driver's book simple 2 Flashcards
in many cases apparatus placement procedure should be developed during?
p610
pre-incident planning
during pre-incident planning give special consideration to aerials in terms of:
p610
access to various portions of the occupancy
overhead obstructions
any other factors that influence apparatus functions
area beneath a wall in which the wall is likely to land if it loses structural integrity?
p610
collapse zone
apparatus placement of pumpers and aerial(100 ft reach) if building is less than 5 stories(60 ft):
p611
pumper closest to building/aerial outside of pumper
apparatus placement of pumpers and aerial if building is greater than 5 stories(60 ft):
p611
aerial closest to building/pumper outside of pumper
FD should develop SOPs and pre-incident plans and all personnel must be trained to follow SOPs on?
p612
every response
for any given situation the proper distance between objective and aerial is the distance that affords the:
p612
maximum stability
best climbing angle
adequate extension
long extensions a ___ ___ place the maximum amount of stress on the aerial/reduce its load carrying capacity?
p612
low angles
older trucks typically built before ___ should not be used at low elevations and long extensions.
p613
1991
positioning the apparatus in a location that provides the utmost efficiency for operating on the fireground?
p613
spotting
apparatus should be parked on soft surfaces?
p614
as a last alternative
supplied with the apparatus and are to be used whenever the stabilizers are deployed?
p614
stabilizer pads
unattached flat metal plate that is larger in area than the stabilizer foot, placed under the foot to provide better weight distribution?
p614
stabilizer foot( jack pad/plate)
ground above underground vaults such as underground parking structures, utility chases, drainage culverts, basements that extend under sidewalks, or underground transportation systems?
p615
vaulted surfaces
in cold whether avoid parking the apparatus and deploying aerial on?
p615
snowy or icy surfaces
primary spotting consideration associated with hot weather is that extreme heat tend to weaken marginal or otherwise firm?
p615
paved surfaces
visual indicators of a compromised asphalt surface due to extreme heat is?
p615
when the asphalt “bleeds” creating a shiny glass like surface
grade position aerial with rear tires off the ground, the truck has less resistance to sliding downhill, and rear compartments will be hard to reach?
p615
front of the apparatus uphill
grade position easier to reach the ground at the rear, front tires lifted of the ground causing the frame rails to sag and making device more difficult to stow?
p615
rear of apparatus uphill
moderate to high winds impose a ____ load on the aerial and may reduce the over all stability by forcing movement for which the apparatus was not designed.
p616
dynamic
loads the involve motion(wind, moving vehicles, earthquakes, vibration, or falling object)?
p616
dynamic load(shock loading)
movement by the wind also _____ the other loads placed on the device by personnel or equipment.
p616
magnifies
when operating in high wind conditions spot the apparatus so that?
p616
minimizes extension needed
aerial device over the front/rear of apparatus and parallel to the wind
manufacturer have predetermined ____ wind speed recommendation for safe operation and may/may not be indicated in load chart.
p616
maximum
avoid spotting the aerial in a position that will require a lot of maneuvering around?
p616
ground or overhead obstructions
the ground around a downed power line or charged vehicle becomes charge in ?
p616
concentric circles with varying voltage potential
aerial drivers must continually be aware of overhead ___ ___ and exercised caution around other types of overhead lines such as ____ and ___?
p617
power lines; telephone and cable tv lines
parts of or vehicle do not need to touch the ___ ___ for it to become energized, electricity will arc across a gap as large as ____?
p617
power line; 10ft
10 ft of clearance between the aerial device and overhead high-voltage lines energized from ___ to ___; and 50 ft of clearance for high-voltage transmission lines over ____?
p617
600-50,000 volts; >50,000 volts
new OSHA standard for construction industry requires ___ between device and overhead lines of less the 350 kilovolts and ___ for lines over 350 kilovolts.
p617
20ft; 50ft
vehicle contacts or is energized by power line un less there is a fire it is ____ to stay in the vehicle.
p618
safer
if it is necessary to exit an energized vehicle to reduce the risk of electrocution?
p618
jump clear off maintaining balance or fall forward
feet together and hop or shuffle upwards of 150ft
- do not raise booms or ladders into power lines, look up and use ___ to search for power lines in the dark.
p618
lights
*do not step off a ___ vehicle, because touching it while standing on the ground you may be injured or killed?
p619
charged/energized
apparatus in most stable when the aerial is operated?
p619
longitudinal axis(apparatus body)= directly over the front or rear
the least stable position for operating an aerial is?
p619
perpendicular angle to the apparatus
backing in the apparatus is the preferred method as this maximizes the reach of?
p620
rear-mounted aerials
nosing in the apparatus maximizes the reach of?
p620
midship-mounted aerials
tillered aerial apparatus may be positioned to increase stability by ___ the apparatus.
p620
jackknifing
condition of truck tractor/ semitrailer combination when their positions to each other form an of 90 degrees or less?
p620
jackknifing
greatest stability occurs when jackknifing to an angle of ____ from in-line and the aerial device is extended ____?
p620
60°; away from this angle
good stability occurs at angles up to ___, and beyond that stability?
p620
90°; decreases rapidly
factors that work against the aerial device’s strength?
p621
stresses
stress is imposed in both ___ and ___ operation.
p621
static(rest) and dynamic(motion)
stress tends to be greater when the aerial device is in?
p621
motion
stress in aerial devices is increased when the ladder rungs are operated ____ to the ground or when parked on an ____ and operated off the side.
p622
parallel;incline
when an apparatus must operate off an incline driver can reduce stresses by spotting the turntable _____ from the point of operation.
p6212
downhill
if truck has only two jacks then the direction in which it can be stabilized on a grade is limited and need to face?
p622
uphill
another spotting considerations whether aerial is designed to be operated?
p622
unsupported at the tip(cantilever) or supported(resting on a wall)
the maximum loading for any unsupported aerial device occurs when operated at angles between ____ and ___ horizontal.
p622
70° and 80°
extension affects aerial device stress, as extension increases aerial loading must?
p622
decrease
aerials operating low angle of elevation and long extension are at their?
p622
weakest
driver must be familiar with the load limitations of the aerial device when?
p623
flowing and not flowing water
how an apparatus approaches the incident and positions at the scene will significantly affect its ability to?
p623
conduct emergency operations
as a driver always consider locating a suitable?
p625
water supply
it may be necessary to stretch hoselines or use an aerial device from ____/____to get water to the level of the highway.
p625
overpass/underpass
some of the most dangerous scenarios faced by firefighters are operations on:
p625
highways
interstates
turnpikes
other busy roadways
*all individuals operating on scene of highway incidents must wear an approved?
p625
reflective safety vest
*on high-speed roadways, apparatus should not be driven against traffic unless the road has been ____ by law enforcement officials.
p626
cleared
*to maintain scene safety a driver should never shut down _____ while on the scene of a roadway incident.
p626
all warning lights
always treat railroad tracks as _____ and keep apparatus at least ____ away from tracks ?
p627
active; 25ft
*never park apparatus on?
p627
railroad tracks
park the apparatus on the ____ side of the tracks as the incident?
p627
same
if it is absolutely necessary to raise aerial across railroad track confirm with the railroad company that train traffic has been ___ and keep device at least ___ above the level of rails as precaution.
p627
halted; 25ft
conditions of the road or ground surface near railroad tracks are often?
p627
unstable
in emergency medical incidents the ___ should be given the best position with other apparatus positioned around.
p628
ambulance
during structural incident response positioning is determined based on ?
p629
building height and condition rescue ventilation elevated master stream intensity of fire fire's potential growth
during incidents avoid making the apparatus an ___ itself, because in many cases it is the most ___?
p629
exposure hazard; expensive
*platforms have torn from the ends of aerial devices by falling parapet walls, balconies, and fire escapes so ____ must be constantly monitored and evaluated during operations.
p631
building stability
indicators of unstable buildings:
p631
bulging walls sagging roofs large exterior cracks falling bricks, blocks or mortar(limestone) interior collapse
*if the fire building is known to be in poor repair, the aerial should not be used in a ?
p631
supported position(touching the building)
emergencies involving hazardous materials may occur:
p631
transportation setting or fixed facility
when responding to hazmat incidents:
p631-632
wind speed/direction
upwind/uphill
distance
exposure to high levels of heat(flammable)
avoid manholes/storm drains(fuels run under)
material may be corrosive
on all vehicle related responses consider the possibility of the involvement of?
p632
hazardous materials
aerials respond to incidents involving aircraft for a number of reasons such as:
extrication equipment
rescuing victims
access to large frame aircrafts
three basic types of aircraft incidents to which aerials may respond:
p632
involving extrication
involving extrication complicated by fire
non-incident related aircraft fires
driver should be familiar with the procedures for ___ and ___ at an aircraft emergency.
p632
approaching and positioning
*do not position near ___ or designated danger zones around jet engines.
p633
running jet engines
there are ___ tactical uses for aerials at the scene of aircraft incidents, and are more likely to be useful at ___________.
p633
few; non-accident-related fires involving large-frame aircraft
in aircraft incidents aerials may be used:
p633
ventilation
passenger rescue
deploy handlines to interior of aircraft
master stream applications
when placing aerial device for passenger rescue on aircraft:
p633
doorway=building window
over a wing= building roof
avoid spotting apparatus in a position that hinders the deployment of the aircraft _____?
p634
emergency slide(door openings and rear of wings near emergency windows)
*do not position the apparatus where an aircraft is expected to ?
p634
land or stop
aerial apparatus are frequently used to provide ___ at fires involving large storage tanks or fuel/chemical processing facilities.
p634
elevated master streams
at storage tank fire never spot the apparatus ___ the dike that surrounds the affected tank(s).
p634
inside
positioning an apparatus for fire attack/esposures in processing facilities/refineries can be extremely challenging:
p634
narrow driveways
dead-end accesses
overhead obstructions
proper positioning of aerial at the scene of a technical rescue operation depends on whether the apparatus is used for?
p634
mitigation of incident or support role
aerials may be a necessary component too complete a rescue operation in circumstances such as:
p634
below grade or high angle
the apparatus _____ _____ is perhaps the most critical aspect of preparing an aerial for use.
p641
stabilization process
it is necessary to ____/____ the base of the chassis beyond the span of wheels so that it resists the tendency to overturn when the aerial is extended over the side of the apparatus.
p642
broaden/widen
when parked with the aerial device in stowed position the apparatus has a center of located somewhere along the?
p642
longitudinal midline of the chassis between the front and rear axles
by deploying the apparatus stabilizers, the base of stability for the aerial is effectively _____?
p642
increased
rotating the device 360 degrees will trace a _____, as long as it does not extend outside of the base of stability the apparatus should remain stable.
p642
gravity circle
theoretical safety zone that surrounds the center of gravity on an aerial apparatus?
p642
gravity circle
if apparatus is parked on a grade the center of gravity will be shifted to the _____ side.
p643
lower
_____ loading on the aerial device will result in an expansion of the gravity circle.
p644
excessive
required to prevent the apparatus from tipping as the aerial device is extended away from the centerline of the chassis?
p644
stabilizers(outriggers, ground/screw jacks)
straight jacks that extend down from the chassis?
p644
post-type stabilizers(downriggers)
stabilizers that extend straight away from the truck and have jacks that extend straight down to the ground?
p644
box stabilizers(H-stabilizers)
stabilizers that extend down and away from the chassis at an angle?
p644
A-frame, scissor, or X-style stabilizer(fulcrum-type)
to deploy stabilizers and aerial device have to engage the _____, to do so the driver will have to activate the ____ or other specialized hydraulic system.
p644
aerial hydraulic system; power take-off(PTO)
PTO activations switch varies:
p645
pneumatic
electric
hydraulic
combination of the 3
pneumatic PTO activation systems air pressure requirements?
p645
50-140 psi
procedures for engaging/disengaging PTOs on aerial apparatus depend upon type of ____ and whether or not the apparatus is equipped with a _____?
p646
transmission; fire pump
found in most new apparatus, gives the driver the ability to engage the PTO system while transmission is in neutral?
p646
“hot-shift” PTO systems
it is necessary to lower _____ speed to near idle prior to engaging the hydraulic system PTO or other device.
p646
engine(pump)
before deployment of the stabilizers make the following observations:
p651
activate front brake lock
PTO engagement light is on
chock the wheels
wheels should have chocks placed ___ and ___ the tire with approximately ____ of extra space so chocks don’t get stuck.
p651
front and back; 1 inch
anticipate the expected travel path of stabilizers and be observant of obstructions:
p652
vehicles utility poles hoselines fences signs personnel on scene
when possible a ____ should assists the driver with positioning the apparatus to help avoid curbs, manholes, vehicles, and so forth.
p652
spotter
move the following objects, ensuring the stabilizer shoe contact areas are as stable as possible:
p652
large rocks fire hose tools underground utility access covers broken pavement
flat metal plate attached to the bottom of the aerial apparatus stabilizer to provide firm footing on the stabilizing surface?
p652
stabilizer shoe(boot/foot)
*avoid placing stabilizers over:
p653
drainage areas
underground tanks/vaults
utility access zones
once the driver is assured preliminary activities on fireground are completed and is prepared for stabilization activities, operate the _____ to provide hydraulic power to stabilizing system.
p653
selector valve
driver should make certain the selector valve control is in the _____ position?
p653
stabilization(outrigger, jack, leveling)
___ is the ideal location to stabilize an aerial apparatus.
p654
level terrain
selector valve and stabilization controls are typically found on the ____ or ____ ?
p653-654
rear step area or midship
generally there is one or more set of ___ for the stabilizers and the driver can operate more than ____ at a time.
p654
controls; one
most common stabilizers used on newer are?
p654
box stabilizers
box stabilizers are basically two-parts devices?
p654
arm that extends straight out and arm that extends down to the ground
the stabilizer pads are usually provided by the manufacturer of the apparatus and are usually ?
p655
24x24 inch with a built-in handle
due to potential for chassis and torque box damage, one stabilizer should never be fully?
p656
activated alone
the amount the vehicle is to be raised depends on the?
p657
manufacturer’s design
*repetitive full deployment on one side and then the other in a two-step process can cause ______ to tires/wheels, axles, suspension, torque box and chassis.
p657
cumulative damage
driver should be sure all stabilizers are in firm contact with ground and bearing weight, some apparatus may have _____ that automatically engage once proper stabilization has been achieved.
p657
safety interlocks
only deploy fulcrum-type stabilizers in the ___ position or not-at all if obstructions are present.
p657
fully extended
fulcrum-type stabilizers should be lowered to within a ____ from the ground before placing stabilizer pads.
p657
few inches
setting the stabilizers on one side of an apparatus shorter than the stabilizer on the other side?
p658
short-jacking
the load and range of safe movement capabilities significantly decrease if the extension arms are not extended to their?
p658
maximum positions
when possible a _____ should observe aerial operations when short-jacking is in use.
p658
safety officer
*waterway operations should be conducted with caution in short-jacking situations, because the nozzle reaction actually transfers weight to the ____ side from which the aerial device is being operated.
p658
opposite
there are two ways that the truck can be uneven:
p658
laterally(side to side) and longitudinal(end to end)
correction of lateral unevenness is possible on grades up to?
p658
5% = approximately 3°
a slope of 5% means that there is a rise in the terrain height of?
p658
5ft for every 100ft of distance
uneven terrain lower the stabilizers on the ____ side first only until solid contact is made and then lower the stabilizers on the ____ side until truck levels out.
p658
uphill then downhill
driver must make sure to raise the truck enough to activate the _____ if apparatus is equipped.
p658
interlocks
in uneven terrain it is preferably to operate the aerial over the _____ side of the apparatus.
p659
uphill
*when stabilizing the apparatus on any type of grade or uneven surface, beware of possible stabilizer ____, which is very dangerous and may occur on wet, icy, or snowy surfaces or when the controls are not operated smoothly.
p659
slippage
operating on a ____ grade is a little more challenging than on a ____ grade.
p659
longitudinal; lateral
if aerial turntable is not level the rungs will not be exactly ___ to the ground generating ______?
p659
parallel; lateral and torsional stresses
in longitudinal grades operate articulating aerials of the ___ of the vehicle whenever possible.
p660
rear
*When ____ apparatus is parked on a longitudinal grade outside of the manufacturer’s recommended operating range do not extend/retract over the side of the apparatus.
p660
pre-1991 or non-K-braced
when the ground is frozen solid and the surface is on an angle, the aerial can move or chatter along the surface due to?
p661
vibration and gravity(avoided by chocking wheels)
___ or there friction products can assist in stabilizing on icy ground, but avoid ___ because it causes melting.
p661
sand; salt
on most aerial the combination interlock feature of the selector valve and the hydraulic system holding valves provide ____?
p662
automatic locking capabilities
apparatus may be equipped with ___ that shows when interlocks are engaged, and a ____ to allow driver to determine if apparatus is raised evenly.
p662
indicator light; site gauge level
box-type stabilizers commonly have drilled holes for the insertion of ___ that act as an additional safeguard against drop/drift of the jack.
p662
large pins
transfer from the stabilizer system to the aerial operations system may be?
p663
automatically completed or require movement of switch or control lever
the stabilization process is ___ in order to prepare the apparatus for departure from the scene.
p663
reversed
*when the pressure releases from the ____, the apparatus often drops very quickly, so stand clear to avoid being struck by the moving parts or being injured as the apparatus resettles.
p663
stabilization system
older midship and tractor-drawn aerials are most likely to have ____ stabilizer.
p664d
manual
manual stabilizers(similar to box-stabilizers) consist of : p664
extension arm with screw jack attached to the end
driver must swing the ____ into position manually and then manually turn the _____ attached to the arm to lower the stabilizer.
p664
extension arm; screw jack
the extension arm is stored ____ to the ground on midship aerials and is a recessed position beneath the _____ portion of the trailer on tractor-drawn aerials.
p664
perpendicular; goose neck
*if the stabilizer lifts off the pad during operation, do not adjust, because this is normal _______.
p664
load shifting
operating tractor-drawn(tiller) aerials with angles less than 60° and 61°-90° provide?
less stability
when attempting to park tillers at angle greater than 90° an alarm may sound, because it provides _____?
p665
poor stability
best way to angle tiller into position:
p665
place turntable next to target
turn tractor wheels sharply away from target and pull slightly forward
turn tiller wheels toward target and back the truck slightly toward target
set all brakes
most modern tillered aerials are equipped with stabilization systems that securely stabilize whether it is _____ or not.
p665
jackknifed
the tiller operator and the tractor trailer should ____ and ___?
p675
interchangeable and cross trained
it is essential that ____ equipment be available for any personnel who will be climbing the ladder or riding in the platform.
p676
fall protection
fall protection on aerials include:
p676
handrails(ladder)
railing and gates(platform)
in addition to fall protection each operator on the device should be equipped with a fall restraint ____ and ____?
p676
ladder belt and tether
ladder belt and tether should meet the requirements of the ?
p676
nfpa 1983 standar on life safety rope and equipment for emergency services
personnel must be safely anchored to a structural feature of the ladder/platform:
p676
any time not actively climbing/descending the ladder
any time not actively entering/exiting the platform
any time device is in motion
fall protection will only be useful if the tether is secured to a portion of the device that will?
p676
support the load imposed by a fall
climb/descend carefully and maintaining _____ with structural features at all times.
p677
3 points of contacts
never rotate, elevate, or lower the device with people on the ladder unless they are securely attached to a structural feature with approved?
p677
safety ladder belt and tether
*fall hazard, when the device is in motion, use _____ on ladders and in the platform.
p677
fall protection
*never extend or retract the device when people are on the ladder because it creates?
p677
pinch and crush hazards
safe practices during winch operation:
p678
always stay clear of wire rope during operation
never touch wire rope while in tension/under load
never touch wire rope while some else is on the controls/during operation
*keep ___ away from wire ropes, pulleys, sheaves, cylinders, and other moving parts.
p678
hands
driver is fundamentally a “ _____” who must be well trained in the location of each control, its function, how it operates, when it should be used, and the appropriate safety precautions.
p679
“technician”
standar verbal and hand signals:
p679
raise lower rotate clockwise(right) rotate counter clockwise(left) extend retract
*keep in mind that the use of terms such as “rotate right/left” may be misinterpreted if the ______ is different between the person giving commands and the operator at the controls.
p679
point of view
drivers must understand the function and operation of all stabilizing power and safety devices, in addition know:
p679
limitations of the apparatus
proper spotting angles
maximum load limits
safe operating practices
driver must have the skills necessary to solve ____ at the incident and to operate ____ while maintaining visual contact with the aerial and the space within which it is moved.
p679
tactical problems; all controls
drivers should be trained on each different apparatus he/she is?
p679
expected to drive/operate
the primary control position for the aerial operator is the?
p680
lower controls usually at turntable
when working from the primary control position the driver must practice:
p680
be aware of the number, weight, and position of personnel/equipment
monitor the wind, ice, and water flow ensuring not exceed the load chart limitations
maintain comm with personnel at tip/platform
observe and ensure personnel keep well clear of the ladder at all time
the secondary control position is at the ?
p680
upper(tip) controls or platform basket controls
performs the final positioning of the aerial during rescue or other fire fighting operations?
p680
secondary control operator
must observe the aerial operation and prepare to override the secondary control operator if unsafe conditions are encountered?
p680
primary control operator
operator at the tip of the ladder needs to take the following precautions:
p680
be aware of personnel on ladder section behind them
take care to place feet on the steps at the tip to avoid injury from the moving ladder sections
be belted in position to protect against abrupt or unexpected ladder movements
be aware of impending water flow and monitor/tower reaction
be aware of electrical hazards and other obstructions
*never place personnel at the tip or platform of the aerial if the operation can be?
p681
accomplished without them being there
ladders are often rated at _____ as elevation angles increase or when the ladder is not fully extended.
681
higher tip capacities
graphical or tubular description of the load that can be distributed on an aerial device based on factors such as extension, elevation, stabilizer set-up, wind, water flow, and ice load.
p681
load chart
load charts on some aerials may have _____ or ____, that can be used to supplement their use during operations.
p682
electronic load monitoring or envelope control systems
telescoping control devices include:
p682
aerial ladders
aerial ladder platforms
telescoping elevating platforms
telescoping water towers
*failure to properly stabilize the apparatus could result in?
p682
tipping the apparatus
elevating the entire assembly from its stored position to the desired angle and useful position by elevating, rotating, extending and lowering?
p682
raising the telescoping aerial device
some FD instruct drivers against simultaneous aerial device motions per SOPs, but newer apparatus are equipped with controls that are particularly well suited for simultaneous control such as?
p682
“joystick”
*when approaching the objective or nearing obstructions the driver should use ______ to move the aerial device.
p683
one motion at a time
because of the forces being generated especially as length increases, all movements must be ?
p683
slow, smooth and controlled(aka feathering)
overall process of lowering the aerial device is typically the ____ of putting it into position, but give consideration to whether or not the ____ was used and the ____ has been stowed.
p683
reverse; waterway; nozzle
two types of articulating aerial apparatus each having two or more sections called booms:
p684
water towers and aerial platforms
is equipped with only a master stream nozzle at the end of the upper boom; it is not intended to lift firefighter or equipment?
p684
water tower
is equipped with a platform and a master stream nozzle at the end of the upper boom and designed to carry firefighters and equipment?
p684
aerial platform
raising the articulating aerials is actually a series of motions that include:
p685
elevating
rotating
extending
lowering to the objective
articulating platforms should be operated?
p685
forward of the turntable
the operational speed of the aerial device is directly proportional to the amount the control lever is?
p685
pushed or pulled
drivers of articulating aerials must be concerned with:
p685
elbow joint between booms(knuckle)
working end
___ is of particular concern when operating at lower elevations because it may be behind, above, or below the position of the operation making visibility of that area more difficult.
p685
knuckle
joint between two sections of boom in an articulating aerial device?
p685
knuckle
other apparatus drivers must respect the operating ____ required by the articulating device.
p686
space
elevated water delivery systems are divided into 3 categories:
p686
aerial ladders with piped waterways and water towers
aerial ladders with detachable water ways
elevating platforms
*when using a aerial device as an _____, ensure that all manufacturer recommended procedures for device elevation and loading are carefully followed.
p686
elevated master stream
*all valves and nozzles must be opened and closed is a _____ and ____ manner to minimize shock loading the aerial device.
p686
SLOW and controlled
it is always most desirable to operate the nozzle with ____ if available.
p687
remote controls
are permanently attached nozzle systems that can be operated from either the tip of the aerial or one section(fly) lower?
p687
true pinnable waterways
where the master stream nozzle is at the tip of the aerial?
p687
fire fighting mode
where the nozzle is one aerial section(fly) lower?
p687
rescue mode
one advantage provided by some water tower devices that gives operators a view from the tip is?
p687
video camera(tip) and video monitor(control area) with thermal image capabilities
aerial ladders with _____ waterways present more of an operational challenge than do those with ____ waterways.
p688
detachable; piped
detachable ladder pipes should be operated from the _____ or ____ using ropes that are attached to the nozzle.
p688-689
turntable or ground level
loads that involve motion?
p690
shock loading(dynamic load)
use the 75-80-80 for quick ladder pipe use:
p690
75 degrees of elevation
80% extended length
80 psi NP for 1 1/2 tip
use ladder pipes perpendicular to the rungs on older units with maximum lateral movement of ____ to either side; newer models offer ____ sweep.
p690
15°; 180°
are not designed to enable operations in situations where personnel and equipment may be exposed to radiant heat?
p691
protective water curtains
safest conditions to operate aerial devices:
p691
positioned properly on hard/level surface
moderate wind speed
above-freezing temperatures
take special considerations when operating :
p691
on grades high wind conditions clod weather exposure to fire effects aerial device mechanical or power failure
situations in which the floor of the platform and/or knuckle(s) between the booms are not parallel to the ground can result in?
p692
twisting force(torsional stress) on the entire aerial device
*the driver must operate the aerial device within the grade requirements recommended by?
p692
manufacturer
establishes static load requirements that an aerial apparatus must meet when operating on a grade?
p692
nfpa 1901 standard for automotive fire apparatus
keys to operating on a grade:
p692
optimum positioning
proper stabilization of apparatus to counter increased risk
load restrictions for the given grade
wind gusts impose significant _____ against the device, and sustained winds of sufficient force can cause ____ or ____ of the aerial device.
p692
dynamic loads; deformation or twisting
most aerial device manufacturers specify wind speed limitations within which their aerial devices may be?
p692
safely operated
cold weather causes and increased viscosity of the hydraulic oil which?
p693
slows down overall machine operation
less obvious affects of cold weather include physical changes in the properties of the _____ of the device.
p693
metal structural members
due to its weight ice formation of the device :
p693
adversely affect stability
lessens the working load capacity
significantly reduces rescue capabilities
the limit of ice buildup allowed by nfpa 1901 is?
p693
1/4” on all surfaces
common methods of removing ice include:
p694
high pressure steam
liquid thawing agents similar to type used on aircraft
any thawing agents used must be _____ and otherwise _____ to the aerial device and general apparatus components.
p694
noncorrosive; harmless
*in freezing weather conditions keep drain valves?
p694
opened
weight of ice?
p695
1 cubic inch = 0.03 lb
in icy conditions driver should consider the aerial in line with the chassis because?
p695
this is the strongest position
in icy conditions avoid placing aerials in spot where they will be subject to accidental contact with?
p695
fire streams and overspray
slowly extending and retracting the aerial device to remove accumulated ice?
p695
ice shrugging
i shrugging maneuver may not be effective for _____ of ice and the application of de-icing fluid may be necessary.
p695
large accumulations
aerial devices are operated near fires being exposed to superheated air and on rare occasions direct flame contact, therefore drivers should continuously ?
p695
monitor conditions and be prepared to reposition
a foot pedal or valve on the floor of the platform typically operates the?
p696
water-curtain nozzle
heat damage to aerial device may on may not be:
p696
visible
obvious signs of heat damage include:
p696
discoloration
disfiguration
deformed welds
improper operation of aerial device
when heat damage is noted, or even suspected the aerial device must be?
p696
removed from service immediately
before placing apparatus back in service it should be given a thorough operation test in accordance the?
p696
non-destructive testing standards within nfpa 1911 standard for the inspection, maintenance, testing, and retirement of in-service automotive fire apparatus
damaged apparatus should be repaired by?
p696
emergency vehicle technician(EVT)
if any sign of mechanical trouble is present?
p696
remove personnel from aerial device
bed aerial device
immediately take it out of service
high hydraulic oil temperatures can lead to?
p697
premature equipment failure
before activating auxiliary pump, ensure an _______ is positioned to allow for the hydraulic pressure to flow.
p697
aerial control lever
if involved in an incident where damage to or failure of aerial device occurred, the driver may be called upon to provide information about the ?
p697
operating conditions
*do not an aerial position below grade unless the ____ has approved the apparatus for the operation.
p697
manufacturer
the most common scenario that requires below-grade operations by an aerial?
p697
special rescue operations
one type of aerial device that is particularly well suited for below grade rescue operations is the?
p698
three-boom articulating aerial platform
represents the overall plans needed to successfully mitigate an emergency and terminate and incident?
p719
operational strategies
operational strategies will depend on:
p719
pre-fire plans pre-arrival information initial size-up may include: -access to upper levels -rescue applications -ventilation -elevated fire attack -exposure protection -aircraft rescue and fire fighting
the actual procedures and actions taken to successfully carry out strategies?
p719
tactics
the use of effective ____ allows for early and correct aerial placement as well as more efficient aerial operations throughout the incident.
p720
communication
aerial devices provide access to?
p721
upper levels(emergency escape, deliver equipment)
apparatus placement should provide the maximum degree of ____ and ___ to the building to the firefighter using the aerial device.
p721
safety and access
when fire conditions do not allow victims to be brought down the interior stairs/exterior fire escapes, it may be necessary to use?
p721
aerial device
driver should position the aerials used for rescue at the corner of the building, two advantages:
p721
reach victims on 2 side
safer on corners if structural collapse occur
for aerial rescues in area threatened by fire, the preferred procedure is to use a _____ to cool and/or protect the aerial device and personnel during rescue operations.
p722
wide-angle fog stream
if victim is to be lifted over the top rail, the driver should position apparatus so that?
p722
the turntable is directly inline with the target
if victim is to enter the platform through a hinged gate then ?
p722
turntable should be positioned a little forward or behind the target
in situations that require aerials for rescue the main objective is?
p722
to reach as many victims/points of egress as possible with a minimum number of aerial movements
victims who are in the greets amount of real or perceived danger should be given the?
p723
highest priority
determining which victims are in the most danger is a judgment call made by?
p723
IC, truck company officer, or aerial driver/operator
typically occupants located on or immediately above the fire floor will be in the?
p723
greatest danger
rescuers should give preference to individuals who are in a ____ and ____ if they do not see that help is imminent.
p723
panicked state and appear ready to jump
involves multiple victims who may be located in different parts of the building?
p723
second priority
when two or more groups of victim appear to be in same amount of danger, priority is give to?
p723
larger group
involves the remainder of people in the fire area in order of the next most threatened by the hazard?
p723
third priority
involves the people in the exposed area, tended to after all in the immediate danger have been removed?
p723
fourth priority
*when rescue is the first priority on the fireground, fire attack may be neglected causing fire to grow and spread, threatening victims?
p724
initially deemed safe
when raising an aerial to a victim the best position is one which the extended and rotated aerial device is ?
p724
perpendicular to the objective
when maneuvering to reach a victim aerial should be initially be aimed ____and then _____ to prevent panicked victim from jumping onto the device.
p725
above the victim and the lowered
once an aerial is in place for a rescue, engaging the ______ is an important step in making the device a rigid structure if so equipped.
p726
extension locks
drivers should always be alert for ____ or ____ when positioning the aerial for rescue to avoid damage to the apparatus.
p726
dangling or falling debris
when rescuing a victim using an aerial ladder, the first rung of tip should be placed even with the?
p726
windowsill
when using a platform for victim rescue, place the top rail of the platform even with?
p727
windowsill
when removing victims from a roof the tip of the aerial ladder should extend above the edge of the roof at least?
p727
6 ft
when removing victims from a roof place the bottom of the platform in relation to edge of the roof should be?
p727
just above and over
if parapet is structurally sound, the roof ladder should rest against the ____ rather than the ____.
p727
parapet; aerial ladder
vertical extension of an exterior wall, and sometimes an interior fire wall, above the roofline of a building?
p727
parapet wall
wire or plastic basket-type litter suitable for transporting patients from locations where the the standard litter would not be easily secured(rubble pile, collapse, roof), may be used with harness for lifting?
p728
stokes basket
may be able to reach over the parapet wall an set the platform down at roof level?
p728
articulating device(three-section, two-knuckle, dual-knuckle- are especially effective at this maneuver)
when moving victims down the ladder with two or more fire fighters?
p728
one assist victim from inside the building while others remain at the tip
capable adults should be guided down the ladder under their own power, with a ____ there to lead the way.
p29
firefighter
small children and adults incapable of climbing down the ladder will have to be?
p729
carried or support
only carry or support victims down a ladder when?
p729
all other means of egress have been ruled out
best method to bring infants and small children down the ladder is to?
p729
cradle in one arm while the other arm is used to assist with balance and stability
desirable method for carrying large adults down a ladder who are conscious is able to control movements but not strong enough?
p730
“knee-sit”
ladder rescue-uniquely useful for unconscious or severely injured victims who cannot assist their own rescue?
p730
across the rails of the ladder
rescuers should only perform this carry with a “safety” firefighter descending just below the firefighter carrying the victim?
p731
over-the-shoulder carry
using aerial platforms to move victims is considerably ____ then backing them down the ladder, but it is ___ and not suited to mass evacuations from a single point.
p731
easier; slower
a potentially severe and damaging dynamic load can be created when victims ___ into the platform.
p732
jumps
firefighter required to remove unconscious victims using platform?
p732
one to lift victim from structure and one to receive inside platform
if victims being removed from a building using a platform and a stokes basket then:
p732
place basket on the floor if it fits or lay across the platform railings and secure it
this tactic should be used as a last resort since it is easier and safer to carry a litter down a stairwell, fire escape, or move it to a safe place of refuge until conditions improve?
p732
lowering a stokes basket using an aerial ladder
*victims jumping onto the aerial device can cause?
p732
catastrophic failure
when lowering a stokes basket by aerial ladder it is easiest two slide the basket down the ladder by:
p734
between the the rails of the aerial (best method)
slide down on top of the handrail perpendicular to ladder
if a rope evolution is used to lower victims the driver must know the _____ of apparatus and all tools involved.
p734-735
limitations
some aerials my be equipped with a ____ that may be used for rescue operations in rope type rescues with limited capacity.
p735
lifting eye
most lifting eyes are intended to be used in ___ (unless a single eye is located in the center) as a single anchor for a single rescue rope only.
p735
pairs
aerials can be used as a high anchor point, with experienced, trained, and authorized personnel, but only as?
p735
last resort
rope and hardware used with the lifting eye(s) should be appropriate for the load being lifted, and comply with?
p735
nfpa 1983 standard on life safety rope and equipment for emergency services
if a rope is passed through a pulley with the working end anchored to the ground, then the load on the device becomes ______ the weight of the load on the running or free end of the rope.
p735
twice(doubles)
it is recommended that FD discourage the use of aerial apparatus(particularly light- and medium-duty) for?
p735
water rescue emergency
first safety issue for apparatus in water rescue incidents is?
p736
lack of suitable location to adequately stabilize the apparatus
another safety issue is if the aerial device make contact with swiftly moving water, because of the
p736
tremendous amount of force water can generate and damage the device or compromise its stability
*anyone working near water must wear a ?
p736
personal flotation device(PFD)
on aerials that have a low-tip load rating when fully extended to a horizontal objective, it is difficult to perform such rescue without dangerously?
p736
overloading the device(weight of ff+victim can exceed)
although ventilation is important it should not monopolize apparatus or manpower that may be needed for ?
p737
rescue operations
proper aerial placement can make ventilation process quicker and safer, if ventilating a flat roof position apparatus?
p737
unburned side as close as possible to area being ventilated(shorter travel distance)
during ventilation operations extend the ladder 6 ft past the edge of the roof for?
p737
better visibility under smoky conditions
when using a platform for ventilation the bottom of the platform should be positioned?
p737
even with or extended slightly over the roof’s edge for easy exiting and entering
resources permitting it is a good idea to ladder the roof from two different side for?
p737
an alternate route of escape
if firefighter cannot safely operate on the roof or if other conditions warrant different approach?
p737
horizontal or cross ventilation can be accomplished with aerial devices
when conducting ventilation operations off aerials the firefighter should be?
p737
secured with a safety belt
if braking windows from aerials the device should be placed _____ and ensure firefighters below the windows stay clear to avoid_____.
p737
slightly above the window and upwind side; falling glass or debris
driver should coordinate all ventilation activities with ____ and in accordance with the IC’s _____?
p738
fire attack; incident action plan
drivers of aerials must be especially familiar with aspects of fire attack related to ______?
p738
aerial master streams
elevated master streams are most commonly used in defensive operations to:
p738
irectly attack the fire
cool embers and gases within the thermal column
protect exposures
safe distancing from collapse, radiant heat, etc., must be balanced with close enough distance to allow the bulk of the fire stream to reach the?
p739
seat of the fire area or exposures being protected
when the IC makes a decision to apply water from aerial master stream the driver need to know:
p739
volume to be delivered
type of stream used
placement of the stream
apparatus should be positioned to give fire stream as much reach into fire are as possible and goal is to place nozzle in lower portion of the window opening to direct stream upward toward the ceiling?
p739
elevated master stream blitz attack
*external master stream attacks pose a serious safety threat to interior fire fighting crews by:
p739
disturbing thermal layers
creating large volume of steam
possibility of being struck by stream
additional water weight can cause collapse if not drained at same rate of application
aerials may be used as master stream closer to ground level if so position apparatus so that?
p739
turntable is directly inline with intended target(window, door, opening)
this type of attack will penetrate the fire area without disturbing thermal layering, will break the stream up when contacts the ceiling, creating a near perfect atmosphere for steam conversion?
p740
master stream aimed at ceiling
both __ and __ nozzles haver their respective space in aerial operations?
p740
solid stream and fog
all nozzles lose some effectiveness when they are not discharging their?
p740
rated flow
provide wider coverage, are able to break up the water to allow better steam conversion, but do not provide reach and penetration?
p740
fog nozzles
provide excellent penetration into fire areas, outside elevated stream provides power to reach seat of the fire while allowing heated gases to vent around the stream, not as affected by wind, but not as effective for rapid steam conversion?
p740
solid streams
trained drivers can tell the effectiveness of the stream by sound?
p741
if its going into the intended opening it will make less sound than if its hitting walls
aerial apparatus can be used to apply _____ of foam, but not practical for discharging _____ because of its high air content.
p741
large quantities of foam; aerated foam
a carefully placed solid or straight stream from the exterior of the building is often referred to as a?
p741
blitz attack
blitz attacks are often conducted when the fire is on upper stories and while firefighters are preparing to ?
p741
enter the building
*ensure that no ___ or ___ are on the fire floor when outside stream is directed into building.
p741
firefighters or victims
the best way to effect a blitz attack with an elevated master stream is to try to?
p741
deflect water off the fire room ceiling
water deflection can be accomplished by placing nozzle even with bottom of the window pointed toward the ceiling allowing water to enter at an angle of?
p741
about 30°
to aggressively attack a fire from the exterior with large diameter fire stream(2 1/2” or larger)?
p741
blitz attack
*water adds weight to the structure at the rate of?
p742
2,000 lbs for every 250gpm
when elevated master streams are used in a blitz attack they should only be flowed long enough to?
p742
darken down the fire
exterior fire attack that is limited to controlling the spread of a fire with emphasis on exposure protection?
p742
defensive attack
the objective of a defensive attack is to?
p742
contain fire within a specified area
indicators of potential defensive attack are:
p742
fire or building conditions prohibit safely advancing hoselines in the building
the IC opts to sacrifice part of the building to the fire
large amounts of water needed to extinguish the fire(common attics, multiple apartments, etc.)
fire conditions will dictate what kind of stream to use, but most commonly ______ will be required to reach the seat of the fire in defensive attacks.
p742
solid or straight stream
when trying to stop fire spread through a single building, care should be taken no to ?
p743
push fire to uninvolved areas; position apparatus on unburned side of the building
using an aerial as a _____ to upper floors by connecting interior hand lines to a gated outlet on the hose can eliminated difficult hose lays up interior stairwells.
p744
exterior standpipe
using exterior standpipe can be effective for:
p744
fires at parking garages
fires of building roofs
fires on bridges and overpasses
fires in buildings under construction where standpipe system is not available
aerials devices provide outlets for hand lines , but adding pre connected hand lines?
p744
reduces the amount of weight that can be added to the platform
using the aerial as an elevated standpipe, commits the ladder/platform to?
p744
single position
structure or separate part of the of the fireground to which the fire spread(carport, automobile, or stack of hay)?
p744
exposure
fires spread to exposures by:
p744
conduction
convection
radiation
conditions that may affect exposure hazards include:
p744
weather fuel topography building construction spacing between the fire building and exposure intensity of fire
___ enhances the effects of radiated and convection heat transfer, and fast moving burning embers.
p745
wind
if wind is blowing toward/away from the exposure the chance of fire spreading?
p745
increases/decreases but not eliminated
in severe fire conditions, the fire itself can create it own wind conditions in the form of more rapid?
p745
convection currents
type of construction such as combustible elements(wood or plastic siding, wooden window frames, curtains, blinds, carpet) and the proximity to fire affect the chance of?
p745
exposure catching fire
the apparatus itself must be considered an ____ and may even be the most expensive on scene
exposure hazard
because ____ heat is transmitted through water directing a stream between fire and exposure is not enough.
p746
radiated
protection from convective fire spread can be done by applying a?
p746
large fog stream into the thermal column
when resources are limited it may be necessary to use the master strew for both?
p746
fight the fire and protect the exposure
using two nozzles from an aerial platform is dependent upon?
p746
availability of water
required flow
number firefighters available to monitor the application
if fire is large enough it can create exposure problems, apparatus assigned to protect exposures can?
p747
become exposures themselves
in the event that fire conditions worsen and exposure protection operations must be abandoned, the should always be a?
p747
straight forward exit route
when using sweep patterns the stream should not be rotated beyond the safe limits required by?
p748
the manufacturer
fog streams may not work due to:
p748
high wind conditions
excessive distance between the nozzle and exposure
extensive heat from the fire evaporating the stream prior to contact with target area
first option for rescuing victims at aircraft incidents?
p748
all larger commercial passenger aircraft and some military aircraft are equipped with chutes or slide at exit door openings
second best option for rescuing victims at aircraft incidents?
p748
set portable stair at the exit doors of aircraft
the surface of aircraft wing can be slippery under dry weather conditions, it cane treacherous with the presence of?
p748
water, ice, or fuel
in aircraft incidents, aerial should not be used to?
p749
stabilize the aircraft or lower it from its resting point
if aircraft is in contact with electric lines, the driver should not elevate the aerial to the aircraft until the utility company can verify that the lines have been?
p749
de-energized
the NIOSH line-of-duty-death(LODD) report recommended that fire departments take the following as actions(NIOSH, 2009):
A-5
provide replacement and annual medical evaluation (nfpa 1582)
incorporate exercise stress tests, following standard medical guidelines, into fire department medical evaluation programs
phase in a comprehensive wellness and fitness program for firefighters(nfpa 1853)
perform annual physical evaluations consistent(nfpa 1500)
require fire fighters to receive medical clearance to wear self-contained breathing apparatus as part of the fire department’s medical evaluation program
*over time the fire service culture has continuously changed due to:
A-6
new information
technology
shared knowledge and experience
usually mandates the fire service mission?
A-6
authority having jurisdiction(AHJ)
the fire service’s mission is to?
A-6
save lives, protect property and the environment from fires and other hazardous situations
a coordinated approach to a wide variety of incidents ?
A-6
all-hazard approach
to fulfill the stated goals and objectives of our department’s mission statement, which are part of the department’s rules and regulations?
A-7
firefighter’s role
AHJ is responsible for how fire service is organized including:
A-7
type of department
number of facilities and their locations
types and number of apparatus
number of personnel
organizational hierarchy
functions and responsibilities for specific jobs and ranks
minimum training/certification level requirements to attain those ranks
establish the foundation for how the organization will function and operate to achieve its mission(s)?
A-8
an organization’s structure and principles
the most common fire department organizational structure is _____, defined as having an uninterrupted series of steps.
A-8
scalar
order of rank and authority in the fire and emergency services; the formal line of authority, responsibility, and communication within an organization?
A-9
chain of command
organizational principle in which workers report to only one supervisor in order to eliminate conflicting orders?
A-9
unity of command
maximum number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise; 3-7 with 5 being optimum
A-9
span of control
organizations responsibility to provide leadership, and an individual’s responsibility to follow orders?
A-9
discipline
dividing large jobs into smaller jobs to make them more manageable, to equalize workloads, and increase efficiency?
A-9
division of labor
division of labor in the fire service is necessary:
A-10
to assign responsibility
to assign specific and clear-cut tasks
to prevent duplication of efforts
fire and emergency services organizations can be ___ or ___; with most in north america being ____?
A-10
public or private; public
public fire service organizations are funded by?
A-10
the community(municipality, county, district, or other area as defined by AHJ) through taxes(state/provincial and federal), fees, grants, fundraisers, donations, and contracts
private fire organizations raise money through?
A-10
contracts, billing services, and revenue provided by their parent organization
firefighters may work for a variety of different types of departments typically categorized as:
A-10
career, volunteer, or combination
most large cities and some counties maintain the department’s facilities/equipment, employ full-time, career firefighters and other personnel; departments that serve military installations and private industrial sites?
A-10
career departments
full-time career departments are continually staffed which means?
A-11
there is always someone on duty and emergency responders must live in fire stations
may be overseen by local government, or independent and governed by a board of directors; many are not continually staffed?
A-11
volunteer departments
fire departments that are not continuously staffed means?
A-11
volunteers respond to the emergencies from wherever they are
some volunteer fire departments, the town or county provide the facility for station, purchase equipment and pays for the maintenance, this is considered?
A-11
publicly funded
some volunteer fire departments rely on other funding source or raise money through:
A-11
subscription fees
fund-raising events
and billing customers(emergency response cost and replacement materials cost)
staffed by a mixture of career and volunteer firefighters, federal departments may contain government and civilians?
A-11
combination departments( canada-composite dept.)
the basic unit of fire fighting operations consisting of an apparatus, firefighters, and is led by a company officer?
A-11
company
multiple companies within a response area are grouped into?
A-11
battalion or response district
FD organizational subdivision consisting of several fire companies in a designated geographic area; usually the first organizational level above companies/stations?
A-11
battalion
geographical area to which a particular apparatus is assigned to be first due on a fire/ other emergency?
A-11
response district
in large departments most companies are specialized but in smaller departments a single company performs all the functions:
A-11
structural fire fighting
rescue
EMS
assigned to a pumping apparatus-performs fire suppression duties, search and rescue, extrication, ventilation, and ems?
A-11
engine company
performs forcible entry, search and rescue, ventilation, salvage, overhaul, and utilities; provides access to upper floors, elevated water streams, extrication, and ems?
A-11
truck(ladder) company
searches for and removes victims from areas of danger or entrapment, technical rescues, and RIC/RIT?
A-11
rescue company
extinguishes ground cover or grass fires and protects structures in areas close to fields and woodlands?
A-12
brush company
mitigates hazardous materials incidents?
A-12
hazardous materials company
provides emergency medical care to patients and may transport them to medical facility?
A-12
emergency medical/ambulance company
performs rescue and fire suppression activities involving aircraft incidents?
A-12
aircraft rescue and fire fighting(ARFF) company
to cause to become less harsh or hostile; to make less severe, intense or painful; to alleviate?
A-12
mitigate
the different staffing classifications are based on?
A-12
whether or not firefighters are paid and how often they work
personnel who provide emergency services to external customers(public)?
A-12
line personnel
personnel who provide administrative and logistical support to line units(internal customers)?
A-12
staff personnel
clarify expectations, delegate authority, and assign responsibility based on the organizations’ structure and mission?
A-12
written regulations
departmental regulations consist of?
A-12
policies and procedures
the FD and its employees are also governed by?
A-12
municipal ordinances, state/provincial and federal laws, and the codes and standards of adopted by the AHJ
it is ____ responsibility to learn and adhere to the department’s regulations.
A-12
firefighter(yours)
to provide access to regulations organizations may:
A-12-13
distribute them in written or electronic format
communicate them verbally to all members
port them in a conspicuous place in all facilities
a guide to decision-making within an organization?
A-13
policy
determined by top management, and then distributed to lower ranks to be implemented; set boundaries and establish standards of conduct that an organization expects from its members?
A-13
policies
most policies involve written criteria, but some remain unwritten and are known as?
A-13
organizational norms or past practices
unwritten policies are common when no clear policy exists, or policies are out of date in either case organizations must?
A-13
create clear written policies
detailed written plans that list the specific steps for approaching a recurring problem or situation?
A-13
procedures
enable all members to perform specific tasks to the required standard?
A-13
standard operating procedures(SOPs)
similar to SOPs but may allow firefighters some leeway in particular situations, whereas SOPs are hard and fast rules?
A-13
standard operating guidelines(SOGs)
the US government mandated that all emergency services organizations use common terminology and command structures to improve the interoperability, created as a result?
A-14
the national incident management system-incident commas system(NIMS-ICS)
NIMS-ICS involves 6 major organizational functions:
A-14
command operations planning logistics financial intelligence
emergency medical services and local hospitals?
A-14
provide complete medical services
compliment the services provided by FD
provide direct assistance to units at an emergency incident by radio comm. or dispatching medical professional
emergency/disaster management
A-14
manage emergency and disaster response by coordinating multi-agency activities(local, state/provincial, or federal)
assist with incident scene security, traffic/crowd control, firefighter protection, fire investigation, and explosives disposal?
A-14
law enforcement
assist by shutting off natural gas line, electricity or public water mains; oversee public roads, buildings, sewers, and either may manage/test hydrants?
A-14
utility companies and public works
can inform the public about emergencies and fire and life safety topics/initiatives?
A-14
media
must transport other responders to the scene and supply water the firefighters need to protect themselves and victims?
A-15
driver/operator
specific emergency and nonemergency duties of a driver/operator as required in nfpa 1002 include:
A-15
inspect, test, and perform basic maintenance
drive apparatus safely
maneuver apparatus(backing, spotting,etc.)
operate all fixed systems on apparatus(pump, aerial)
supply water for effective streams(hose, master, foam)
supply water to supplement standpipe/sprinklers
highest health risk factor to firefighters is sudden ______ as a result of overexertion, poor health habits, or occupational stress.
A-15
cardiac arrest
firefighter are often injured or killed in ____ while responding/returning to/from emergencies.
A-15
motor vehicle accidents
publish annual statistics, information, investigations and recommendations about firefighter fatalities and injuries:
A-15-16
national fire protection association(NFPA)
united states fire administration(USFA
national institute for occupational safety and health(NIOSH)
occupational safety and health administration(OSHA)
national near-miss reporting system
national institute of standards and technology(NIST)
the nonprofit national fallen firefighters foundation(NFFF) was created by?
A-17
congress 1992
NFFF mission is?
A-17
“to honor and remember america’s fallen fire heroes, to provide resources to assist their survivors in rebuilding their live, and work within the fire service community to reduce firefighter death and injuries.”
in 2004 NFFF developed _____ to provide the fire service with a blueprint for making changes.
A-17
the 16 firefighter life safety initiatives also known as “everyone goes home”
the international association of fire chiefs(IAFC) initiated a ______ in 2005, to focus on firefighter safety.
A-18
firefighter safety stand-down(3rd week of june)
the shared assumptions, beliefs, and values of a group or organization?
A-18
culture
specifies the minimum requirements for a FD safety and health program?
A-18
nfpa 1500 standard on fire department occupational safety and health program
any department/jurisdiction is free to ____ the standard’s requirements because it a minimum standard.
A-18
exceed
the department safety and health program must address all anticipated hazards to which members might be exposed:
A-19
hazardous material releases
communicable diseases
energized electrical equipment
driving/riding in apparatus during emergency responses
nonemergency issues(substance abuse on/off duty)
other hazards associated with fire fighting
nfpa 1500 outlines requirements of fire department training programs in order to prevent:
A-19
occupational illness, injuries, and fatalities
initial training for new recruits to become proficient in firefighter duties and a process for evaluating firefighter skill and knowledge must meet the requirements of?
A-19
nfpa 1000 series of professional qualification(ProQual)
while it is important to train in conditions that are close to actual emergencies, it is unacceptable for training to result in?
A-19
injuries or fatalities
operation of fire and emergency services training covering aspects of fire fighting?
A-19
training evolution
maintaining personnel safety during training evolutions includes:
A-19-20
using appropriate PPE maintaining situational awareness healthy/good physical condition adhering to all safety regulations maintaining PPE and training equipment
establishes safety requirements for all uses of fire department apparatus?
A-20
nfpa 1500
nfpa requires all personnel operating in an IDLH/hazardous area to be fully equipped with:
A-20
personal protective clothing and equipment(PPE) including self-contained breathing apparatus(SCBA)
description of any atmosphere that poses an immediate hazard to life or produces irreversible, debilitating effects on health?
A-20
immediately dangerous to life and health
nfpa 1500 requires that emergency operations be managed through and incident management system(IMS)/incident command system(ICS) and must include?
A-21
risk management plan and personnel accountability system
nfpa 1500 limits emergency operations to those that can safely conducted personnel on scene and must include:
A-21
RIC, rehabilitation facilities, and postincident analysis
nfpa 1500 stes minimum design requirements for FD facilities and are designed and constructed in compliance with?
A-21
nfpa 101 life safety code
likelihood of suffering harm from a hazard or exposure to hazard; potential for failure or loss?
A-21
risk
written plan that identifies and analyzes the exposure to hazards, selects appropriate risk management techniques to handle exposures, implements those techniques, and monitors the results?
A-21
risk-management plan
allowing firefighters or resources to rest, hydrate, and recover during an incident; also refers to the station at an incident where personnel can rest, rehydrate, and recover?
A-21
rehabilitation
overview and critique of an incident by members of all responding agencies, including dispatchers; typically takes place within two weeks of the incident?
A-21
postincident analysis
firefighter injuries can be prevented by:
A-24
providing effective training
maintaining company discipline and accountability
following established safety related SOPs
using PPE
maintaining high levels of physical fitness
following risk management guidelines
using rehab facilities at emergency incidents
sharp or severe; having a rapid onset and short duration?
A-24
acute
long-term and reoccurring?
A-24
chronic
chemicals found in smoke that contribute to COPD:
A-25
carbon monoxide sulfur dioxide hydrogen chloride phosgene nitrogen oxides aldehydes particulates
condition, substance, or device that can directly cause injury or loss; the source of a risk?
A-25
hazard
term used for several diseases that result in obstructive problems in the airways?
A-25
chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder(COPD)
cancer-producing substance?
A-26
carcinogen
increased rates of absorption(temperature) combined with increased amounts of toxic chemicals(fires) mean firefighters are more likely to be?
A-26
contaminated
absorption rates increase ____ percent for every ___ degree of rise in temperature?
A-26
400%; 5°
body areas with high absorption rates include:
A-26
groin(highest)
jaw
forehead
back
firefighters are at risk of contracting 4 types of cancer:
A-26
testicular
prostate
non-hdgkin’s lymphoma
multiple myeloma(bone marrow)
intention is to limit exposures, to document any exposure that occurred, and to provide access to the correct treatment options for firefighter who are exposed to illness or chemicals?
A-27
infection and exposure control programs
comprehensive method of infection control in which every patient is assumed to be infected; poe is worn to prevent exposure to bodily fluids and bloodborne/airborne pathogens?
A-27
body substance isolation(BSI)
offers easily accessible, confidential assistance with personal problems that can affect job performance?
A-27-28
member assistance programs (MAP)(nfpa 1500 chap11)
*consuming drugs and alcohol can slow reaction times and impair judgement, the substance and firefighting?
A-28
do not mix
method of dealing with atypical stressful events?
A-31
critical incident stress management(CISM)
recent researched referenced in nfpa standards have revealed that _____ is not as effective as once thought and may make situations worse.
A-31
CISD
debriefing having a counsel come in to speak with personnel and encourage them to speak about their experiences?
A-31
critical incident stress debriefing(CISD)
term used to describe incidents that have a likelihood of causing critical incident stress?
A-31
atypically stressful event
disorder caused when persons have been exposed to a traumatic event in which they have experienced, witnessed, or been confronted with an event(s) that involve death, threatened death, serious injury, or the threat of physical injury to self or others?
A-31
post-traumatic stress disorder
general term used for the equipment worn by fire and emergency services responders?
A-31
personal protective equipment(PPE)
*always wear the correct ____ that is designed to protect you from the specific type of hazard(s) presented by the incident.
A-31
PPE
protective hoods are typically made of:
A-32
nomex
kevlar
pbi
station work uniforms provide two functions:
A-32
identifies member of organization
provides a layer of protect against direct flame contact
non-fire-resistant synthetic materials:
A-32
nylon
polyester
iron-on patches
transfer decals
all station work uniforms should meet?
A-33
nfpa 1975 standard on emergency services work clothing elements
garments addressed in nfpa 1975 include:
A-33
trousers, shirts, jackets, and coveralls, but not underwear( 100% cotton recommended)
usually have steel-toes, puncture resistance soles, or special inserts?
A-33
safety shoes or boots
all ppe designed for structural and proximity fire fighting must meet the requirements of?
A-33
nfpa 1971 standard on protective ensembles for structural fire fighting and proximity fire fighting
*unauthorized alteration of your ____ may expose you to fire scene hazards and endanger your life; may affect the worker’s compensation benefits provided to you by you jurisdiction.
A-35
PPE
the lower the heat transfer rate, the longer the PPE will protect you and stay within tolerable limits, usual temperature limit is?
A-35
above 400℉(200℃)
safety glasses standards?
A-38
ANSI or CSA
protective coats/trousers made of three components ?
A-39
outer shell
moisture barrier
thermal barrier
strips of reflective trim on the torso and sleeves that make the coat more visible at night/low light conditions?
A-40
retroreflective trim
harness and hand loop at the back of the neck that enables a rescuer to grab and drag a downed ff?
A-40
drag rescue device(DRD)
use hearing protection anytime exposed to noise levels exceeding legal noise?
A-43
US 90 decibels(Canada 85)
the best protection when operating on roadways is?
A-45
to be visible to motorists and to work behind a barrier formed by you apparatus
US DOT regulations require all personnel at roadway incidents to wear _____ and should be minimum rated _____?
A-45
high-visibility vests; ANSI 107 class 2/3
make sure that the overlap between coat and trousers when bent at 90 degrees is at minimum?
A-46
2 inches
*burns are a result of time and temperature:
A-47
first degree starts when skin reaches 118℉
second degree 131℉
third degree 152℉
ff is responsible for inspection, cleaning, and condition of poe, instruction can be found:
A-47
SOPs
manufacturer’s
nfpa 1851
person trained in advanced inspection requirements should perform PPE an annual inspection?
A-48
health and safety officer(HSO)
*only personnel who are ___ and ___ to repair PPE should be allowed to conduct repairs.
A-48
trained and certified
amount and type of contamination determine the type of cleaning, nfpa 1851 defines 4 types:
A-48
routine
advanced
specialized
contract
PPE not removed from service, brush off loose debris, gently rinse off debris and soil, clean manually in a utility sink to remove heavy soil?
A-48-49
routine cleaning
performed by personnel trained in care and cleaning of PPE using a dedicated washing machine designed to handle heavy load?
A-49
advanced cleaning
PPE is contaminated with hazardous materials or body fluids that can’t be removed by advanced cleaning, done by trained department member/outside contractor?
A-49
specialized cleaning
removes accumulated grime or contaminants, manufacturer, manufacturer’s representative, or certified member?
A-50
contract cleaning
