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CISSP ISC2 2023 > Domain 6 - Security Architecture and Design > Flashcards

Domain 6 - Security Architecture and Design Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a function of the System Resource Manager as pertaining to Systems Architecture?

a. It allocates CPU
b. It allocates main storage
c. It allocates input/output devices to user programs
d. It allocates user group memberships

A

Explanation: Answer d is correct, as this is human administrator function and not one performed by the Operating System. Answers a, b and c are a valid functions and are therefore incorrect.

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following storage mediums is regarded as the most secure against unauthorized erasure?

a. Floppy Disks
b. Virtual Memory
c. Optical Disks
d. On-board Hard Disks

A

Explanation: Answer c is correct since optical disks cannot be erased. Answer a is incorrect since floppy disks are erasable at any time. Answer b is incorrect as virtual memory is volatile. Answer d is incorrect because hard disk erase protection is achieved through system control not by the medium itself.

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3
Q
  1. The protection mechanisms within a computing system that collectively enforce security policy are known as the TCB. What does this acronym represent?

a. Terminal Connection Board
b. Trusted Computing Base
c. Trusted Connection Boundary
d. Trusted Cipher Base

A

Explanation: Answer b is the correct answer. Answers a, c and d are simply fictitious terms and are therefore incorrect.

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the security provided by process isolation in distinct address space?

a. It ensures processes running concurrently will not interfere with each other by accident or design
b. It ensures that every process executed has a unique address in memory
c. It ensures a computer user can access only one process at a time
d. It ensures that an executing process cannot communicate with any other process

A

Explanation: Answer a is correct since process isolation ensures processes cannot affect instructions by writing to each other’s memory. Answer b is a reasonable definition of Process Isolation but doesn’t explain its benefit. Answer c is a false statement. Answer d is a false statement.

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5
Q
  1. Which Operating System Utility interprets source code without producing an object program available for security audit?

a. Print monitor
b. Interpreter
c. Symbolic addresses
d. Compiler

A

Explanation: Answer b is correct. Answers a and c do not interpret source code. Answer d interprets source code but produces an auditable object.

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6
Q
  1. Pertaining to Systems Architecture the process of controlling subject access to system resources is?

a. Software mediation
b. Hardware mediation
c. Software isolation
d. Hardware isolation

A

Explanation: Answer a is the correct answer. Answer b is an invented term”. Answer c is the process of separating subjects and objects. Answer d is the process of isolating trusted parts of the system from untrusted.

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a defined mode of access in the Bell-LaPadula model?

a. Read only
b. Write only
c. Read and Write
d. Execute

A

Explanation: Answer d is correct because Bell LaPadula has only three modes as in a, b, and c above. Answers a, b and c are valid and are therefore incorrect.

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8
Q
  1. The acronym ITSEC represents

a. Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria
b. Information Transfer Systems Evaluation Criteria
c. Internationally Tested Security Evaluation Certificate
d. Information Technology Systems Evaluation Certificate

A

Explanation: Answer a is the correct answer. Answers b, c and d are merely fictitious terms.

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is a major component of the Common Criteria Standard?

a. User Profile
b. Protection Profile
c. Desktop Profile
d. Network Profile

A

Explanation: Answers a and c are system specific. Answer b is correct. Answer d is a fictitious term.

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10
Q
  1. Under ITSEC evaluation, what assurance class represents inadequate assurance that the target of evaluation has met its requirements?

a. E0
b. E1
c. E2
d. E3

A

Explanation: Answer a is the correct answer. Answer b meets requirements to the minimum assurance level. Answer c meets requirements to a higher assurance level. Answer d meets requirements to a higher assurance level

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following applies to the notion of a specific security policy maintaining a “Secure State” as defined by Bell-LaPadula

a. The policy must define the hierarchy of integrity levels
b. The policy must prevent unauthorized users from making modifications
c. The policy must define logging of subject activity
d. The policy must define the permitted modes of access between subjects and objects

A

Explanation: Answer d is the correct answer. Answer a Relates to integrity – Bell LaPadula relates to confidentiality. Answer b Relates to integrity – Bell LaPadula relates to confidentiality. Answer c is not contained within the Bell La-Padula model.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the three integrity goals addressed by the Clark-Wilson model?

a. Prevent unauthorized users from making modifications
b. Prevent unauthorized users from viewing classified objects
c. Prevent authorized users from making improper modifications
d. Maintain internal and external consistency

A

Explanation: Answer a is a valid integrity goal under the model. Answer b is correct because it is a goal of confidentiality. Answer c is a valid integrity goal under the model. Answer d is a valid integrity goal under the model.

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13
Q
  1. Within an Access Control Model, the “Subject” is?

a. The entity which performs an action
b. The entity which is acted upon
c. The user account
d. The program

A

Explanation: Answer a is the correct answer. Answer b is the object. Answer c may be true but subjects are not limited to user entities. Answer d may be true but subjects are not limited to program entities

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following represents a Star Property in the Bell-LaPadula model?

a. Subject cannot read upwards to an object of higher secrecy classification
b. Subject cannot write upwards to an object of higher secrecy classification
c. Subject cannot write downwards to an object of lower secrecy classification
d. Subject cannot read or write upwards or downwards to an object outside of their own secrecy classification

A

Explanation: Answer a would represent a “Simple Security Property”. Answer b would represent a “Strong Star Property”. Answer c is correct – “No Write Down”. Answer d would represent a “Strong Star Property”

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the principle of hardware segmentation as it relates to systems architecture?

a. Machines are stored in different physical locations
b. Disks are split into multiple logical drive letters
c. Virtual memory is divided into segments
d. Computers are given unique IP addresses

A

Explanation: Answer a is not relevant to operating systems architecture. Answer b is not relevant to operating systems architecture. Answer c is the correct answer since user processes cannot access segments restricted to system use. Answer d is not relevant to operating systems architecture.

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16
Q
  1. Mandatory Access Control relates to which of the following?

a. Permanent and irreversible access rules defined within an operating system
b. Controls defined by the security administrator or within his/her policy which are classified as mandatory
c. Control capability defined within an operating system which the security administrator or his/her policy may opt to utilize
d. Controls enforced by the Reference Monitor

A

Explanation: Answer a is correct –controls are built-in and cannot be over-ridden. Answer b is incorrect because Mandatory controls must be hard coded into the operating system, not defined by user policy. Answer c is Discretionary Access Control. Answer d is incorrect because both discretionary and mandatory access controls are enforced within a system by the reference monitor.

17
Q
  1. “Processes have no more privilege than is required to perform authorized functions” is a definition of which System Architecture Principle?

a. Enforcement of greatest access
b. Execution of lowest rights
c. Implementation of highest privilege
d. Enforcement of least privilege

A

Explanation: Answer a is the opposite of the correct answer. Answer b is the correct principle but using the wrong terminology. Answer c is the opposite of the correct answer. Answer d is the correct principle using the documented terminology.

18
Q
  1. What class of Common Criteria protection profile enforces non-discretionary Integrity and Confidentiality?

a. CS1
b. CS1+
c. CS2
d. CS3

A

Explanation: Answer d is the correct answer. Answer a has discretionary Integrity and Confidentiality controls. Answer b has discretionary Integrity and Confidentiality controls. Answer c has discretionary Integrity and Confidentiality controls.

19
Q
  1. Which of the following ITSEC functionality and assurance class ratings corresponds most closely to a C2 rating under TCSEC criteria?

a. F-B3, E6
b. F-B3, E5
c. F-C2, E2
d. F-C1, E1

A

Explanation: Answer a – the E assurance level is not relevant so FB3 roughly equates to B3. Answer b – the E assurance level is not relevant so FB3 roughly equates to B3. Answer c is correct. D– the E assurance level is not relevant so FC1 roughly equates to C1.

20
Q
  1. The information flow model is also known as:

a. The noninterference model.
a. The lattice-based access control model.
b. The risk-acceptance model.
c. The discrete model.

A

Explanation: Answer b is correct. The lattice-based access control model was established in 1976 by Dorothy Denning, and refers to business process flow and identification as opposed to specific access controls. Answer a is incorrect, as it is an alternative model. Answers c and d are intentionally misleading answers and have no relevance.

21
Q
  1. Which of the following represents a Simple Security Property in the Bell-LaPadula model?

a. Subject cannot read upwards to an object of higher secrecy classification
b. Subject cannot read downwards to an object of lower secrecy classification
c. Subject cannot write upwards to an object of higher secrecy classification
d. Subject cannot write downwards to an object of lower secrecy classification

A

Explanation: Answer a is correct – “No Read Up”. Answer b would represent a “Strong Star Property”. Answer c would represent a “Strong Star Property”. Answer d would represent a “Star Property”.

22
Q
  1. “Secondary Storage” as it relates to systems architecture is?

a. Memory directly accessible to the CPU
b. Extending apparent size of RAM by using part of the hard disk
c. A storage location in memory with direct access to peripherals
d. A non-volatile medium to store data even after power-off

A

Explanation: Answer a is “Primary Storage”. Answer b is “Virtual Storage”. Answer c is “Real Storage”. Answer d is correct (e.g., a disk drive).

23
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an attribute of an Open System?

a. It provides a standard interface
b. It provides a non-standard interface
c. It permits interoperability with other systems
d. It permits use of non-proprietary languages

A

Explanation: Answer a is an attribute of an Open System. Answer b is correct – it is a feature of a Closed System”. Answer c is an attribute of an Open System. Answer d is an attribute of an Open System.

24
Q
  1. A “Single State” computer?

a. Simultaneously processes data of two or more security levels
b. Executes only non-privileged instructions
c. Processes data of a single security level at one time
d. Contains data of only one security level or classification

A

Explanation: Answer c is correct. Answer a is Multi-state computer. Answer b is a feature of Problem State. Answer d may be true but refers to the stored contents not the state of operation.

25
Q
  1. “Sequential Memory” as it relates to systems architecture can be defined as?

a. Virtual memory that can be addressed by a process
b. Memory directly accessible to the CPU
c. The addresses allocated by the operating system to stored items
d. Operating system moves through all stored data items in order to reach the desired one

A

Explanation: Answer a is “Address Space”. Answer b is “Random Memory” or “Primary Storage”. Answer c refers to addressing of storage not its sequential retrieval. Answer d is correct.

26
Q
  1. The statement “Subject cannot modify objects of higher integrity” represents which Property of the Biba Access Control Model?

a. Simple Integrity Property
b. Simple Security Property
c. Star Property
d. Integrity Star Property

A

Explanation: Answer a is cannot read down”. Answer b is cannot read up in Bell-LaPadula. Answer c is cannot write down in Bell-LaPadula. Answer d is correct – “No write Up”.

CISSP ISC2 2023 (90 decks)

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