appropriate amount of foam concentrate with water?p480
foam solution
an extinguishing agent formed by mixing a foam concentrate with water and aerating the solution for expansion?p480
foam(finished foam)
most common foams in use; must proportioned and aerated before use?p480
mechanical foam
to produce fire fighting foam, foam concentrate, water, and air must be ?p480
educated or injected in the correct ratios
failure to match the proper ___ ___ to the type of fuel may result in an unsuccessful suppression attempt that could endanger firefighters.p480
foam concentrate
class B fuels are decided into two:p480
hydrocarbons and polar solvents
crude oil, fuel oil, gasoline, benzene, and kerosene are petroleum based and have a specific gravity less than one and will float on water?p480
hydrocarbon fuels
effective in extinguishing these fires and suppressing vapors because because it floats on the surface of hydrocarbon fuels?p480
class B
alcohol, acetone, ketones, and esters, are known as miscible(mix with water); special alcohol-resistant(polymeric) formulations of firefighting foam must be used when these flammable liquids are encountered?p480
polar solvants
many modern fuels, including gasoline, are blended with up to ___ solvent additives.p480
15.00%
class b foam are designed solely for hydrocarbon and not effective on polar solvents?p481
polar solvents
some foams are intended for use on polar solvents may be used on?p481
hydrocarbons fuel
foam extinguishes and/or suppresses vapors by:p481
separating-barrier between fuel and firecooling- lower temp of fuel and adjacent surfacessuppressing or smothering- prevents release of flammable vapors reducing ignition/reignition
firefighting foam creates a ____ on the burning or exposed fuel, excluding oxygen and making ignition difficult and stops the burning process.p481
film/blanket
a petroleum based organic compound that contains only hydrogen and carbon?p481
hydrocarbon fuel
liquid having a molecule where the negative and positive charger are permanently separated, resulting in their ability to ionize in solution and create electrical conductivity(water, alcohol, and sulfuric acid)?p481
polar solvants
materials that are capable of being mixed in all proportions?p481
miscible
foam concentrates are generally intended to be mixed with?p482
fresh or slat water
most fire fighting foam concentrates are formulated to mix with ___ to ___ percent water.p482
94 to 99.9
class a foams are formulated to be proportioned within certain limits, percentage range:p482
0.1 to 1 percent
foam is proportioned by:p482
inductioninjectionbatch mixing premixing
equipment types for proportioning foam:p483
apparatus, portable use, or fixed fire protection system
uses the pressure of water stream to induct(draft) foam concentrate?p483
induction method
uses an external pump to force foam concentrate into the fire stream at the proper ratio; commonly apparatus mounted or fixed fire protection system?p483
injection
simple but potentially inaccurate method of mixing foam concentrate and water, foam concentrate is poured directly into a tank of water?p483
batch mixing
method commonly used with class A foams; may not be effective during large incidents as foam lines must be shut down when the tank is emptied?p483
batch mixing
portable proportioning device that injects a liquid, such as foam concentrate into the water; venturi device that uses water pressure to draw foam concentrate?p483
eductor
solid or flexible tube used to transfer foam concentrate from a storage container to the inline eductor or proportioner?p483
pickup tube
mixing remeasured portions of water and foam concentrate in a container; portable extinguishers, wheeled extinguishers, skid mounted twin ager units, vehicle mounted tank systems?p484
pre-mixing
when batch mixing class b foam concentrate tank water must be _____ to ensure proper mixing before discharge.p484
circulated
must be thoroughly flushed after use with foams:p484
fire pump, associated piping, tank, hose, and appliances
batch mixing of class a foam is accomplished using portable tanks with?p484
tender relays
premixed solutions may be discharged from a ________ tank using compressed air or inert gas(nitrogen) or by a pump from a _______ storage tank.p484
pressurized; non pressurized
limited to one time use applications, once used they must be completely emptied, flushed, and refilled before used again?p484
premixing system
methods of foam storage for fire service application:p484
pails barrels totesapparatus tanks
5-gallon plastic container not affected by the corrosive nature of foam, remain airtight?p485
pails
55-gallon plastic or plastic-lined container container, more common in industrial applications?p485
barrels
275-gallon container, bulk storage required, trailer mounted, housed and transported by a “host” department in response area for large-scale incidents?p485
totes
piped directly to the delivery system; 20 to 200 gallons on fire pumpers and 8,000 gallons or more on tenders?p485
apparatus tanks
often located above the fire pump area or integral cell within the apparatus water tank, or additional pump and a lower connection point for refilling the tank?p486
smaller foam concentrate tanks
may be directly adjacent to the water tank, or only one tank for foam and no water tank?p486
larger foam concentrate tanks
mixing different types or brands of foam concentrate should be avoided as the result may prove?p486
ineffective and have reduced suppression capabilities
some foam concentrate are approved for both but the majority are divide for use on either?p486
class a(ordinary) or class b(flammable)
available since the 1940s class a foam technology has only recently been widely accepted and used for?p486
structure, wildland, coal, tire storage, other deep seated fuels
*use class a foams only on ___ fuels.p487
class a
includes hydrocarbon surfactants that reduce the surface tension of water in the foam solution?p487
class a foam
chemical that lowers the surface tension of a liquid; allows water to spread more rapidly over the surface of class a fuels and penetrate organic fuels?p487
surfactant
*as with any method of fire attack, the correct ___ must be applied to safely and efficiently extinguish the fire.p487
flow in gpm
may be used with fog nozzles, aerating foam nozzles, medium and high expansion devices, compressed air foam systems using most nozzles including solid?p487
class a foam
shelf life of class a foam?p487
as long as 20 years
drain time increases in proportion with increases in the ____ of the solution.p487
percentage
most foam nozzles will produce more stable foam at ____ percent concentration than ____ percent?p487
1%; 0.5%
proportioning class a foam for fire attack and overhaul with standard fog nozzles?p488
0.2-0.5%
proportioning class a foam for exposure protection with standard fog nozzles?p488
0.5-1.0%
proportioning class a foam for any application with air aspirating foam nozzles?p488
0.3-0.7%
proportioning class a foam for any application with compressed air foam systems(CAFS)?p488
0.2-0.5%
minimum amount of foam solution that must be applied to an unignited fire, spill, or spill fire to either control vapor emission or extinguish the fire; measured per minute per square foot of area to be covered?p488
application rate
the rate at which foam bubbles breakdown?p488
stability of foam
class b foam concentrate consist of ?p489
synthetic or protein base
made from a mixture of fluorosurfactants; 20-25 years shelf life?p489
synthetic foam
derived from animal protein; 10 years shelf life?p489
protein based foam
should be stored in cool areas to maximize shelf life?p489
class be foam
generally ____ products are considered safer for the environment?p489
protein based
specifications developed by the US department of defense(DoD) for purchase of materials and equipment ?p489
military specifications(Mil-Specs)
form provided by the manufacturer and blender of chemicals that contains information about chemical composition, physical and chemical properties, health and safety hazards, emergency response procedures, and waste disposal procedures of a specified material?p489
safety data sheet(SDS)
class be foams are mixed in proportions of?p490
1 to 6 percent
concentration of hydrocarbon fuel?p490
1 to 3 percent
concentration for polar solvants ?p490
3 to 6 percent
result of adding air to a foam solution consisting of water and foam concentrate; increase in volume of solution once aerated?p490
foam expansion
method used to aerate foam solution will create varying degrees of expansion based on:p490
type of foamaccurate proportioning quality of foammethod of aeration
foam expansion is generally describe as being low, medium, or high; nfpa 11 states:p490
low- 20:1 ratiomedium- 20:1 up to 200:1high- 200:1 to 1000:1
rate of application depends on:p490
type of concentrateif fuel is on firetype of fuelfuel is contained or not
the minimum foam solution application rates for ignited fuels are specified in?p490
nfpa 11
to calculate the application rate available from a specific nozzle?p491
divide the flow rate by the area of the fireflow rate gpm/fire area ftŒ_= gpm/ftŒ_
unignited spills do not require the same application rate due to the absence of:p491
radiant heat, open flame, and thermal drafts
once foam application begins continue without interruption from uphill/upwind until?p491
extinguishment
derived from animal protein sources such as hooves, horns or feather meal?p492
protein foams
foam concentrate that consists of a protein hydrolysate plus additives to prevent from freezing, corrosion equipment and containers, bacterial decomposition during storage and control viscosity?p492
protein foam concentrate
to cause or go a chemical process of decomposition involving the splitting of a bond and the addition of the element of water?p492
hydrolyze
ability of foam blanket to resist direct flame impingement such as would be evident in a partially extinguished petroleum fire?p492
burnback resistance
foam concentrate that combines the qualities of fluoroprotein foam with those of aqueous film forming foam?p492
film forming fluoroprotein foam(FFFP)
synthetic foam concentrate that when combined with water can form a complete vapor barrier over fuel spills and fires and is a highly effective extinguishing and blanketing agent on hydrocarbon fuels?p492
aqueous film forming foam(AFFF, light water)
generally has good heat stability and burnback resistance; not as fluid and degrades more quickly in storage than synthetic?p492
regular protein foam
combination of protein-based foam and synthetic, surfactants are added, flow more readily than ordinary foam, longer lasting vapor suppression?p492
fluoroprotein foam
may be made alcohol resistant(approximately 15 minutes) with the addition of ammonia salts suspended in organic solvents,
fluoroprotein foams
most commonly used synthetic foam concentrate; fluorochemical and hydrocarbon surfactants combined with solvents to create a high boiling point?p492
aqueous film forming foam(AFFF, A triple F)
when AFFF or FFFP foam is applied to a fire involving a hydrocarbon fuel:p493
-air/vapor excluding film is released ahead of the foam blanket-fast moving blanket of foam spreads across the surface of the fuel surrounding objects/providing insulation-as aerated foam blanket drains water, more lim is released giving the foam an ability to recover or “heal” areas disturbed
*when applying foam be aware of the potential for _____ in previously covered areas where contact with hot objects may be present, more apparent with AFFF foam.p493
burnback
aqueous film forming foam that is designed for use with polar solvent fuels?p493
alcohol-resistant aqueous film forming foam concentrate(AR-AFFF)
commonly used on polar solvents (3-6%), may be used on hydrocarbon (1-6%)? p493
AFFF
applied gently to a fuel product in order allow membrane to form, aspirating nozzles generally best?p493
AR-AFFF
contains detergent base and a low water content?p494
high expansion foam
common applications for high expansion foam:p494
concealed space firefixed extinguishing systems for specific industrial hazardsclass a fire applications
foam proportioning devices operate by one of two basic principles:p494
venturi effect or pressurized proportioning
impart pressure on the foam solution with the use of the main pump, introduces air into the foam solution when it reaches the nozzle or is discharged from the nozzle?p494
low energy foam systems
a simple and common method of foam proportioning involves the use of a ?p494
portable foam proportioner
three common types of portable foam proportioner:p494
in-line foam eductorfoam nozzle eductorself educating master stream nozzles
type of foam delivery device that is located in line near the nozzle; foam is drawn into the water line using venturi method?p494
in-line foam eductor
flow in gpm through eductor must not exceed its; quality of foam may decrease or flow may stop if exceeded?p495
rated capacity
pressure at the discharge side of the eductor must not exceed _____ percent of the eductor inlet pressure.p495
70.00%
pressure loss or gain created by changes in elevation between the nozzle and pump?p495
back pressure
foam solution will only blend accurately if the inlet pressure at the eductor is correct?p495
150-200 psi
inlet pressure too low will not create venturi effect resulting in ?p495
mixture too lean
inlet pressure too high?p4
mixture too rich
educators must be properly maintained by immersing pick up tube in clean water and letting it induct water for at least?p495
1 minute
must be set to draw the correct percentage needed to develop correct quality foam?p495
metering valves
the foam concentrate inlet to the eductor should be no more than ____ above the liquid surface of the foam concentrate?p495
6 ft
foam concentrate are more viscous in ____ and less viscous when ____?p495
cold; heated
the nozzle and the eductor must have the same ___ ___ in order to operate successfully.p495
gpm rating
operates under the same principle as in-line eductor, but it is built in rather than attached to hoseline?p496
self-eructing nozzle
*use of foam nozzle eductors may compromise firefighter ____, because firefighters cannot quickly move and must abandon the supply of concentrate should they need to withdraw rapidly.p496
safety
large-capacity nozzle with built-in foam eductor, uses a modified venturi design, pickup tube is located in the center bore of the nozzle?p496
self-educting master stream foam nozzle
produces an over-proportioned that is diluted by the deflector plates in the nozzle, flows in excess of 350gpm(up to 14,000gpm), pressure drop is much lower(10 percent or less) than standard foam nozzle eductor?p496
self-educting master stream foam nozzle
type of foam eductor that is used to supply self-educting master stream nozzles?p497
jet ratio controller(JRC)
jet ratio controller allows the foam concentrate to be located as far as _____ away from a self-educting master stream nozzle, and elevation change of up to____? p497
3,000 ft; 50 ft
supplied by a hoseline from the main fire pump; flow of water of this device represents about 2.5% of total flow?p497
jet ratio controller
JRC proportion the concentrate at a ____ percent solution, then it is further proportioned by nozzle resulting in discharge solution of ____ percent.p497
66.5%; 3%
operate under the same principles as portable in-line eductor, but the system is fixed-position mounting on apparatus?p497
installed in-line eductor system
in some installations a ___ ___ is installed to reduce the friction loss across the eductor.p497
bypass proportioner
in ___ ___, a valve directs the water through a second chamber of the eductor that contains no orifice or restrictions; used when no foam is desired?p497
bypass mode
when a ___ ___ is required, a valve is directed to divert water through the eductor/orifice chamber?p497
foam line
most commonly used to proportion ____ foam, not as effective for proportioning the very low concentrations used in ____ foam operations?p497
class b; class a
apparatus-mounted foam proportioner in which a small quantity of water is diverted from the pump through an in-line proportioner; there it picks up foam and carries it to the intake side of the pump?p498
around-the-pump proportioner
in the open position valve for the around-the-pump proportioner eductor allows approximately ______ to flow through the piping?p498
10 to 40gpm
older model around-the-pump proportioner only work with onboard tank water, because inlet water pressure of greater than ____ will not allow foam concentrate to enter the pump intake.p498-499
10 psi
one of the most most common types of installed proportioners used in modern fire apparatus?p498
around-the-pump proportioner
is unable to pump both foam and plain water from the pump at the same time?p499
around-the-pump proportioner
foam concentrate proportioner that operates in tandem with a fire water pump to ensure a proper foam concentrate-to-water mixture?p499
bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner
used on large mobile apparatus installations (ARFF vehicles), is one of the most accurate methods proportioning?p499
bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner
features ability to monitor the demand for foam concentrate and adjust amount supplied, also a foam concentrate line supplied by a separate foam concentrate pump connected to each discharge?p499
bypass-type balanced pressure proportioner
pressure of the concentrate and water are monitored by a _____ that ensure proper balance.p499
hydraulic pressure control valve
because the water and foam concentrate are supplied at the same pressure and the sizes of the discharges are _____, the foam is proportioned correctly.p499
proportional
apparatus-mounted foam system that injects the correct amount of foam into the pump piping, thereby supplying all discharges with foam?p500
variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system
proportioner generally operates off power supplied but the apparatus electrical system, but larger units may use a combination of electric and hydraulic power?p500
variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system
proportion foam 0.1 to 3 percent; used with class a and many class b; not useable with alcohol resistant foam due to the viscous nature of the product?p500
variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system
able to adjust to changes in water flow as nozzles are opened or shut, and nozzles can operate above or below pump without adversely affecting foam proportioning?p500
variable-flow variable-rate direct-injection system
foam proportioning system that is used both fixed and mobile applications; a variable speed mechanism drives the foam pump and automatically monitors the flow to produce effective solution?p500
variable-flow demand-typed balance pressure proportioners(pumped/demand system)
flow of concentrate matches the pressure demand; requires no flushing after use; water and/or foam solution may be discharged simultaneously from any number of outlets, up to rated capacity?p500
variable-flow demand-typed balance pressure proportioners
the dump in method is the simplest of proportioning foam, approximate amount of concentrate is poured into tank using top fill opening?p501
batch mixing
with batch mixing the size of water tank and desired proportioning percentage indicate the ____ that must be poured into tank?p501
quantity of concentratedesired 3%97 gal water+3 gal concentrate= 100 gal foam solution
generally batch mixing is only used with ____ and ___?p501
class a and regular AFFF(not alcohol resistant)
class a foam do not retain their foaming properties when mixed in water for more than?p501
24 hours
when batch mixing slowly circulate the water tank to avoid ____ and continue to do so for short period of time to ensure mixing is complete?p501
frothing
foam removes all lubricants from pump seals, thoroughly flush out tank and check seals for proper_____?p501
lubrication
conduct flushing operations in accordance with the ____ supplied by the foam manufacturer?p502
SDS
because of the shortcomings ____ ____ is used only if no other proportioning method is available?p502
batch mixing
introduce compressed air into the foam solution prior to discharge into hoseline; discharged greater distances than ordinary foam/water stream?p502
high energy foam generating systems/CAFS
in the mid-1980s, the ______ conducted research that resulted in development of the type of high energy class a foam system?p502
US bureau of land management
features a rotary air compressor and a standard centrifugal fire pump?502
compressed air foam system(CAFS)
apparatus equipped with CAFS also flow plain water, designed to flow foam only through ____ discharges?p503
preselected
CAFS apparatus use a standard centrifugal pump with an automatic discharge side proportioning system; due to low eduction rates, a variable flow rate sensing proportioner is required to supply the fire stream at a rate of?p503
0.1 to 1.0 percent
2 cubic ft per min of airflow per gallon per minute of foam solution produces a dry foam of up to 100gpm of foam solution?
10:1 expansion ratio
most structural and wildland suppression operations conducted with CAFS use an airflow rate of?p503
0.5 to 1.0ftŒ_
*to protect the attack team when using class a foam, ____ floe rates should be the same as those for plain water.p503
nozzle
any nozzle that can be safely handled by one to three firefighters and flow less the 350gpm?p503
handline nozzle
most common handline nozzles used for foam applications are:p503
smooth borefogair-aspirating foam
limited to application of class a foam from a CAFS, exception to the rule-discharge orifice be no greater than half the diameter of the hose?p504
smooth bore
may operate fixed flow, selective flow, or automatic when applying low expansion short duration foam blanket?504
fog
expansion ratios for most fog nozzles are in the ?p504
2:1 to 4:1 range
fog nozzle are most efficient during the application of ____, however may also be used with_____ ?p504
regular AFFF and class a; AR-AFFF(hydrocarbon fires)
fog nozzles are not an acceptable choice for delivery of ____ foams as insufficient aspiration is created; likewise not to be employed in incidents involving ____?p504
fluoroprotein foam; polar solvents
only nozzles that should be used with protein and fluoroprotein concentrates; can be used with class a in wildland?p504
air-aspirating foam nozzle
perform in similar manner to the handling nozzles; used in large-scale flammable and combustible liquid fires beyond the capabilities of hand lines?p504
master stream foam nozzles
high-expansion foam generator that uses a fan to inject the air into the foam solution as it passes through the unit?p505
mechanical blower
two basic types of medium- and high-expansion foam generators?p505
water aspirating an mechanical blower
produce foam containing high air content:p505
medium-expansion= 20:1 to 200:1high-expansion= 200:1 to 1000:1
similar to other foam producing nozzles, except considerably larger and longer; generate a lower air volume foam product than mechanical blowers?p505
water aspirating device for medium- and high-expansion
air is forced through the foam solution by fan instead of being pulled by water; foam contains very high air content for total flooding; limited to high-expansion applications?p505
mechanical blowers
techniques for applying foam to a fire or spill:p506
direct-applicationroll-onbank-down rain-down
fire attack class a foam; applying finished foam directly onto the burning material?p506
direct-application method
class b foam application; directing a foam fire stream on the ground near the front edge of a burning liquid pill and foam rolls across the surface of the fuel?p506
roll-on method
class b foam; foam is directed onto the vertical surface and allowed to run down and spread across the pooled fuel product?p506
bank-down method
class b foam; direct stream into the air above the fire allowing the foam to gently rain down on the surface of the fuel?p506
rain-down method
capable of being broken down into innocuous products by the actions of living things(microorganisms)?p508
biodegradable
chemical change in which a substance breaks down into two or more simpler substances(oxidation)?p508
decomposition
studies by the US forest service shows that release of foam into bodies of water can be?p508
lethal to fish
provide additional information regarding foam environmental impact?p508
safety data sheets(SDS) and nfpa 1150
extinguishing agents as well as pre-treatment of structures threatened by fire spread; retain fire retarding properties longer than class a foam?p508
durable or gelling agents (fire blocking gels, or aqueous fire fighting gels)
superabsorbent liquid polymers capable of absorbing hundreds of times their own weight in water?p509
gelling agents
water absorbent polymers, small bubbles filled with water, nontoxic and biodegradable, however slippery and more expensive than class a foam?p509
durable/gelling agents
applied for extinguishment, fire line construction, or structure protection through hand lines, master streams, or air drop?p509
durable/gelling agents
gelling agent standard application ratio?p509
extinguishing: 1:100(1%)fire line construction: 1.5-2%structure protection: 2-3%
durable agents will adhere to vertical structural surfaces for up to?p509
24 hrs
___ is tested upon completion and periodically for its entire service life?p515
new fire apparatus
two basic categories of testing fire apparatus?p515
preservice and performance
the purchaser should require these tests when writing specifications for the apparatus bid?p515
manufacturer’scertificationacceptance
commonly used as a basis for most apparatus bid specifications?p516
nfpa 1901 standard for automotive fire apparatusnfpa 1906 standard for wildland fire apparatusnfpa 414 standard for aircraft rescue and firefighting vehicles
fire department personnel are not normally involved in; performed by manufacturer or underwriter labs?p516
manufacturer or certification tests
fire department personnel, especially drivers may be involved in?p516
acceptance testing
if requirements of nfpa 1901 are included in apparatus bid specifications, manufacturer must perform two specific test in addition to pump certification tests?p516
road test and hydrostatic test
per nfpa 1901, ____ is to be conducted with vehicle loaded to the same weight as it will be when placed in service?p516
road test
preservice apparatus maneuverability tests designed to determine the road worthiness of a new vehicle?p516
road tests
apparatus road test minimum standards:p516
-0-35 mph within 25 seconds -achieve max speed of 50 mph(waived-off road vehicles)-full stop from 20 mph in 35 ft-parking brake must conform to manufacturer specifications
written list of expected capabilities for a new apparatus?p516
performance requirements
special requirements should be written into the bid specifications as ____, and not _____ or _____ specifications.p561
performance requirements; engineering or equipment
testing method that uses water under pressure to check the integrity of pressure vessels?p517
hydrostatic test
performed to ensure that the pump and associated piping are capable of withstanding high pressure pumping demands?p517
hydrostatic test
not subjected to hydrostatic testing?p517
tank fill and tank-to-pump lines on the tank side of the valves
during testing a minimum hydrostatic test pressure of _____ for a minimum of ____?p517
500 psi; 10 minutes
performed by an independent testing organization(UL), and are designed to ensure the fire pump will operate as designed?p517
pump certification tests
test performed at manufacturer plant before acceptance of vehicle, and results are stamped on a plate affixed to pump panel?p517
pump certification tests
nfpa 1901 requires following certification test on apparatus with fire pump of 750gpm up to 3,000gpm:p517
engine speed checkpumping testpumping engine overload testpressure control system testpriming system testvacuum testwater tank-to-pump testengine speed interlock testgauge and flowmeter testmanufacturer’s predelivery test*tank-to-pump flow test(onboard water tank)
procedure used to determine the rate of water flow available for fire fighting at various points within the distribution system?p517
fire flow testing
preservice tests on fire apparatus or equipment, performed at the factory or after delivery, to assure the purchaser that the apparatus or equipment meets bid specifications?p517
acceptance testing
should feature pump test in addition to the pump certification test?p517
acceptance test
if apparatus fails to perform to the requirements outlined in the bid specifications?p517-518
rejected by purchasermanufacturer must correct deficiency or new apparatusvoid and choose another vendor
higher than 2,000ft above sea level, ____ should be performed as part of acceptance testing?p518
pumping engine overload test
requirements for apparatus service testing are contained in?p518
nfpa 1911 standard for inspection, maintenance, testing and retirement of in-service automotive fire apparatus
based on nfpa 1911 a pumper must be performance tested at least ____, or whenever it has undergone ______?p518
once a year; major pump or powertrain repair
minimum performance testing required in nfpa 1911:p518
engine speed checkpump shift indicatorpump engine control interlockpriming system testvacuum testpumping test for fire pumpsoverload testspressure control test for fire pumpsintake relief valve system testgauge test flowmeter testtank-to-pump flow rate
nfpa 1911 allows performance testing to be conducted using ___ or ___ water supply, but ___ is preferred because it will provide easier evaluation of pump performance?p518
hydrant or static; static
distance of the centerline of the pumper intake above the surface of water is based on?p518
pump capacity
pumps rated at 1,500gpm or less ___ is maximum distance, while 2,000gpm pumps use a ____ maximum lift?p518
10ft; 6ft
air temperature when performance test is conducted should be between?p518
0ä‹Š(18ä‹€ ) and 110ä‹Š(43ä‹€ )
water temperature when performance test is conducted should be between?p518
35ä‹Š(2ä‹€ ) and 90ä‹Š(32ä‹€ )
barometric pressure should be at least ___ inches of mercury when corrected at sea level?p518-519
29
1 inch drop in barometric pressure reduces the static lift of a pumper by approximately?p519
1 foot
nfpa 1911 lists the minimum intake hose arrangements necessary to perform tests on pumps of various capacities accurate at altitudes of up to?p519
2,000 ft above sea level
intake hose diameter or the number of hoses may need to be increased when performance testing at higher altitude than?p519
2,000 ft above sea level
for pump test a sufficient number of discharge hoses must be stretched and operated, minimum diameter for this purpose?p519
2 1/2”
to monitor serviceability of the hose during test where hose and coupling meet scribe a ?p519
mark
if scribe mark has moved more than 3/8” from coupling?p519
stop the test and replace hose
performance tests are conducted at net pump discharge pressure of?p519
150 psi, 165 psi, 200 psi, and 250 psi
provides information on friction loss allowances for various sizes of intake hose that may be used during pump testing?p521
nfpa1911
nfpa 1911 specifies that all gauges used for service testing must be calibrated within ___ day of testing?p521
60
indicates flow in gallons per minute within +/- 5%?p522
flowmeter
hole through which a person may go to gain access to an underground or enclosed structure?p523
manhole
instrument that indicates the rotational speed of a shaft in revolutions per minute; used to indicate engine speed?p523
tachometer
should be conducted under no-load conditions after all fluid levels are within manufacturer recommendations?p523
engine speed check
if engine is not running at the same governed speed(+/- 50 rpm) at which it was rated then apparatus should be ?p523
evaluated by a qualified mechanic
evaluates the priming device, pump, and intake hose for air leaks?p523
vacuum test
if pump fails to reach ___ inches of mercury, remove apparatus from service until repair is made?p523
22
according to nfpa 1911 fire pumps of 1,250gpm must achieve prime in _____; 1,500gpm must be primed within ____?p524
30 seconds or less; 45 seconds
evaluates the overall operation of the engine and fire pump?p524
pumping test
must be tested to ensure the operate as designed, maintaining a safe level of pressure on the pump when valves are closed at a range of discharge pressures?p525
pressure control devices
performed in 3 part sequence, and may be completed while the pump is still set up from the pumping test for efficiency?p525
pressure control test
must be tested to ensure that the driver has accurate information on which to base decision on pump operations?p525
discharge pressure gauges/flowmeter
flow rate is measured using a ___ ___ reading at the discharge of the solid stream nozzle?p525
pitot gauge
difference in readings between flowmeter and pitot gauge should be no more than?p525
10.00%
must be conducted on any apparatus with an onboard water tank; verifies that piping between the onboard and pump is sufficient to supply minimum amount of water specified by nfpa 1911?p525
tank-to-pump flow test
tank capacity flow rate standards:p525-526
500 gal or less = 250gpmgreater than 500 gal = 500gpm
internal intake pressure relief valves as well as intake relief valves on any appliances used on the apparatus should be?p526
tested
any apparatus that achieves results less than ____ percent of its original rated capabilities, may be placed out of service or restored/tested again.p526
90.00%
accuracy of an apparatus foam system must be tested prior to ____ per nfpa 1911, does not require yearly testing?p527
delivery
methods for testing a foam proportioning system for calibration:p527
foam concentrate displacement methodfoam concentrate pump discharge volume methodfoam solution refractivity testingfoam solution conductivity
method checks the volume of foam concentrate that is drawn through the system to determine the accuracy of the proportioning equipment?p527
foam concentrate displacement method
at a predetermined flow water is drawn from a calibrated tank; water has a different viscosity than foam so a correction factor is used?p527
foam concentrate displacement method
used by certain direct injection type proportioning systems; discharge fro foam concentrate pump is collected in a calibrated tank for specified period of time ?p528
foam concentrate pump discharge volume method
ensures the quality of foam after it has been created using a refractometer to measure; accurate for protein and fluoroprotein?p528
foam solution refractivity testing
used to ensure the quality of synthetic based foam; difference in the level of conductivity can be used to measure the amount of foam concentrate in a given solution?p529
foam solution conductivity testing
due to the very light color of synthetic based foam, ___ testing is not accurate?p529
refractivity
method may be used when actual percentage of foam concentrate in a solution may be indicated on certain meters?p529
direct reading conductivity testing
method is used during testing with a meter that displays units of micro-siemens per centimeter(ms/cm)?p529
conductivity comparison testing
perfumed using a handheld temperature compensated conductivity meter ?p530
conductivity calibration curve testing
designing or selecting apparatus consider factor:p541
maneuverabilitymost common tasks requiredamount of equipment it will carrybudget constraintsinsurance industry recommendationsplanning department recommendationsnumber of responders it will carry
because of their size and versatility, _____ ____ often meet many of the criteria that fire departments consider when choosing or designing apparatus.p541
aerial devices
specialty category of fire fighting vehicle equipped with a hydraulically operated ladder, elevating platform, or other similar device for the purpose of placing personnel and/or water streams in elevated positions?p541
aerial apparatus
nfpa 1901 groups aerial devices into three basic categories; based on how they are used and their tactical advantages:p542
aerial ladderselevating platformswater towers
general term used to describe the hydraulically operated ladder or elevating platform attached to a specially designed fire apparatus?p543
aerial device
power operated ladder, usually employing hydraulics, that is mounted on a special truck chassis?p543
aerial ladder
trailer equipped with steerable rear wheels?p543
tillered trailer
assembly of bracing bars or rods in triangular shapes that form a rigid framework for the aerial device?p543
aerial ladder truss
engineering design has proven that trusses lend more strength if their assembled members form ____?p543
triangles
properly designed truss permits tension and compression stresses to be distributer over the length of the ladder for ____ strength with ____ weight.p543d
maximum; minimum
extendable section of ground extension or aerial ladder?p544
fly section
the bottom section of the aerial ladder is referred to a as?p544
base/bed section
two most common materials for construction of aerial ladders:p544
heat-treated aluminum alloy and steel
aerial ladders’ structural members may be:p544
fastened by rivetswelded(steel)heliarced(aluminum alloy)
three main portions of an aerial ladder:p544
base rails(beams)top rails(handrails)rungs
the lower cords of the aerial ladder to which the rungs, trusses, and other portions of the ladder are attached?p544
base rails(beams)
the top chords to which the opposite ends of the trussing are attached?p544
top rails(handrails)
the portions that are attached between the two base rails and are used as steps for personnel on the aerial ladder?p544
rungs
aerial ladders designed and built with “_____” as a standard feature provide greater strength than those with older designs?p544
“k-bracing”
____ establishes requirements for the dimensions of sections and structural members of the aerial ladder?p545
nfpa 1901
device that transfers the center of gravity of an apparatus and prevents it from tipping as it is extended away from the centerline of the chassis?p546
stabilizer
in the early days aerial apparatus, aerial devices and stabilizers were ____ operated; spring-operated, gear driven, or other means to raise and lower.p546
manually
all new aerial devices and virtually all stabilizers are ____ activated?p546
hydraulically
*on some apparatus the aerial device could be raised before the ______ are set; the _____ valve should be preset to stabilizer system; selector valve must not be inadvertently changed while the aerial device is ____?p546
stabilizers; selector; raised
hydraulic system has four main components:p546
actuatorshydraulic fluidhydraulic pumphydraulic reservoir
transforms power into mechanical force?p546
actuator
is the medium by which the system transmits force?p546-547
hydraulic fluid
creates force on the fluid; powered by power-take-off(PTO) arrangement off the vehicle’s main engine?p547
hydraulic pump
hydraulic systems can be either:p547
load sensing piston pumprotary vane pumprotary gear positive-displacement pump
hydraulic fluids may be under pressures of?p547
3,500 psi
Leaks in hydraulic systems occur at high pressure and can ____ or ___ skin.p548
burn or cut
supplies the hydraulic fluid that is moved in and out of the system?p548
hydraulic reservoir
the ____ allows air, heat, and foreign matter to be eliminated from the fluid before it is reintroduced into the hydraulic system?p548
reservoir
tubes and hoses that supply the hydraulic fluid throughout the system are:p548
steel tubing and aircraft-type, steel braided hose
hoses must be rated to withstand pressures of at least ___ ___ greater then normal operating pressure.p548
4 times
in order to control the flow of hydraulic fluid through the system a number of different ____ are used?p548
valves
start, stop, regulate and direct the flow of fluid to control pressure in the system?p548
valves
valves may be controlled?p548-549
manuallyelectricallyhydraulicallymechanicallycombination of these methods
prevent fluid from flowing backward through a component and act as safety feature in the event a leak develops in the system?p549
check valves
limit the pressure built up in the system, thus preventing damage due to over pressurization?p549
relief valves
prevent unintentional or undesirable motion of the device from its established position?p549
counterbalance valves
three-way valve on a fire department aerial apparatus that directs oil to either stabilizer control valves or the aerial device control valves?p549
selector valve(diverter valve)
*some older aerial apparatus still in use today do not have the ____ to prevent the unintended use of the aerial before setting the stabilizers?p549
interlocks
actuator valves, monitor valves, stack valves abd proportional directional control valves are used to direct and control the power in the operating systems are?p549
four- or five-way valves
convert energy in the system into linear mechanical force or motion when pressurized hydraulics oil is directed into a chamber created by lifting a piston into a cylindrical barrel?p549
hydraulic cylinders
hydraulic cylinders used for elevation and telescopic control of the aerial device and for operating the stabilizers are?p549
double acting cylinders
are capable of receiving oil under pressure from both sides of the piston so that force is created in either direction?p549
double acting cylinders
convert energy in the system into a rotary motion?p549
hydraulic motors
two rotary motor systems of the apparatus:p549
ring and pinion drive-rotates the aerialoperates a winch drive-extend and retract aerial
nfpa 1901 requires all manufacturers of aerial devices to provide an _____ hydraulic pump for use in the event of failure of the main?550
auxiliary
the ___ pump is typically 12-volt DC, electrically operated pump connected directly to the vehicle’s battery; 110-volt AC power or small internal combustion engine?p550
auxiliary
provide all the same motions as the main pump but at reduced speed; should be limited to bedding aerial only; operate only for intervals of 1:1 minute work/rest?p550
auxiliary hydraulic pumps
force the stabilizer arms outward and down to stabilize apparatus?p550
stabilizer cylinders
hydraulic cylinders used to lift the aerial device from its bed to a working position?p550
hoisting cylinder(elevation or lift)
heavy seamless steel outer shells bored to an extremely sooth inside surface?p550
hoisting cylinders
in a hydraulic cylinder, the pivoting end of the piston rod that is connected to the anchor ear by the heel pin?p551
trunnion
the larger the piston area the more ___ ___ is produced; normal hydraulic pressure is from ____ to ___ psi.p551
upward force; 850 to 3,000 psi
many new hoisting cylinders are equipped with ___ ___ ___ that lock and hold oil in the cylinder in the event of a leak or a blowout?p552
integral safety valves
used to lower the ladder by manually bleeding the pressure from the cylinder in case of failure?p552
bleed-down valve
dual cylinders fitted on the base section and used to extend the second section of the device, in some designs the simple operate a series of pulleys and cables that in turn extend the fly sections?p552
extension cylinders
its primary function is to provide rotation to the aerial device?p552
turntable
aerial ladders made in North America the fully extended(working) length ranges?p552
50-137 ft
some aerial apparatus made in the US and overseas may reach in excess of?p552
200 ft
the main uses of aerial ladders are?p552
rescueventilationelevated master stream applicationaccess to upper floorsexposure protectionabove ground fire fighting
aerial ladder may be mounted on :p552-553
two- or three-axle single chassis tractor-drawn type
aerial ladder apparatus that consists of a tractor power unit and trailer(tiller) section that contains the aerial ladder, ground ladders, and equipment storage areas?p553
tractor-drawn aerial apparatus(TDA)
equipped with steerable rear wheels on the trailer; more maneuverable than single-straight vehicles; capable of sharp u-turns in dead-end street or courts?p553
tractor-drawn aerial apparatus(TDA)
as an alternative may have some of the benefits of the tiller trucks in terms of maneuverability, and not widely manufactured ?p553
all-wheel steer apparatus
*apparatus with ___ ____ capabilities handle differently than apparatus with traditional front-wheel steering.p553
all-wheel steer
driver/operator of the trailer section of a tractor-tiller aerial ladder apparatus?p553
tiller operator(tillerman)
ifsta devices the nfpa classification of elevating platform apparatus into three distinct types of aerial devices:p555
aerial ladder platformstelescoping aerial platformsarticulating aerial platforms
work platform attached to the end of an articulating or telescoping aerial device?p555
elevating platform
power-operated ladder usually employing hydraulics, with a passenger carrying device attached to the end of the ladder?p555
aerial ladder platform
an elevating platform equipped with piping systems and nozzles for elevated master stream operations; not meant to be climbed and are equipped with a small ladder that is to be used only to escape from the platform in emergency situations?p555
telescoping aerial platform
aerial device that consists of two or more booms that are attached with hinges and operate in a folding manner with a passenger carrying platform attached to the working end?p555
articulating aerial platform
a 4-inch metal plate that runs around the bottom edge of any railing on a balcony or elevated walkway to prevent someone’s foot from slipping off?p556
kickplate(footplate)
required so that the platform’s position is horizontal to the ground at all times?p556
elevating platform leveling system
required minimum floor area of the platform is?p556
14ftŒ_
each platform must have a rail completely enclosing the floor area with no area opening under the railing greater than?p556
24 inches
two gates below the top railing provide firefighter/victim access and egress; surest standards cal for ____ opening doors unlike older apparatus with ____ opening doors.p556
inward; outward
all elevating platforms are required to have two operator control stations:p556
street level and platform
the controls at ___ ___ must be able to override the ____ controls.p556
street level; platform
a ____ ____ ____ is built in to platforms to protect firefighters from radiated heat.p557
heat protective shield
the heat protective shield can loose its ability to reflect heat through?p557
age, dirt or damage
nfpa 1901 requires a protective ___ be provided on the bottom of the platform?p557
water fog curtain nozzle
water fog curtain nozzle is designed to be operated using a ____ and required by nfpa 1901 to flow at least ____?p557
quick actuating lever; 75gpm
when the aerial device is fully extended, at any elevation within normal range of motion, and no water in the piping system all elevating platforms must have a minimum load capacity of?p557
750 lbs
load requirements of elevating platforms when the water delivery system is charged?p557
500 lbs
when the aerial device is in any position the water delivery system must be capable of discharging at least?p557
1,000 gpm at 100 psi
elevating platforms that are 110ft or shorter should be able to raised from bedded position to the maximum elevation and extension and be rotated 90 degrees in ?p557
150 seconds or less(no time requirement >110ft)
aerial ladder platforms commonly range in size from?558
85 to 110 ft
most common aerial ladder platform apparatus in service today is the ?p558
straight chassis, 3-axle, rear-mounted
aerial ladder platforms are designed with a ____ that allows firefighters and victims to climb either direction on the ladder.p558
large ladder
telescoping aerial platforms are not intended for ___, but are equipped with a ____ attached to the boom used as an emergency escape ladder for firefighters working in the platform.p558
climbing; small ladder
common sizes of telescoping aerial platforms in North America range from?p558-559
75 to 100 ft
telescoping aerial platform devices have two or more sections and are made of either?p559
box-beam or tubular truss-beam construction
a mechanically applied rivet used in the construction of some aerial devices; can only be removed by drilling?p559
huck bolt
boom sections are connected by a hinge and they fold/unfold like an elbow?p559
articulating aerial platforms
additional benefits of the articulating devices:p559
assembly enables the platform to go “up and over” and into areas not accessible with straight line apparatus
standard articulating aerial platforms range in height from?p559
55 to 85 ft
devices with two or more telescoping booms on each side of the articulating hinge?p559-560
combination aerial devices
combination(telescope/articulate) aerial devices range in height from?p560
90 to 174 ft
aerial device primarily intended for deploying an elevated master stream and not for climbing?p560
water tower(elevating master stream device)
most water towers are able to deploy fire streams range of elevation?p560
few degrees below horizontal to nearly 90 degrees from the ground
water towers range in sizes from?p560
50 to 130 ft
water tower are capable of maximum flows ranging from?p560
1,000 to 5,000 gpm
in order for devices to be truly considered an aerial ladder the ladder affixed to the water tower must meet requirements?p560
nfpa 1901 for aerial ladder
apparatus that serves as an engine and as a ladder truck?p560
quint
having 5 major features or functions the term quint is derived from?p560
quintuple fire apparatus or quintuple combination pumper
criteria for qualification as a quint apparatus:p560-561
F-fire pumpW-water tankA-aerial device/elevated platformG-ground laddersS-supply/attack hoses
on most aerial devices the 3rd, 4th, and 5th(if present) sections of the aerial device are extended and retracted by a system of ?p562
cables and pulleys
are usually corrosion resistant aircraft quality cables made with a very high strength steel, called plow steel and are resistant to abrasion?p562
extension and retraction cables
allows the various sections of the aerial to extend and retract without causing excessive wear on the parts of the device that come in contact with each other?p562
slide and rollers
most devices use a combination of the following to facilitate the movements of the device?p562
slide pads/blocks/rollers
rotational structural component of the aerial device; primary function is to provide continuous rotation on a horizontal plane?p563
turntable
turntable generally operate on?p563
large shear ball-type bearings
is designed for operators of all heights and is positioned on the turntable side of the aerial apparatus?p564
operator’s control pedestal
the top of the pedestal is usually designed with a ___ to make it easier to read the instruments mounted on it.p564
sloping panel
for apparatus equipped with a platform nfpa 1901 also requires a ____ in the platform.p564
control station
the turntable control station must have the ability to ____ the platform control station?
override
most control pedestals have three separate lever to control:p564
elevationrotationextension
because an aerial operator should first ___, ___, ___ the aerial device, the control levers should be located in order from ___ to ___ on the pedestal.p564
elevate, rotate, extend; right to left
some aerial devices, particularly water towers, telescoping and articulating platforms, feature a ____ type of control capable of making all aerial device movements?p564
single “joystick”
a safety device that prevents a component from functioning when another component is functioning?p566
interlock
certain interlocks are required by ______ which my be a combination of:p564
nfpa 1901; mechanical limit switches or incorporated into computer algorithms
the aerial device function must not activate unless the stabilizers are fully deployed?p566
aerial/stabilizer interlock
the device will not move into regions where it would make contact with the body or cab?p566
body collision interlock
the aerial device will not rotate over the side of the apparatus where the stabilizer are not fully extended?p566
rotational (short-jack) interlock
the device will slow down before reaching maximum elevation or extension?p566
maximum elevation slow-down interlock
the device will not retract completely without the activation of the retract override function?p566
retraction interlock
the device will not drop into the cradle if the master stream nozzle is not properly positioned?p566
nozzle stow interlock
the aerial device will not operate until the parking brakes have been set and the transmission has been placed in neutral or the transmission is in the drive position with the driveline to the rear axle disengaged?p566
aerial function interlocks
the cab will not raise in the engine is running ?p566
cab interlock
the engine starter will not work unless the tiller operator is seated and belted or a tiller cab start button is engaged?p566
tiller operator interlock
many aerial ladders are equipped with _____ that eliminate the need for laying hose up the ladder to a master stream nozzle.p567
pre-piped waterways
non-telescoping section of pipe usually 3”or 3 1/2” in diameter, attached to the underside of the bed section of the aerial with master stream nozzle at the end?p567
bed ladder pipe
often equipped with solid stream nozzles because of their inability to telescope prevents them from being positioned for effective fog stream application?p567
bed ladders pipes
most ladder pipes are equipped with manually operated nozzles, which may be operated from:p567
the tip of the retracted aerial device or preferably the ground or turntable with ropes attached to the nozzle
most new aerial ladders are equipped with a ____ waterway that extends toward the top of the ladder?p567
telescoping
ladders that are ___ or shorter and equipped with a telescoping water system have piping that extends directly to the tip of the fly section?p567-568
110 ft
consist of 3 or 4 sections that decrease in diameter(largest-base to smallest-fly); made of aluminum or other metal; generally minimum internal diameter of 4”?p568
telescoping piping system
the piping that goes through the turntable is equipped with a continuous ___ ___ that allows 360 degree rotation while flowing water.p568
swivel joint
switches near the tip or at the control pedestal can be used to ___ control nozzles in telescoping waterway systems.p568
remotely
most telescoping water systems are capable of flows up to?p568
1,000 gpm
mechanical means to secure the master stream monitor to the ladders?p568
pin
some telescoping pre-piped waterway systems allow the operator to ____ or ___ the master stream monitor to two locations along the device.p569
secure or pin
anchoring mechanisms in pin-able waterways may include:p569
pins, levers, or clamps
the ladder must be fully retracted and the waterway uncharged before the operator adjusts the ?p569
pin locations
drivers should always be sure that the master stream monitor is?p569
secured in its anchor
*always ____ pre-piped monitors before charging with water or they can launch pipe sections through the air, and always ensure there in no ____ in the waterway before changing the pin location.p569
anchor; pressure
aerial ladders not equipped with pre-piped waterway systems have?p569
detachable ladder pipe appliances
main components of the detachable ladder pipe:p569
ladder pipefire hosehose strapssiamese/LDH with 3-way wye
designed to be clamped to the top two rungs of the fly section, and for additional security also lashed to the ladder using rope/hose straps?p569
ladder pipe
detachable ladder pipes are typically limited to flows of less than?p569
750 gpm
hose appliance with one female and two or more male outlets; outlets usually smaller then inlet and gated?p569
wye
a twisting action or an applied force resulting in a rotational twist?p570
torsional stress
hose appliance that has two or more female inlets and a single male outlet, equipped with hinged gates(clapper valves) that prevent water from being discharged through an open inlet?p570
siamese
counterforce directed against a person/device holding a nozzle by the velocity of water being discharged?p570
nozzle reaction
ladder pipe hose should run up the ___ to avoid torsional stress and secured at a minimum _____ locations on the ladder.p570
center; 2-3
most ladders with detachable ladder pipe appliances restrict the sideways movement of the nozzle to about _____ either side of the center.p571
15 degrees
because elevating platforms typically have greater load capacities than aerial ladders, the piping systems may be larger and flow up to?p571
2,000gpm
is safer and has more working room than aerial ladders; some are equipped with two nozzles that can be operated individually or simultaneously and at least one 2 1/2” discharge?p571
elevating platforms
equipped with system similar pre-piped water system found on aerial ladders; with controls for both the motion of the water tower and nozzle on the control panel?p572
water tower system
most commonly the water discharged from a water tower is pumped from? p572
fire pump on the apparatus
are sometimes equipped with video camera and thermal imagers at the tip and a video monitor at the control panel?p572
water towers
water towers may have an optional ___ nozzle at the tip of the aerial device, this ____ _____ nozzle penetrates through sheet metal buildings, aircraft skins, and metal roofs.p572
piercing; hardened steel
piercing nozzles on water towers have a ____ ____ nozzle at the tip capable of discharging flows up to ____?p572
broken stream; 300gpm
permit fire fighters at the tip of the aerial device to communicate with the driver at his position?p572
voice communication systems
system consist of a “hands-free” transmitter/receiver at the tip of the ladder or in the elevating platform and a transmitter/receiver at the operator position/pump panel(does not have to be “hands-free”)?p572
voice communication system
the voice communication system receivers are?p572
hard-wired or radio transceivers
now requires a two-way communication system on all aerial device apparatus?p573
nfpa 1901
allow one or more firefighters operating at the tip of the aerial device to breathe clean air without the need to don a SCBA?p573
fixed breathing air system
nfpa 1901 does not require aerial devices to have breathing air systems, but installed it establishes requirements for:p573
number of firefighters to be supported by systemcapacity of compressed air cylinders pressure requirements for the piping systemlow air warning alarmsconformity to government regulations
establishes requirements for the quality of the air in breathing air systems?p573
nfpa 1989 standard on breathing air quality for emergency services respiratory protection
establishes the requirement to annually test the breathing air system and the quality of the stored air?p573
nfpa 1911
today’s aerial apparatus are often equipped with ___ ___ equipment used to power floodlights, and other electrical tools/equipment on emergency scene.p574
electrical generation
regardless of type of electrical generation equipment used, its design and installation must meet pertinent electrical ___ and include proper ____?p574
codes; grounding
____are the most common power source used for emergency services and can be _____ or _____?p574
generators; portable or fixed
used on aerials when it is not necessary for the apparatus to be able to generate large amounts of power?p574
inverters
a step-up transformer that converts the vehicle’s 12-or 24-volt DC current into 110- or 220-AC current; most commonly used to power vehicle mounted floodlights?p574
inverter
advantages of inverters are:p574
efficiency and low or nonexistent noise during operation
disadvantages of inverters are:p574
small capacities and limited mobility from apparatus
typically have 110- and/or 220-volt capacities; gasoline or diesel powered; extremely useful when power is needed in areas not accessible to the vehicle-mounted system?p574
portable generators
powered by variety of fuels or power take-off(PTO) and usually have larger capacity than portable units; provide power to portable equipment, and floodlight system ?p574
vehicle-mounted generators
usually have 110- and 220-volt capabilities, fixed floodlights are wired directly to the unit through a switch or circuit breaker and provides outlets?p575
vehicle mounted generators
device designed to protect against electrical shock by opening a circuit to shut off the flow of electricity when grounding occurs?p575
ground fault circuit interruptor(GFCI or ground fault indicator GFI receptacle)
if apparatus is equipped with a GFCI the driver must know?p575
how the system operates and how to test/reset the system
used where fixed lights are not able to reach or when additional lighting is necessary?p575
portable lights
mounted on the vehicle or aerial device and their main function is to provide overall lighting of the emergency scene?p575
fixed lights
usually mounted so they can be raised, lowered, or turned, with more elaborate setups including electrically, pneumatically, or hydraulically operated booms with a bank of lights?p576
fixed lights
_____ the power-generating equipment will result in poor lighting and may damage the power-generating unit, lights, or restrict the operation of electrical tools.p576
overtaxing
needed to conduct electric power to portable equipment; must be adequately insulated, contain a ground wire, waterproof, and have no exposed wires?p576
electrical power cords
driver should examine electric power cords ____ for damage to the insulation or connections; recommended lengths should not exceed ____ per reel or cord.p576
daily; 200ft
provide one form of secure and safe connections?p576
twist-lock recepticles
used when multiple connections are needed; supplied by one inlet and fitted with several outlets; 110- and 220-volt?p576
junction boxes
junction boxes are commonly equipped with a ____ ____ on top to make them easier to locate and to provide visual assurance that they are energized.p576
small light
should be carried so that equipment can be interchanged and firefighters can plug their equipment into standard outlets?p576-577
adapters
it is common for FD aerial apparatus to carry a variety of ___ ___, most commonly used are ___ ___?p577
extrication equipment; hydraulic powered
rescue workers use four common types of hydraulic power tools:p577
spreaders, shears, combination spreaders/shears, and extension rams
___ ___ receive their power from compressed air, electric motors, two- or four-cycle gas engines, or apparatus-mounted PTO ?p577
hydraulic tool pumps
hydraulic tool pumps may be ___ and carried with the tool, or they may be ___ on the vehicle and supply tools through long coiled hoses/hose reel.p577
portable; mounted
hose distances of ____ or greater from the hydraulic pump may have a negative effect on tool operation.p577
100ft
in addition to apparatus-mounted systems aerials may also carry a large array of?p577
portable tools and equipment
crews assigned to aerial apparatus historically have been assigned a variety of fireground functions including:p577
forcible entryventilationsearch and rescuesalvage and overhaul
contains a list of the minimum equipment with which each aerial apparatus should be equipped?p577
nfpa 1901
used when the main aerial devices cannot reach a portion of the building, additional ladders are needed, or when only they are needed?p578
ground ladders
nfpa 1901 requires that the ladder complement must include at least:p578
attic, roof, and extension ladders
many fire agencies choose to carry an extension ladder that is 40ft or longer to reach 4th or 5th story windows a called?p578
“pole” ladders
due to the extreme weight and awkwardness “pole” ladders are equipped with “_____” or “_____” for stability and leverage during raising.p578
“staypoles” or “tormentors”
driver should be familiar with ___ ___ carried on the apparatus and procedures for ___, ___, and ___ ground ladders.p578
ladder load; inspecting, testing, and maintaining
driver should be familiar with the location, operation, inspection, and servicing of each type of ___ ___ equipment carried on the apparatus.p578
forcible entry
two common types of equipment used to supplement the natural flow of heat, smoke, and gases from a fire building?p579
exhaust fans(smoke ejectors) and positive pressure blowers
placed in window, door, or roof openings for drawing out heat, smoke, and gases by creating a lower pressure inside the fire building?p579
exhaust fan/smoke ejector
used to increase the air pressure in the structure and thus force out the by-products of combustion?p579
positive-pressure ventilation fan
___ ___ starts from the minute companies leave the station and continues throughout the entire incident.p579
loss control
loss control activities include:p579
safe driving skills water applications techniquessalvage and overhaul
nfpa 1901 requires aerials to be equipped with ____ and ____ to assist with salvage and overhaul efforts.p579
multiple salvage covers and two scoop shovels
drivers should inventory their equipment ___ per SOP, and power equipment should be started ____and inspected for readiness.p580
periodically; daily
drivers should follow a ___ tiller inspection procedure based on department SOPs, nfpa standards, and manufacturer.p581
systematic
there are a myriad of forces on the ___ ___ that cause wear and tear greater than other chassis components and more than a regular tractor trailer system where the trailer follows the tractor.p581
tiller components
tiller axle is a steering axle therefore steering wheel free play must not exceed ____ on a 20” wheel or ____ degrees?p581
2”; 10ŒÁ
most tiller steering systems can be locked in the straight ahead position by the use of ____; used so a single driver in front cab to transport for maintenance, training, other non-emergency?p581
lever or pin
all tractor drawn aerials have permanently mounted ______ attaching the “trailer” to the “tractor” power unit, since it is the articulation point insufficient ____ will result in the coupling system binding creating difficulty in steering control.p581
coupling systems; lubrication
unlike tractor suspension systems most tiller systems have ____ suspension that require additional attention during inspections.p581
air bag
should be done with proper supervision and is not considered to be routine maintenance?p582
regular structural testing
most often the agency will have its own ____ ___ that will serve as a checklist for the aerial device inspection; furthermore some have forms for ____, ___, and ___ inspections?p583
official form; daily, weekly, and monthly
check and fill the hydraulic fluid when system is ______; using the _____ or _____ provided on apparatus; only when the stabilizers and aerial device are in ____?p583
cold; dipstick or sight gauge; stowed positions
*adding hydraulic fluid while the stabilizers or aerial device are deployed can lead to ____ the system which could result in hydraulic leaks and damage to the system when cylinders are retracted.
overfilling
the operational inspection serves two purposes:p583
to ensure aerial device is in proper working condition and serves as a review of the aerial device operation for the driver
by operating the aerial device at least ____, the driver will be more prepared to operate efficiently under emergency conditions.p583
once every work period
the location to perform operational test must be:p584
suitable for operating aerial deviceclear of overhead obstructionsapproved by the property ownerstable/reinforced parking area that will support the weight of apparatus
before performing operational tests?p584
transmission in neutral, set parking brake, and chock the tires
____ drivers should not rotate and extend the device at the same time.p585
inexperienced
operating a hydraulic pump without allowing flow through the system; this generates tremendous heat and pressure and can damage components?p585
deadheading
apparatus tests are grouped into two basic categories:p585
preservice and service
all tests should conform to the most current editions at time apparatus was manufactured of _____?
nfpa 1911 and nfpa 1901
service tests are conducted on at least a ___ basis while apparatus is in service.p586
yearly
nondestructive testing is conducted:p586
every 5 yearsafter accidents aerial has been subject to unusual stresses and loadsmajor repairs and overhauls
service testing includes inspecting and testing components such as:p586
stabilizerstorque boxaerial devicewater systems
the best guarantee that the apparatus will perform within its design limitations is :p586
an organized system of apparatus testing and regular maintenance
the ___ ___ requires apparatus testing in order for the community to receive full insurance rating credit, and this ultimately affects rates.p586
insurance industry
for efficient and safe fire control apparatus drivers must work together to ensure _____ ____ are positioned for maximum use and minimum stress to the aerial device.p610
aerial apparatus
SOPs provide basic guidance but positioning the apparatus at an actual incident is influenced by conditions and will be at the discretion of:p610
IC, truck company officer, driver/operator
aerial apparatus placement on the foreground is critically important because aerial devices and ladders have?p610
fixed maximum lengths
it is crucial to obtain the optimum scene position for the aerial preferably on the first attempts when placing consider:p610
aerial objectiveturntable placementscene conditionsproper stabilization
