driver's book simple 2 Flashcards by Yaniel Del Rosario

in many cases apparatus placement procedure should be developed during?
p610

pre-incident planning

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during pre-incident planning give special consideration to aerials in terms of:
p610

access to various portions of the occupancy
overhead obstructions
any other factors that influence apparatus functions

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area beneath a wall in which the wall is likely to land if it loses structural integrity?
p610

collapse zone

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apparatus placement of pumpers and aerial(100 ft reach) if building is less than 5 stories(60 ft):
p611

pumper closest to building/aerial outside of pumper

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apparatus placement of pumpers and aerial if building is greater than 5 stories(60 ft):
p611

aerial closest to building/pumper outside of pumper

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FD should develop SOPs and pre-incident plans and all personnel must be trained to follow SOPs on?
p612

every response

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for any given situation the proper distance between objective and aerial is the distance that affords the:
p612

maximum stability
best climbing angle
adequate extension

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long extensions a ___ ___ place the maximum amount of stress on the aerial/reduce its load carrying capacity?
p612

low angles

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older trucks typically built before ___ should not be used at low elevations and long extensions.
p613

1991

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positioning the apparatus in a location that provides the utmost efficiency for operating on the fireground?
p613

spotting

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apparatus should be parked on soft surfaces?

p614

as a last alternative

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supplied with the apparatus and are to be used whenever the stabilizers are deployed?
p614

stabilizer pads

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unattached flat metal plate that is larger in area than the stabilizer foot, placed under the foot to provide better weight distribution?
p614

stabilizer foot( jack pad/plate)

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ground above underground vaults such as underground parking structures, utility chases, drainage culverts, basements that extend under sidewalks, or underground transportation systems?
p615

vaulted surfaces

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in cold whether avoid parking the apparatus and deploying aerial on?
p615

snowy or icy surfaces

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primary spotting consideration associated with hot weather is that extreme heat tend to weaken marginal or otherwise firm?
p615

paved surfaces

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visual indicators of a compromised asphalt surface due to extreme heat is?
p615

when the asphalt “bleeds” creating a shiny glass like surface

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grade position aerial with rear tires off the ground, the truck has less resistance to sliding downhill, and rear compartments will be hard to reach?
p615

front of the apparatus uphill

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grade position easier to reach the ground at the rear, front tires lifted of the ground causing the frame rails to sag and making device more difficult to stow?
p615

rear of apparatus uphill

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moderate to high winds impose a ____ load on the aerial and may reduce the over all stability by forcing movement for which the apparatus was not designed.
p616

dynamic

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loads the involve motion(wind, moving vehicles, earthquakes, vibration, or falling object)?
p616

dynamic load(shock loading)

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movement by the wind also _____ the other loads placed on the device by personnel or equipment.
p616

magnifies

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when operating in high wind conditions spot the apparatus so that?
p616

minimizes extension needed

aerial device over the front/rear of apparatus and parallel to the wind

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manufacturer have predetermined ____ wind speed recommendation for safe operation and may/may not be indicated in load chart.
p616

maximum

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avoid spotting the aerial in a position that will require a lot of maneuvering around?
p616

ground or overhead obstructions

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the ground around a downed power line or charged vehicle becomes charge in ?
p616

concentric circles with varying voltage potential

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aerial drivers must continually be aware of overhead ___ ___ and exercised caution around other types of overhead lines such as ____ and ___?
p617

power lines; telephone and cable tv lines

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parts of or vehicle do not need to touch the ___ ___ for it to become energized, electricity will arc across a gap as large as ____?
p617

power line; 10ft

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10 ft of clearance between the aerial device and overhead high-voltage lines energized from ___ to ___; and 50 ft of clearance for high-voltage transmission lines over ____?
p617

600-50,000 volts; >50,000 volts

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new OSHA standard for construction industry requires ___ between device and overhead lines of less the 350 kilovolts and ___ for lines over 350 kilovolts.
p617

20ft; 50ft

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vehicle contacts or is energized by power line un less there is a fire it is ____ to stay in the vehicle.
p618

safer

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if it is necessary to exit an energized vehicle to reduce the risk of electrocution?
p618

jump clear off maintaining balance or fall forward

feet together and hop or shuffle upwards of 150ft

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do not raise booms or ladders into power lines, look up and use ___ to search for power lines in the dark.
p618

lights

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*do not step off a ___ vehicle, because touching it while standing on the ground you may be injured or killed?
p619

charged/energized

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apparatus in most stable when the aerial is operated?

p619

longitudinal axis(apparatus body)= directly over the front or rear

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the least stable position for operating an aerial is?

p619

perpendicular angle to the apparatus

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backing in the apparatus is the preferred method as this maximizes the reach of?
p620

rear-mounted aerials

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nosing in the apparatus maximizes the reach of?

p620

midship-mounted aerials

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tillered aerial apparatus may be positioned to increase stability by ___ the apparatus.
p620

jackknifing

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condition of truck tractor/ semitrailer combination when their positions to each other form an of 90 degrees or less?
p620

jackknifing

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greatest stability occurs when jackknifing to an angle of ____ from in-line and the aerial device is extended ____?
p620

60°; away from this angle

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good stability occurs at angles up to ___, and beyond that stability?
p620

90°; decreases rapidly

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factors that work against the aerial device’s strength?

p621

stresses

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stress is imposed in both ___ and ___ operation.

p621

static(rest) and dynamic(motion)

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stress tends to be greater when the aerial device is in?

p621

motion

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stress in aerial devices is increased when the ladder rungs are operated ____ to the ground or when parked on an ____ and operated off the side.
p622

parallel;incline

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when an apparatus must operate off an incline driver can reduce stresses by spotting the turntable _____ from the point of operation.
p6212

downhill

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if truck has only two jacks then the direction in which it can be stabilized on a grade is limited and need to face?
p622

uphill

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another spotting considerations whether aerial is designed to be operated?
p622

unsupported at the tip(cantilever) or supported(resting on a wall)

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the maximum loading for any unsupported aerial device occurs when operated at angles between ____ and ___ horizontal.
p622

70° and 80°

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extension affects aerial device stress, as extension increases aerial loading must?
p622

decrease

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aerials operating low angle of elevation and long extension are at their?
p622

weakest

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driver must be familiar with the load limitations of the aerial device when?
p623

flowing and not flowing water

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how an apparatus approaches the incident and positions at the scene will significantly affect its ability to?
p623

conduct emergency operations

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as a driver always consider locating a suitable?

p625

water supply

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it may be necessary to stretch hoselines or use an aerial device from ____/____to get water to the level of the highway.
p625

overpass/underpass

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some of the most dangerous scenarios faced by firefighters are operations on:
p625

highways
interstates
turnpikes
other busy roadways

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*all individuals operating on scene of highway incidents must wear an approved?
p625

reflective safety vest

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*on high-speed roadways, apparatus should not be driven against traffic unless the road has been ____ by law enforcement officials.
p626

cleared

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*to maintain scene safety a driver should never shut down _____ while on the scene of a roadway incident.
p626

all warning lights

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always treat railroad tracks as _____ and keep apparatus at least ____ away from tracks ?
p627

active; 25ft

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*never park apparatus on?

p627

railroad tracks

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park the apparatus on the ____ side of the tracks as the incident?
p627

same

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if it is absolutely necessary to raise aerial across railroad track confirm with the railroad company that train traffic has been ___ and keep device at least ___ above the level of rails as precaution.
p627

halted; 25ft

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conditions of the road or ground surface near railroad tracks are often?
p627

unstable

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in emergency medical incidents the ___ should be given the best position with other apparatus positioned around.
p628

ambulance

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during structural incident response positioning is determined based on ?
p629

building height and condition 
rescue
ventilation
elevated master stream
intensity of fire
fire's potential growth

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during incidents avoid making the apparatus an ___ itself, because in many cases it is the most ___?
p629

exposure hazard; expensive

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*platforms have torn from the ends of aerial devices by falling parapet walls, balconies, and fire escapes so ____ must be constantly monitored and evaluated during operations.
p631

building stability

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indicators of unstable buildings:

p631

bulging walls
sagging roofs
large exterior cracks
falling bricks, blocks or mortar(limestone)
interior collapse

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*if the fire building is known to be in poor repair, the aerial should not be used in a ?
p631

supported position(touching the building)

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emergencies involving hazardous materials may occur:

p631

transportation setting or fixed facility

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when responding to hazmat incidents:

p631-632

wind speed/direction
upwind/uphill
distance
exposure to high levels of heat(flammable)
avoid manholes/storm drains(fuels run under)
material may be corrosive

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on all vehicle related responses consider the possibility of the involvement of?
p632

hazardous materials

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aerials respond to incidents involving aircraft for a number of reasons such as:

extrication equipment
rescuing victims
access to large frame aircrafts

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three basic types of aircraft incidents to which aerials may respond:
p632

involving extrication
involving extrication complicated by fire
non-incident related aircraft fires

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driver should be familiar with the procedures for ___ and ___ at an aircraft emergency.
p632

approaching and positioning

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*do not position near ___ or designated danger zones around jet engines.
p633

running jet engines

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there are ___ tactical uses for aerials at the scene of aircraft incidents, and are more likely to be useful at ___________.
p633

few; non-accident-related fires involving large-frame aircraft

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in aircraft incidents aerials may be used:

p633

ventilation
passenger rescue
deploy handlines to interior of aircraft
master stream applications

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when placing aerial device for passenger rescue on aircraft:

p633

doorway=building window

over a wing= building roof

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avoid spotting apparatus in a position that hinders the deployment of the aircraft _____?
p634

emergency slide(door openings and rear of wings near emergency windows)

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*do not position the apparatus where an aircraft is expected to ?
p634

land or stop

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aerial apparatus are frequently used to provide ___ at fires involving large storage tanks or fuel/chemical processing facilities.
p634

elevated master streams

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at storage tank fire never spot the apparatus ___ the dike that surrounds the affected tank(s).
p634

inside

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positioning an apparatus for fire attack/esposures in processing facilities/refineries can be extremely challenging:
p634

narrow driveways
dead-end accesses
overhead obstructions

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proper positioning of aerial at the scene of a technical rescue operation depends on whether the apparatus is used for?
p634

mitigation of incident or support role

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aerials may be a necessary component too complete a rescue operation in circumstances such as:
p634

below grade or high angle

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the apparatus _____ _____ is perhaps the most critical aspect of preparing an aerial for use.
p641

stabilization process

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it is necessary to ____/____ the base of the chassis beyond the span of wheels so that it resists the tendency to overturn when the aerial is extended over the side of the apparatus.
p642

broaden/widen

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when parked with the aerial device in stowed position the apparatus has a center of located somewhere along the?
p642

longitudinal midline of the chassis between the front and rear axles

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by deploying the apparatus stabilizers, the base of stability for the aerial is effectively _____?
p642

increased

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rotating the device 360 degrees will trace a _____, as long as it does not extend outside of the base of stability the apparatus should remain stable.
p642

gravity circle

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theoretical safety zone that surrounds the center of gravity on an aerial apparatus?
p642

gravity circle

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if apparatus is parked on a grade the center of gravity will be shifted to the _____ side.
p643

lower

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_____ loading on the aerial device will result in an expansion of the gravity circle.
p644

excessive

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required to prevent the apparatus from tipping as the aerial device is extended away from the centerline of the chassis?
p644

stabilizers(outriggers, ground/screw jacks)

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straight jacks that extend down from the chassis?

p644

post-type stabilizers(downriggers)

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stabilizers that extend straight away from the truck and have jacks that extend straight down to the ground?
p644

box stabilizers(H-stabilizers)

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stabilizers that extend down and away from the chassis at an angle?
p644

A-frame, scissor, or X-style stabilizer(fulcrum-type)

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to deploy stabilizers and aerial device have to engage the _____, to do so the driver will have to activate the ____ or other specialized hydraulic system.
p644

aerial hydraulic system; power take-off(PTO)

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PTO activations switch varies:

p645

pneumatic
electric
hydraulic
combination of the 3

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pneumatic PTO activation systems air pressure requirements?

p645

50-140 psi

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procedures for engaging/disengaging PTOs on aerial apparatus depend upon type of ____ and whether or not the apparatus is equipped with a _____?
p646

transmission; fire pump

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found in most new apparatus, gives the driver the ability to engage the PTO system while transmission is in neutral?
p646

“hot-shift” PTO systems

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it is necessary to lower _____ speed to near idle prior to engaging the hydraulic system PTO or other device.
p646

engine(pump)

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before deployment of the stabilizers make the following observations:
p651

activate front brake lock
PTO engagement light is on
chock the wheels

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wheels should have chocks placed ___ and ___ the tire with approximately ____ of extra space so chocks don’t get stuck.
p651

front and back; 1 inch

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anticipate the expected travel path of stabilizers and be observant of obstructions:
p652

vehicles
utility poles 
hoselines 
fences
signs 
personnel on scene

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when possible a ____ should assists the driver with positioning the apparatus to help avoid curbs, manholes, vehicles, and so forth.
p652

spotter

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move the following objects, ensuring the stabilizer shoe contact areas are as stable as possible:
p652

large rocks
fire hose
tools
underground utility access covers
broken pavement

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flat metal plate attached to the bottom of the aerial apparatus stabilizer to provide firm footing on the stabilizing surface?
p652

stabilizer shoe(boot/foot)

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*avoid placing stabilizers over:

p653

drainage areas
underground tanks/vaults
utility access zones

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once the driver is assured preliminary activities on fireground are completed and is prepared for stabilization activities, operate the _____ to provide hydraulic power to stabilizing system.
p653

selector valve

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driver should make certain the selector valve control is in the _____ position?
p653

stabilization(outrigger, jack, leveling)

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___ is the ideal location to stabilize an aerial apparatus.

p654

level terrain

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selector valve and stabilization controls are typically found on the ____ or ____ ?
p653-654

rear step area or midship

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generally there is one or more set of ___ for the stabilizers and the driver can operate more than ____ at a time.
p654

controls; one

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most common stabilizers used on newer are?

p654

box stabilizers

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box stabilizers are basically two-parts devices?

p654

arm that extends straight out and arm that extends down to the ground

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the stabilizer pads are usually provided by the manufacturer of the apparatus and are usually ?
p655

24x24 inch with a built-in handle

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due to potential for chassis and torque box damage, one stabilizer should never be fully?
p656

activated alone

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the amount the vehicle is to be raised depends on the?

p657

manufacturer’s design

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*repetitive full deployment on one side and then the other in a two-step process can cause ______ to tires/wheels, axles, suspension, torque box and chassis.
p657

cumulative damage

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driver should be sure all stabilizers are in firm contact with ground and bearing weight, some apparatus may have _____ that automatically engage once proper stabilization has been achieved.
p657

safety interlocks

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only deploy fulcrum-type stabilizers in the ___ position or not-at all if obstructions are present.
p657

fully extended

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fulcrum-type stabilizers should be lowered to within a ____ from the ground before placing stabilizer pads.
p657

few inches

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setting the stabilizers on one side of an apparatus shorter than the stabilizer on the other side?
p658

short-jacking

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the load and range of safe movement capabilities significantly decrease if the extension arms are not extended to their?
p658

maximum positions

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when possible a _____ should observe aerial operations when short-jacking is in use.
p658

safety officer

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*waterway operations should be conducted with caution in short-jacking situations, because the nozzle reaction actually transfers weight to the ____ side from which the aerial device is being operated.
p658

opposite

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there are two ways that the truck can be uneven:

p658

laterally(side to side) and longitudinal(end to end)

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correction of lateral unevenness is possible on grades up to?
p658

5% = approximately 3°

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a slope of 5% means that there is a rise in the terrain height of?
p658

5ft for every 100ft of distance

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uneven terrain lower the stabilizers on the ____ side first only until solid contact is made and then lower the stabilizers on the ____ side until truck levels out.
p658

uphill then downhill

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driver must make sure to raise the truck enough to activate the _____ if apparatus is equipped.
p658

interlocks

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in uneven terrain it is preferably to operate the aerial over the _____ side of the apparatus.
p659

uphill

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*when stabilizing the apparatus on any type of grade or uneven surface, beware of possible stabilizer ____, which is very dangerous and may occur on wet, icy, or snowy surfaces or when the controls are not operated smoothly.
p659

slippage

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operating on a ____ grade is a little more challenging than on a ____ grade.
p659

longitudinal; lateral

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if aerial turntable is not level the rungs will not be exactly ___ to the ground generating ______?
p659

parallel; lateral and torsional stresses

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in longitudinal grades operate articulating aerials of the ___ of the vehicle whenever possible.
p660

rear

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*When ____ apparatus is parked on a longitudinal grade outside of the manufacturer’s recommended operating range do not extend/retract over the side of the apparatus.
p660

pre-1991 or non-K-braced

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when the ground is frozen solid and the surface is on an angle, the aerial can move or chatter along the surface due to?
p661

vibration and gravity(avoided by chocking wheels)

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___ or there friction products can assist in stabilizing on icy ground, but avoid ___ because it causes melting.
p661

sand; salt

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on most aerial the combination interlock feature of the selector valve and the hydraulic system holding valves provide ____?
p662

automatic locking capabilities

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apparatus may be equipped with ___ that shows when interlocks are engaged, and a ____ to allow driver to determine if apparatus is raised evenly.
p662

indicator light; site gauge level

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box-type stabilizers commonly have drilled holes for the insertion of ___ that act as an additional safeguard against drop/drift of the jack.
p662

large pins

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transfer from the stabilizer system to the aerial operations system may be?
p663

automatically completed or require movement of switch or control lever

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the stabilization process is ___ in order to prepare the apparatus for departure from the scene.
p663

reversed

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*when the pressure releases from the ____, the apparatus often drops very quickly, so stand clear to avoid being struck by the moving parts or being injured as the apparatus resettles.
p663

stabilization system

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older midship and tractor-drawn aerials are most likely to have ____ stabilizer.
p664d

manual

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manual stabilizers(similar to box-stabilizers) consist of :
p664

extension arm with screw jack attached to the end

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driver must swing the ____ into position manually and then manually turn the _____ attached to the arm to lower the stabilizer.
p664

extension arm; screw jack

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the extension arm is stored ____ to the ground on midship aerials and is a recessed position beneath the _____ portion of the trailer on tractor-drawn aerials.
p664

perpendicular; goose neck

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*if the stabilizer lifts off the pad during operation, do not adjust, because this is normal _______.
p664

load shifting

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operating tractor-drawn(tiller) aerials with angles less than 60° and 61°-90° provide?

less stability

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when attempting to park tillers at angle greater than 90° an alarm may sound, because it provides _____?
p665

poor stability

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best way to angle tiller into position:

p665

place turntable next to target
turn tractor wheels sharply away from target and pull slightly forward
turn tiller wheels toward target and back the truck slightly toward target
set all brakes

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most modern tillered aerials are equipped with stabilization systems that securely stabilize whether it is _____ or not.
p665

jackknifed

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the tiller operator and the tractor trailer should ____ and ___?
p675

interchangeable and cross trained

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it is essential that ____ equipment be available for any personnel who will be climbing the ladder or riding in the platform.
p676

fall protection

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fall protection on aerials include:

p676

handrails(ladder)

railing and gates(platform)

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in addition to fall protection each operator on the device should be equipped with a fall restraint ____ and ____?
p676

ladder belt and tether

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ladder belt and tether should meet the requirements of the ?

p676

nfpa 1983 standar on life safety rope and equipment for emergency services

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personnel must be safely anchored to a structural feature of the ladder/platform:
p676

any time not actively climbing/descending the ladder
any time not actively entering/exiting the platform
any time device is in motion

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fall protection will only be useful if the tether is secured to a portion of the device that will?
p676

support the load imposed by a fall

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climb/descend carefully and maintaining _____ with structural features at all times.
p677

3 points of contacts

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never rotate, elevate, or lower the device with people on the ladder unless they are securely attached to a structural feature with approved?
p677

safety ladder belt and tether

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*fall hazard, when the device is in motion, use _____ on ladders and in the platform.
p677

fall protection

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*never extend or retract the device when people are on the ladder because it creates?
p677

pinch and crush hazards

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safe practices during winch operation:

p678

always stay clear of wire rope during operation
never touch wire rope while in tension/under load
never touch wire rope while some else is on the controls/during operation

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*keep ___ away from wire ropes, pulleys, sheaves, cylinders, and other moving parts.
p678

hands

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driver is fundamentally a “ _____” who must be well trained in the location of each control, its function, how it operates, when it should be used, and the appropriate safety precautions.
p679

“technician”

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standar verbal and hand signals:

p679

raise
lower
rotate clockwise(right)
rotate counter clockwise(left)
extend
retract

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*keep in mind that the use of terms such as “rotate right/left” may be misinterpreted if the ______ is different between the person giving commands and the operator at the controls.
p679

point of view

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drivers must understand the function and operation of all stabilizing power and safety devices, in addition know:
p679

limitations of the apparatus
proper spotting angles
maximum load limits
safe operating practices

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driver must have the skills necessary to solve ____ at the incident and to operate ____ while maintaining visual contact with the aerial and the space within which it is moved.
p679

tactical problems; all controls

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drivers should be trained on each different apparatus he/she is?
p679

expected to drive/operate

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the primary control position for the aerial operator is the?

p680

lower controls usually at turntable

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when working from the primary control position the driver must practice:
p680

be aware of the number, weight, and position of personnel/equipment
monitor the wind, ice, and water flow ensuring not exceed the load chart limitations
maintain comm with personnel at tip/platform
observe and ensure personnel keep well clear of the ladder at all time

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the secondary control position is at the ?

p680

upper(tip) controls or platform basket controls

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performs the final positioning of the aerial during rescue or other fire fighting operations?
p680

secondary control operator

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must observe the aerial operation and prepare to override the secondary control operator if unsafe conditions are encountered?
p680

primary control operator

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operator at the tip of the ladder needs to take the following precautions:
p680

be aware of personnel on ladder section behind them
take care to place feet on the steps at the tip to avoid injury from the moving ladder sections
be belted in position to protect against abrupt or unexpected ladder movements
be aware of impending water flow and monitor/tower reaction
be aware of electrical hazards and other obstructions

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*never place personnel at the tip or platform of the aerial if the operation can be?
p681

accomplished without them being there

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ladders are often rated at _____ as elevation angles increase or when the ladder is not fully extended.
681

higher tip capacities

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graphical or tubular description of the load that can be distributed on an aerial device based on factors such as extension, elevation, stabilizer set-up, wind, water flow, and ice load.
p681

load chart

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load charts on some aerials may have _____ or ____, that can be used to supplement their use during operations.
p682

electronic load monitoring or envelope control systems

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telescoping control devices include:

p682

aerial ladders
aerial ladder platforms
telescoping elevating platforms
telescoping water towers

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*failure to properly stabilize the apparatus could result in?
p682

tipping the apparatus

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elevating the entire assembly from its stored position to the desired angle and useful position by elevating, rotating, extending and lowering?
p682

raising the telescoping aerial device

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some FD instruct drivers against simultaneous aerial device motions per SOPs, but newer apparatus are equipped with controls that are particularly well suited for simultaneous control such as?
p682

“joystick”

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*when approaching the objective or nearing obstructions the driver should use ______ to move the aerial device.
p683

one motion at a time

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because of the forces being generated especially as length increases, all movements must be ?
p683

slow, smooth and controlled(aka feathering)

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overall process of lowering the aerial device is typically the ____ of putting it into position, but give consideration to whether or not the ____ was used and the ____ has been stowed.
p683

reverse; waterway; nozzle

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two types of articulating aerial apparatus each having two or more sections called booms:
p684

water towers and aerial platforms

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is equipped with only a master stream nozzle at the end of the upper boom; it is not intended to lift firefighter or equipment?
p684

water tower

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is equipped with a platform and a master stream nozzle at the end of the upper boom and designed to carry firefighters and equipment?
p684

aerial platform

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raising the articulating aerials is actually a series of motions that include:
p685

elevating
rotating
extending
lowering to the objective

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articulating platforms should be operated?

p685

forward of the turntable

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the operational speed of the aerial device is directly proportional to the amount the control lever is?
p685

pushed or pulled

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drivers of articulating aerials must be concerned with:

p685

elbow joint between booms(knuckle)

working end

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___ is of particular concern when operating at lower elevations because it may be behind, above, or below the position of the operation making visibility of that area more difficult.
p685

knuckle

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joint between two sections of boom in an articulating aerial device?
p685

knuckle

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other apparatus drivers must respect the operating ____ required by the articulating device.
p686

space

elevated water delivery systems are divided into 3 categories:
p686

aerial ladders with piped waterways and water towers
aerial ladders with detachable water ways
elevating platforms

*when using a aerial device as an _____, ensure that all manufacturer recommended procedures for device elevation and loading are carefully followed.
p686

elevated master stream

*all valves and nozzles must be opened and closed is a _____ and ____ manner to minimize shock loading the aerial device.
p686

SLOW and controlled

it is always most desirable to operate the nozzle with ____ if available.
p687

remote controls

are permanently attached nozzle systems that can be operated from either the tip of the aerial or one section(fly) lower?
p687

true pinnable waterways

where the master stream nozzle is at the tip of the aerial?

p687

fire fighting mode

where the nozzle is one aerial section(fly) lower?

p687

rescue mode

one advantage provided by some water tower devices that gives operators a view from the tip is?
p687

video camera(tip) and video monitor(control area) with thermal image capabilities

aerial ladders with _____ waterways present more of an operational challenge than do those with ____ waterways.
p688

detachable; piped

detachable ladder pipes should be operated from the _____ or ____ using ropes that are attached to the nozzle.
p688-689

turntable or ground level

loads that involve motion?

p690

shock loading(dynamic load)

use the 75-80-80 for quick ladder pipe use:

p690

75 degrees of elevation
80% extended length
80 psi NP for 1 1/2 tip

use ladder pipes perpendicular to the rungs on older units with maximum lateral movement of ____ to either side; newer models offer ____ sweep.
p690

15°; 180°

are not designed to enable operations in situations where personnel and equipment may be exposed to radiant heat?
p691

protective water curtains

safest conditions to operate aerial devices:

p691

positioned properly on hard/level surface
moderate wind speed
above-freezing temperatures

take special considerations when operating :

p691

on grades
high wind conditions
clod weather 
exposure to fire effects
aerial device mechanical or power failure

situations in which the floor of the platform and/or knuckle(s) between the booms are not parallel to the ground can result in?
p692

twisting force(torsional stress) on the entire aerial device

*the driver must operate the aerial device within the grade requirements recommended by?
p692

manufacturer

establishes static load requirements that an aerial apparatus must meet when operating on a grade?
p692

nfpa 1901 standard for automotive fire apparatus

keys to operating on a grade:

p692

optimum positioning
proper stabilization of apparatus to counter increased risk
load restrictions for the given grade

wind gusts impose significant _____ against the device, and sustained winds of sufficient force can cause ____ or ____ of the aerial device.
p692

dynamic loads; deformation or twisting

most aerial device manufacturers specify wind speed limitations within which their aerial devices may be?
p692

safely operated

cold weather causes and increased viscosity of the hydraulic oil which?
p693

slows down overall machine operation

less obvious affects of cold weather include physical changes in the properties of the _____ of the device.
p693

metal structural members

due to its weight ice formation of the device :

p693

adversely affect stability
lessens the working load capacity
significantly reduces rescue capabilities

the limit of ice buildup allowed by nfpa 1901 is?

p693

1/4” on all surfaces

common methods of removing ice include:

p694

high pressure steam

liquid thawing agents similar to type used on aircraft

any thawing agents used must be _____ and otherwise _____ to the aerial device and general apparatus components.
p694

noncorrosive; harmless

*in freezing weather conditions keep drain valves?

p694

opened

weight of ice?

p695

1 cubic inch = 0.03 lb

in icy conditions driver should consider the aerial in line with the chassis because?
p695

this is the strongest position

in icy conditions avoid placing aerials in spot where they will be subject to accidental contact with?
p695

fire streams and overspray

slowly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove accumulated ice?
p695

ice shrugging

i shrugging maneuver may not be effective for _____ of ice and the application of de-icing fluid may be necessary.
p695

large accumulations

aerial devices are operated near fires being exposed to superheated air and on rare occasions direct flame contact, therefore drivers should continuously ?
p695

monitor conditions and be prepared to reposition

a foot pedal or valve on the floor of the platform typically operates the?
p696

water-curtain nozzle

heat damage to aerial device may on may not be:

p696

visible

obvious signs of heat damage include:

p696

discoloration
disfiguration
deformed welds
improper operation of aerial device

when heat damage is noted, or even suspected the aerial device must be?
p696

removed from service immediately

before placing apparatus back in service it should be given a thorough operation test in accordance the?
p696

non-destructive testing standards within nfpa 1911 standard for the inspection, maintenance, testing, and retirement of in-service automotive fire apparatus

damaged apparatus should be repaired by?

p696

emergency vehicle technician(EVT)

if any sign of mechanical trouble is present?

p696

remove personnel from aerial device
bed aerial device
immediately take it out of service

high hydraulic oil temperatures can lead to?

p697

premature equipment failure

before activating auxiliary pump, ensure an _______ is positioned to allow for the hydraulic pressure to flow.
p697

aerial control lever

if involved in an incident where damage to or failure of aerial device occurred, the driver may be called upon to provide information about the ?
p697

operating conditions

*do not an aerial position below grade unless the ____ has approved the apparatus for the operation.
p697

manufacturer

the most common scenario that requires below-grade operations by an aerial?
p697

special rescue operations

one type of aerial device that is particularly well suited for below grade rescue operations is the?
p698

three-boom articulating aerial platform

represents the overall plans needed to successfully mitigate an emergency and terminate and incident?
p719

operational strategies

operational strategies will depend on:

p719

pre-fire plans
pre-arrival information
initial size-up
may include: 
-access to upper levels
-rescue applications 
-ventilation
-elevated fire attack
-exposure protection
-aircraft rescue and fire fighting

the actual procedures and actions taken to successfully carry out strategies?
p719

tactics

the use of effective ____ allows for early and correct aerial placement as well as more efficient aerial operations throughout the incident.
p720

communication

aerial devices provide access to?

p721

upper levels(emergency escape, deliver equipment)

apparatus placement should provide the maximum degree of ____ and ___ to the building to the firefighter using the aerial device.
p721

safety and access

when fire conditions do not allow victims to be brought down the interior stairs/exterior fire escapes, it may be necessary to use?
p721

aerial device

driver should position the aerials used for rescue at the corner of the building, two advantages:
p721

reach victims on 2 side

safer on corners if structural collapse occur

for aerial rescues in area threatened by fire, the preferred procedure is to use a _____ to cool and/or protect the aerial device and personnel during rescue operations.
p722

wide-angle fog stream

if victim is to be lifted over the top rail, the driver should position apparatus so that?
p722

the turntable is directly inline with the target

if victim is to enter the platform through a hinged gate then ?
p722

turntable should be positioned a little forward or behind the target

in situations that require aerials for rescue the main objective is?
p722

to reach as many victims/points of egress as possible with a minimum number of aerial movements

victims who are in the greets amount of real or perceived danger should be given the?
p723

highest priority

determining which victims are in the most danger is a judgment call made by?
p723

IC, truck company officer, or aerial driver/operator

typically occupants located on or immediately above the fire floor will be in the?
p723

greatest danger

rescuers should give preference to individuals who are in a ____ and ____ if they do not see that help is imminent.
p723

panicked state and appear ready to jump

involves multiple victims who may be located in different parts of the building?
p723

second priority

when two or more groups of victim appear to be in same amount of danger, priority is give to?
p723

larger group

involves the remainder of people in the fire area in order of the next most threatened by the hazard?
p723

third priority

involves the people in the exposed area, tended to after all in the immediate danger have been removed?
p723

fourth priority

*when rescue is the first priority on the fireground, fire attack may be neglected causing fire to grow and spread, threatening victims?
p724

initially deemed safe

when raising an aerial to a victim the best position is one which the extended and rotated aerial device is ?
p724

perpendicular to the objective

when maneuvering to reach a victim aerial should be initially be aimed ____and then _____ to prevent panicked victim from jumping onto the device.
p725

above the victim and the lowered

once an aerial is in place for a rescue, engaging the ______ is an important step in making the device a rigid structure if so equipped.
p726

extension locks

drivers should always be alert for ____ or ____ when positioning the aerial for rescue to avoid damage to the apparatus.
p726

dangling or falling debris

when rescuing a victim using an aerial ladder, the first rung of tip should be placed even with the?
p726

windowsill

when using a platform for victim rescue, place the top rail of the platform even with?
p727

windowsill

when removing victims from a roof the tip of the aerial ladder should extend above the edge of the roof at least?
p727

6 ft

when removing victims from a roof place the bottom of the platform in relation to edge of the roof should be?
p727

just above and over

if parapet is structurally sound, the roof ladder should rest against the ____ rather than the ____.
p727

parapet; aerial ladder

vertical extension of an exterior wall, and sometimes an interior fire wall, above the roofline of a building?
p727

parapet wall

wire or plastic basket-type litter suitable for transporting patients from locations where the the standard litter would not be easily secured(rubble pile, collapse, roof), may be used with harness for lifting?
p728

stokes basket

may be able to reach over the parapet wall an set the platform down at roof level?
p728

articulating device(three-section, two-knuckle, dual-knuckle- are especially effective at this maneuver)

when moving victims down the ladder with two or more fire fighters?
p728

one assist victim from inside the building while others remain at the tip

capable adults should be guided down the ladder under their own power, with a ____ there to lead the way.
p29

firefighter

small children and adults incapable of climbing down the ladder will have to be?
p729

carried or support

only carry or support victims down a ladder when?

p729

all other means of egress have been ruled out

best method to bring infants and small children down the ladder is to?
p729

cradle in one arm while the other arm is used to assist with balance and stability

desirable method for carrying large adults down a ladder who are conscious is able to control movements but not strong enough?
p730

“knee-sit”

ladder rescue-uniquely useful for unconscious or severely injured victims who cannot assist their own rescue?
p730

across the rails of the ladder

rescuers should only perform this carry with a “safety” firefighter descending just below the firefighter carrying the victim?
p731

over-the-shoulder carry

using aerial platforms to move victims is considerably ____ then backing them down the ladder, but it is ___ and not suited to mass evacuations from a single point.
p731

easier; slower

a potentially severe and damaging dynamic load can be created when victims ___ into the platform.
p732

jumps

firefighter required to remove unconscious victims using platform?
p732

one to lift victim from structure and one to receive inside platform

if victims being removed from a building using a platform and a stokes basket then:
p732

place basket on the floor if it fits or lay across the platform railings and secure it

this tactic should be used as a last resort since it is easier and safer to carry a litter down a stairwell, fire escape, or move it to a safe place of refuge until conditions improve?
p732

lowering a stokes basket using an aerial ladder

*victims jumping onto the aerial device can cause?

p732

catastrophic failure

when lowering a stokes basket by aerial ladder it is easiest two slide the basket down the ladder by:
p734

between the the rails of the aerial (best method)

slide down on top of the handrail perpendicular to ladder

if a rope evolution is used to lower victims the driver must know the _____ of apparatus and all tools involved.
p734-735

limitations

some aerials my be equipped with a ____ that may be used for rescue operations in rope type rescues with limited capacity.
p735

lifting eye

most lifting eyes are intended to be used in ___ (unless a single eye is located in the center) as a single anchor for a single rescue rope only.
p735

pairs

aerials can be used as a high anchor point, with experienced, trained, and authorized personnel, but only as?
p735

last resort

rope and hardware used with the lifting eye(s) should be appropriate for the load being lifted, and comply with?
p735

nfpa 1983 standard on life safety rope and equipment for emergency services

if a rope is passed through a pulley with the working end anchored to the ground, then the load on the device becomes ______ the weight of the load on the running or free end of the rope.
p735

twice(doubles)

it is recommended that FD discourage the use of aerial apparatus(particularly light- and medium-duty) for?
p735

water rescue emergency

first safety issue for apparatus in water rescue incidents is?
p736

lack of suitable location to adequately stabilize the apparatus

another safety issue is if the aerial device make contact with swiftly moving water, because of the
p736

tremendous amount of force water can generate and damage the device or compromise its stability

*anyone working near water must wear a ?

p736

personal flotation device(PFD)

on aerials that have a low-tip load rating when fully extended to a horizontal objective, it is difficult to perform such rescue without dangerously?
p736

overloading the device(weight of ff+victim can exceed)

although ventilation is important it should not monopolize apparatus or manpower that may be needed for ?
p737

rescue operations

proper aerial placement can make ventilation process quicker and safer, if ventilating a flat roof position apparatus?
p737

unburned side as close as possible to area being ventilated(shorter travel distance)

during ventilation operations extend the ladder 6 ft past the edge of the roof for?
p737

better visibility under smoky conditions

when using a platform for ventilation the bottom of the platform should be positioned?
p737

even with or extended slightly over the roof’s edge for easy exiting and entering

resources permitting it is a good idea to ladder the roof from two different side for?
p737

an alternate route of escape

if firefighter cannot safely operate on the roof or if other conditions warrant different approach?
p737

horizontal or cross ventilation can be accomplished with aerial devices

when conducting ventilation operations off aerials the firefighter should be?
p737

secured with a safety belt

if braking windows from aerials the device should be placed _____ and ensure firefighters below the windows stay clear to avoid_____.
p737

slightly above the window and upwind side; falling glass or debris

driver should coordinate all ventilation activities with ____ and in accordance with the IC’s _____?
p738

fire attack; incident action plan

drivers of aerials must be especially familiar with aspects of fire attack related to ______?
p738

aerial master streams

elevated master streams are most commonly used in defensive operations to:
p738

irectly attack the fire
cool embers and gases within the thermal column
protect exposures

safe distancing from collapse, radiant heat, etc., must be balanced with close enough distance to allow the bulk of the fire stream to reach the?
p739

seat of the fire area or exposures being protected

when the IC makes a decision to apply water from aerial master stream the driver need to know:
p739

volume to be delivered
type of stream used
placement of the stream

apparatus should be positioned to give fire stream as much reach into fire are as possible and goal is to place nozzle in lower portion of the window opening to direct stream upward toward the ceiling?
p739

elevated master stream blitz attack

*external master stream attacks pose a serious safety threat to interior fire fighting crews by:
p739

disturbing thermal layers
creating large volume of steam
possibility of being struck by stream
additional water weight can cause collapse if not drained at same rate of application

aerials may be used as master stream closer to ground level if so position apparatus so that?
p739

turntable is directly inline with intended target(window, door, opening)

this type of attack will penetrate the fire area without disturbing thermal layering, will break the stream up when contacts the ceiling, creating a near perfect atmosphere for steam conversion?
p740

master stream aimed at ceiling

both __ and __ nozzles haver their respective space in aerial operations?
p740

solid stream and fog

all nozzles lose some effectiveness when they are not discharging their?
p740

rated flow

provide wider coverage, are able to break up the water to allow better steam conversion, but do not provide reach and penetration?
p740

fog nozzles

provide excellent penetration into fire areas, outside elevated stream provides power to reach seat of the fire while allowing heated gases to vent around the stream, not as affected by wind, but not as effective for rapid steam conversion?
p740

solid streams

trained drivers can tell the effectiveness of the stream by sound?
p741

if its going into the intended opening it will make less sound than if its hitting walls

aerial apparatus can be used to apply _____ of foam, but not practical for discharging _____ because of its high air content.
p741

large quantities of foam; aerated foam

a carefully placed solid or straight stream from the exterior of the building is often referred to as a?
p741

blitz attack

blitz attacks are often conducted when the fire is on upper stories and while firefighters are preparing to ?
p741

enter the building

*ensure that no ___ or ___ are on the fire floor when outside stream is directed into building.
p741

firefighters or victims

the best way to effect a blitz attack with an elevated master stream is to try to?
p741

deflect water off the fire room ceiling

water deflection can be accomplished by placing nozzle even with bottom of the window pointed toward the ceiling allowing water to enter at an angle of?
p741

about 30°

to aggressively attack a fire from the exterior with large diameter fire stream(2 1/2” or larger)?
p741

blitz attack

*water adds weight to the structure at the rate of?

p742

2,000 lbs for every 250gpm

when elevated master streams are used in a blitz attack they should only be flowed long enough to?
p742

darken down the fire

exterior fire attack that is limited to controlling the spread of a fire with emphasis on exposure protection?
p742

defensive attack

the objective of a defensive attack is to?

p742

contain fire within a specified area

indicators of potential defensive attack are:

p742

fire or building conditions prohibit safely advancing hoselines in the building
the IC opts to sacrifice part of the building to the fire
large amounts of water needed to extinguish the fire(common attics, multiple apartments, etc.)

fire conditions will dictate what kind of stream to use, but most commonly ______ will be required to reach the seat of the fire in defensive attacks.
p742

solid or straight stream

when trying to stop fire spread through a single building, care should be taken no to ?
p743

push fire to uninvolved areas; position apparatus on unburned side of the building

using an aerial as a _____ to upper floors by connecting interior hand lines to a gated outlet on the hose can eliminated difficult hose lays up interior stairwells.
p744

exterior standpipe

using exterior standpipe can be effective for:

p744

fires at parking garages
fires of building roofs
fires on bridges and overpasses
fires in buildings under construction where standpipe system is not available

aerials devices provide outlets for hand lines , but adding pre connected hand lines?
p744

reduces the amount of weight that can be added to the platform

using the aerial as an elevated standpipe, commits the ladder/platform to?
p744

single position

structure or separate part of the of the fireground to which the fire spread(carport, automobile, or stack of hay)?
p744

exposure

fires spread to exposures by:

p744

conduction
convection
radiation

conditions that may affect exposure hazards include:

p744

weather
fuel
topography
building construction
spacing between the fire building and exposure
intensity of fire

___ enhances the effects of radiated and convection heat transfer, and fast moving burning embers.
p745

wind

if wind is blowing toward/away from the exposure the chance of fire spreading?
p745

increases/decreases but not eliminated

in severe fire conditions, the fire itself can create it own wind conditions in the form of more rapid?
p745

convection currents

type of construction such as combustible elements(wood or plastic siding, wooden window frames, curtains, blinds, carpet) and the proximity to fire affect the chance of?
p745

exposure catching fire

the apparatus itself must be considered an ____ and may even be the most expensive on scene

exposure hazard

because ____ heat is transmitted through water directing a stream between fire and exposure is not enough.
p746

radiated

protection from convective fire spread can be done by applying a?
p746

large fog stream into the thermal column

when resources are limited it may be necessary to use the master strew for both?
p746

fight the fire and protect the exposure

using two nozzles from an aerial platform is dependent upon?

p746

availability of water
required flow
number firefighters available to monitor the application

if fire is large enough it can create exposure problems, apparatus assigned to protect exposures can?
p747

become exposures themselves

in the event that fire conditions worsen and exposure protection operations must be abandoned, the should always be a?
p747

straight forward exit route

when using sweep patterns the stream should not be rotated beyond the safe limits required by?
p748

the manufacturer

fog streams may not work due to:

p748

high wind conditions
excessive distance between the nozzle and exposure
extensive heat from the fire evaporating the stream prior to contact with target area

first option for rescuing victims at aircraft incidents?

p748

all larger commercial passenger aircraft and some military aircraft are equipped with chutes or slide at exit door openings

second best option for rescuing victims at aircraft incidents?
p748

set portable stair at the exit doors of aircraft

the surface of aircraft wing can be slippery under dry weather conditions, it cane treacherous with the presence of?
p748

water, ice, or fuel

in aircraft incidents, aerial should not be used to?

p749

stabilize the aircraft or lower it from its resting point

if aircraft is in contact with electric lines, the driver should not elevate the aerial to the aircraft until the utility company can verify that the lines have been?
p749

de-energized

the NIOSH line-of-duty-death(LODD) report recommended that fire departments take the following as actions(NIOSH, 2009):
A-5

provide replacement and annual medical evaluation (nfpa 1582)
incorporate exercise stress tests, following standard medical guidelines, into fire department medical evaluation programs
phase in a comprehensive wellness and fitness program for firefighters(nfpa 1853)
perform annual physical evaluations consistent(nfpa 1500)
require fire fighters to receive medical clearance to wear self-contained breathing apparatus as part of the fire department’s medical evaluation program

*over time the fire service culture has continuously changed due to:
A-6

new information
technology
shared knowledge and experience

usually mandates the fire service mission?

A-6

authority having jurisdiction(AHJ)

the fire service’s mission is to?

A-6

save lives, protect property and the environment from fires and other hazardous situations

a coordinated approach to a wide variety of incidents ?

A-6

all-hazard approach

to fulfill the stated goals and objectives of our department’s mission statement, which are part of the department’s rules and regulations?
A-7

firefighter’s role

AHJ is responsible for how fire service is organized including:
A-7

type of department
number of facilities and their locations
types and number of apparatus
number of personnel
organizational hierarchy
functions and responsibilities for specific jobs and ranks
minimum training/certification level requirements to attain those ranks

establish the foundation for how the organization will function and operate to achieve its mission(s)?
A-8

an organization’s structure and principles

the most common fire department organizational structure is _____, defined as having an uninterrupted series of steps.
A-8

scalar

order of rank and authority in the fire and emergency services; the formal line of authority, responsibility, and communication within an organization?
A-9

chain of command

organizational principle in which workers report to only one supervisor in order to eliminate conflicting orders?
A-9

unity of command

maximum number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise; 3-7 with 5 being optimum
A-9

span of control

organizations responsibility to provide leadership, and an individual’s responsibility to follow orders?
A-9

discipline

dividing large jobs into smaller jobs to make them more manageable, to equalize workloads, and increase efficiency?
A-9

division of labor

division of labor in the fire service is necessary:

A-10

to assign responsibility
to assign specific and clear-cut tasks
to prevent duplication of efforts

fire and emergency services organizations can be ___ or ___; with most in north america being ____?
A-10

public or private; public

public fire service organizations are funded by?

A-10

the community(municipality, county, district, or other area as defined by AHJ) through taxes(state/provincial and federal), fees, grants, fundraisers, donations, and contracts

private fire organizations raise money through?

A-10

contracts, billing services, and revenue provided by their parent organization

firefighters may work for a variety of different types of departments typically categorized as:
A-10

career, volunteer, or combination

most large cities and some counties maintain the department’s facilities/equipment, employ full-time, career firefighters and other personnel; departments that serve military installations and private industrial sites?
A-10

career departments

full-time career departments are continually staffed which means?
A-11

there is always someone on duty and emergency responders must live in fire stations

may be overseen by local government, or independent and governed by a board of directors; many are not continually staffed?
A-11

volunteer departments

fire departments that are not continuously staffed means?

A-11

volunteers respond to the emergencies from wherever they are

some volunteer fire departments, the town or county provide the facility for station, purchase equipment and pays for the maintenance, this is considered?
A-11

publicly funded

some volunteer fire departments rely on other funding source or raise money through:
A-11

subscription fees
fund-raising events
and billing customers(emergency response cost and replacement materials cost)

staffed by a mixture of career and volunteer firefighters, federal departments may contain government and civilians?
A-11

combination departments( canada-composite dept.)

the basic unit of fire fighting operations consisting of an apparatus, firefighters, and is led by a company officer?
A-11

company

multiple companies within a response area are grouped into?

A-11

battalion or response district

FD organizational subdivision consisting of several fire companies in a designated geographic area; usually the first organizational level above companies/stations?
A-11

battalion

geographical area to which a particular apparatus is assigned to be first due on a fire/ other emergency?
A-11

response district

in large departments most companies are specialized but in smaller departments a single company performs all the functions:
A-11

structural fire fighting
rescue
EMS

assigned to a pumping apparatus-performs fire suppression duties, search and rescue, extrication, ventilation, and ems?
A-11

engine company

performs forcible entry, search and rescue, ventilation, salvage, overhaul, and utilities; provides access to upper floors, elevated water streams, extrication, and ems?
A-11

truck(ladder) company

searches for and removes victims from areas of danger or entrapment, technical rescues, and RIC/RIT?
A-11

rescue company

extinguishes ground cover or grass fires and protects structures in areas close to fields and woodlands?
A-12

brush company

mitigates hazardous materials incidents?

A-12

hazardous materials company

provides emergency medical care to patients and may transport them to medical facility?
A-12

emergency medical/ambulance company

performs rescue and fire suppression activities involving aircraft incidents?
A-12

aircraft rescue and fire fighting(ARFF) company

to cause to become less harsh or hostile; to make less severe, intense or painful; to alleviate?
A-12

mitigate

the different staffing classifications are based on?

A-12

whether or not firefighters are paid and how often they work

personnel who provide emergency services to external customers(public)?
A-12

line personnel

personnel who provide administrative and logistical support to line units(internal customers)?
A-12

staff personnel

clarify expectations, delegate authority, and assign responsibility based on the organizations’ structure and mission?
A-12

written regulations

departmental regulations consist of?

A-12

policies and procedures

the FD and its employees are also governed by?

A-12

municipal ordinances, state/provincial and federal laws, and the codes and standards of adopted by the AHJ

it is ____ responsibility to learn and adhere to the department’s regulations.
A-12

firefighter(yours)

to provide access to regulations organizations may:

A-12-13

distribute them in written or electronic format
communicate them verbally to all members
port them in a conspicuous place in all facilities

a guide to decision-making within an organization?

A-13

policy

determined by top management, and then distributed to lower ranks to be implemented; set boundaries and establish standards of conduct that an organization expects from its members?
A-13

policies

most policies involve written criteria, but some remain unwritten and are known as?
A-13

organizational norms or past practices

unwritten policies are common when no clear policy exists, or policies are out of date in either case organizations must?
A-13

create clear written policies

detailed written plans that list the specific steps for approaching a recurring problem or situation?
A-13

procedures

enable all members to perform specific tasks to the required standard?
A-13

standard operating procedures(SOPs)

similar to SOPs but may allow firefighters some leeway in particular situations, whereas SOPs are hard and fast rules?
A-13

standard operating guidelines(SOGs)

the US government mandated that all emergency services organizations use common terminology and command structures to improve the interoperability, created as a result?
A-14

the national incident management system-incident commas system(NIMS-ICS)

NIMS-ICS involves 6 major organizational functions:

A-14

command
operations
planning 
logistics 
financial
intelligence

emergency medical services and local hospitals?

A-14

provide complete medical services
compliment the services provided by FD

provide direct assistance to units at an emergency incident by radio comm. or dispatching medical professional

emergency/disaster management

A-14

manage emergency and disaster response by coordinating multi-agency activities(local, state/provincial, or federal)

assist with incident scene security, traffic/crowd control, firefighter protection, fire investigation, and explosives disposal?
A-14

law enforcement

assist by shutting off natural gas line, electricity or public water mains; oversee public roads, buildings, sewers, and either may manage/test hydrants?
A-14

utility companies and public works

can inform the public about emergencies and fire and life safety topics/initiatives?
A-14

media

must transport other responders to the scene and supply water the firefighters need to protect themselves and victims?
A-15

driver/operator

specific emergency and nonemergency duties of a driver/operator as required in nfpa 1002 include:
A-15

inspect, test, and perform basic maintenance
drive apparatus safely
maneuver apparatus(backing, spotting,etc.)
operate all fixed systems on apparatus(pump, aerial)
supply water for effective streams(hose, master, foam)
supply water to supplement standpipe/sprinklers

highest health risk factor to firefighters is sudden ______ as a result of overexertion, poor health habits, or occupational stress.
A-15

cardiac arrest

firefighter are often injured or killed in ____ while responding/returning to/from emergencies.
A-15

motor vehicle accidents

publish annual statistics, information, investigations and recommendations about firefighter fatalities and injuries:
A-15-16

national fire protection association(NFPA)
united states fire administration(USFA
national institute for occupational safety and health(NIOSH)
occupational safety and health administration(OSHA)
national near-miss reporting system
national institute of standards and technology(NIST)

the nonprofit national fallen firefighters foundation(NFFF) was created by?
A-17

congress 1992

NFFF mission is?

A-17

“to honor and remember america’s fallen fire heroes, to provide resources to assist their survivors in rebuilding their live, and work within the fire service community to reduce firefighter death and injuries.”

in 2004 NFFF developed _____ to provide the fire service with a blueprint for making changes.
A-17

the 16 firefighter life safety initiatives also known as “everyone goes home”

the international association of fire chiefs(IAFC) initiated a ______ in 2005, to focus on firefighter safety.
A-18

firefighter safety stand-down(3rd week of june)

the shared assumptions, beliefs, and values of a group or organization?
A-18

culture

specifies the minimum requirements for a FD safety and health program?
A-18

nfpa 1500 standard on fire department occupational safety and health program

any department/jurisdiction is free to ____ the standard’s requirements because it a minimum standard.
A-18

exceed

the department safety and health program must address all anticipated hazards to which members might be exposed:
A-19

hazardous material releases
communicable diseases
energized electrical equipment
driving/riding in apparatus during emergency responses
nonemergency issues(substance abuse on/off duty)
other hazards associated with fire fighting

nfpa 1500 outlines requirements of fire department training programs in order to prevent:
A-19

occupational illness, injuries, and fatalities

initial training for new recruits to become proficient in firefighter duties and a process for evaluating firefighter skill and knowledge must meet the requirements of?
A-19

nfpa 1000 series of professional qualification(ProQual)

while it is important to train in conditions that are close to actual emergencies, it is unacceptable for training to result in?
A-19

injuries or fatalities

operation of fire and emergency services training covering aspects of fire fighting?
A-19

training evolution

maintaining personnel safety during training evolutions includes:
A-19-20

using appropriate PPE
maintaining situational awareness
healthy/good physical condition
adhering to all safety regulations
maintaining PPE and training equipment

establishes safety requirements for all uses of fire department apparatus?
A-20

nfpa 1500

nfpa requires all personnel operating in an IDLH/hazardous area to be fully equipped with:
A-20

personal protective clothing and equipment(PPE) including self-contained breathing apparatus(SCBA)

description of any atmosphere that poses an immediate hazard to life or produces irreversible, debilitating effects on health?
A-20

immediately dangerous to life and health

nfpa 1500 requires that emergency operations be managed through and incident management system(IMS)/incident command system(ICS) and must include?
A-21

risk management plan and personnel accountability system

nfpa 1500 limits emergency operations to those that can safely conducted personnel on scene and must include:
A-21

RIC, rehabilitation facilities, and postincident analysis

nfpa 1500 stes minimum design requirements for FD facilities and are designed and constructed in compliance with?
A-21

nfpa 101 life safety code

likelihood of suffering harm from a hazard or exposure to hazard; potential for failure or loss?
A-21

risk

written plan that identifies and analyzes the exposure to hazards, selects appropriate risk management techniques to handle exposures, implements those techniques, and monitors the results?
A-21

risk-management plan

allowing firefighters or resources to rest, hydrate, and recover during an incident; also refers to the station at an incident where personnel can rest, rehydrate, and recover?
A-21

rehabilitation

overview and critique of an incident by members of all responding agencies, including dispatchers; typically takes place within two weeks of the incident?
A-21

postincident analysis

firefighter injuries can be prevented by:

A-24

providing effective training
maintaining company discipline and accountability
following established safety related SOPs
using PPE
maintaining high levels of physical fitness
following risk management guidelines
using rehab facilities at emergency incidents

sharp or severe; having a rapid onset and short duration?

A-24

acute

long-term and reoccurring?

A-24

chronic

chemicals found in smoke that contribute to COPD:

A-25

carbon monoxide
sulfur dioxide
hydrogen chloride
phosgene
nitrogen oxides
aldehydes
particulates

condition, substance, or device that can directly cause injury or loss; the source of a risk?
A-25

hazard

term used for several diseases that result in obstructive problems in the airways?
A-25

chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder(COPD)

cancer-producing substance?

A-26

carcinogen

increased rates of absorption(temperature) combined with increased amounts of toxic chemicals(fires) mean firefighters are more likely to be?
A-26

contaminated

absorption rates increase ____ percent for every ___ degree of rise in temperature?
A-26

400%; 5°

body areas with high absorption rates include:

A-26

groin(highest)
jaw
forehead
back

firefighters are at risk of contracting 4 types of cancer:

A-26

testicular
prostate
non-hdgkin’s lymphoma
multiple myeloma(bone marrow)

intention is to limit exposures, to document any exposure that occurred, and to provide access to the correct treatment options for firefighter who are exposed to illness or chemicals?
A-27

infection and exposure control programs

comprehensive method of infection control in which every patient is assumed to be infected; poe is worn to prevent exposure to bodily fluids and bloodborne/airborne pathogens?
A-27

body substance isolation(BSI)

offers easily accessible, confidential assistance with personal problems that can affect job performance?
A-27-28

member assistance programs (MAP)(nfpa 1500 chap11)

*consuming drugs and alcohol can slow reaction times and impair judgement, the substance and firefighting?
A-28

do not mix

method of dealing with atypical stressful events?

A-31

critical incident stress management(CISM)

recent researched referenced in nfpa standards have revealed that _____ is not as effective as once thought and may make situations worse.
A-31

CISD

debriefing having a counsel come in to speak with personnel and encourage them to speak about their experiences?
A-31

critical incident stress debriefing(CISD)

term used to describe incidents that have a likelihood of causing critical incident stress?
A-31

atypically stressful event

disorder caused when persons have been exposed to a traumatic event in which they have experienced, witnessed, or been confronted with an event(s) that involve death, threatened death, serious injury, or the threat of physical injury to self or others?
A-31

post-traumatic stress disorder

general term used for the equipment worn by fire and emergency services responders?
A-31

personal protective equipment(PPE)

*always wear the correct ____ that is designed to protect you from the specific type of hazard(s) presented by the incident.
A-31

PPE

protective hoods are typically made of:

A-32

nomex
kevlar
pbi

station work uniforms provide two functions:

A-32

identifies member of organization

provides a layer of protect against direct flame contact

non-fire-resistant synthetic materials:

A-32

nylon
polyester
iron-on patches
transfer decals

all station work uniforms should meet?

A-33

nfpa 1975 standard on emergency services work clothing elements

garments addressed in nfpa 1975 include:

A-33

trousers, shirts, jackets, and coveralls, but not underwear( 100% cotton recommended)

usually have steel-toes, puncture resistance soles, or special inserts?
A-33

safety shoes or boots

all ppe designed for structural and proximity fire fighting must meet the requirements of?
A-33

nfpa 1971 standard on protective ensembles for structural fire fighting and proximity fire fighting

*unauthorized alteration of your ____ may expose you to fire scene hazards and endanger your life; may affect the worker’s compensation benefits provided to you by you jurisdiction.
A-35

PPE

the lower the heat transfer rate, the longer the PPE will protect you and stay within tolerable limits, usual temperature limit is?
A-35

above 400℉(200℃)

safety glasses standards?

A-38

ANSI or CSA

protective coats/trousers made of three components ?

A-39

outer shell
moisture barrier
thermal barrier

strips of reflective trim on the torso and sleeves that make the coat more visible at night/low light conditions?
A-40

retroreflective trim

harness and hand loop at the back of the neck that enables a rescuer to grab and drag a downed ff?
A-40

drag rescue device(DRD)

use hearing protection anytime exposed to noise levels exceeding legal noise?
A-43

US 90 decibels(Canada 85)

the best protection when operating on roadways is?

A-45

to be visible to motorists and to work behind a barrier formed by you apparatus

US DOT regulations require all personnel at roadway incidents to wear _____ and should be minimum rated _____?
A-45

high-visibility vests; ANSI 107 class 2/3

make sure that the overlap between coat and trousers when bent at 90 degrees is at minimum?
A-46

2 inches

*burns are a result of time and temperature:

A-47

first degree starts when skin reaches 118℉
second degree 131℉
third degree 152℉

ff is responsible for inspection, cleaning, and condition of poe, instruction can be found:
A-47

SOPs
manufacturer’s
nfpa 1851

person trained in advanced inspection requirements should perform PPE an annual inspection?
A-48

health and safety officer(HSO)

*only personnel who are ___ and ___ to repair PPE should be allowed to conduct repairs.
A-48

trained and certified

amount and type of contamination determine the type of cleaning, nfpa 1851 defines 4 types:
A-48

routine
advanced
specialized
contract

PPE not removed from service, brush off loose debris, gently rinse off debris and soil, clean manually in a utility sink to remove heavy soil?
A-48-49

routine cleaning

performed by personnel trained in care and cleaning of PPE using a dedicated washing machine designed to handle heavy load?
A-49

advanced cleaning

PPE is contaminated with hazardous materials or body fluids that can’t be removed by advanced cleaning, done by trained department member/outside contractor?
A-49

specialized cleaning

removes accumulated grime or contaminants, manufacturer, manufacturer’s representative, or certified member?
A-50

contract cleaning

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