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A+ 220-901 > Domain 2 Session 1 Networking > Flashcards

Domain 2 Session 1 Networking Flashcards

1
Q

Which connector type is used on cables which transmit TV signals?
Choices:

A - SC
B - RJ-11
C - RJ-45
D - Coaxial

A

D - Coaxial

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2
Q

Which are types of twisted-pair connectors? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - LC
B - ST
C - RJ-11
D - RJ-45

A

C - RJ-11

D - RJ-45

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3
Q

Which fiber connector has a round shape?
Choices:

A - LC
B - SC
C - ST
D - MJ

A

C - ST

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4
Q

If a cable has an end that is a T568A end and another end that is a T568B end, which type of cable is being used?
Choices:

A - RJ-11 
B - RJ-45 
C - Crossover cable 
D - Twisted-pair cable 
E - Straight-through cable
A

C - Crossover cable

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5
Q

Striped colored wires are found in which pins?
Choices:

A - Odd pins
B - Even pins
C - Every third pin
D - The beginning and ending pins

A

A - Odd pins

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6
Q

In a crossover cable, what color wire is in Pin 4 on the end connected to a computer if a blue wire is in Pin 4 on the end of the cable connected to a switch?
Choices:

A - Blue
B - Green
C - Brown
D - Orange

A

A - Blue

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7
Q

MDI/MDIX mimics a __________ cable, without the use of one.
Choices:

A - coaxial
B - fiber-optic
C - crossover
D - twisted-pair

A

C - crossover

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8
Q

Which fiber optic cable will travel the longest distance?
Choices:

A - 10GBase-XR
B - 10GBase-LR
C - 10GBase-ER
D - 10GBase-SR

A

C - 10GBase-ER

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9
Q

In an S/UTP cable, how is the cable shielded?
Choices:

A - Shielding is around each pair
B - Shielding is around all four pairs
C - Shielding is only around the outside of the wires
D - Shielding is around each pair and then again around all four pairs

A

A - Shielding is around each pair

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10
Q

A technician needs to run twisted-pair cable though an open space between walls. Which type of cable must be used in this situation?
Choices:

A - PVC
B - CAT5
C - CAT5e
D - Plenum

A

D - Plenum

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11
Q

What can happen if two cables are too close to each other as cables are installed in a network infrastructure?
Choices:

A - EMI
B - ESD
C - Crosstalk
D - Attenuation

A

C - Crosstalk

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12
Q

Which twisted-pair cables transmit at speeds higher than 1 Gbps? Choose three answers.
Choices:

A - CAT 5 
B - CAT 6 
C - CAT 7 
D - CAT 6e 
E - CAT 7e
A

B - CAT 6
C - CAT 7
D - CAT 6e

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13
Q

What makes CAT 7 stand out from CAT 6 and Cat 6e cables?
Choices:

A - It is faster than CAT 6 and CAT 6e
B - It uses individual shielding for wire pairs
C - CAT 7 is more fire-suppressive than CAT 6 or CAT 6e
D - Signals travel a further distance than that of CAT 6 and CAT 6e

A

B - It uses individual shielding for wire pairs

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14
Q

When using a splitter for DSL in a home network, the splitter __________ quality due to __________ signal interference.
Choices:

A - increases; less
B - decreases; less
C - increases; more
D - decreases; more

A

A - increases; less

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15
Q

Which coaxial cable type is usually used for transmitting data between a TV and DVD player?
Choices:

A - RG-6
B - RG-9
C - RG-56
D - RG-59

A

D - RG-59

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16
Q

What is the main role of a coaxial cable splitter?
Choices:

A - Split two TV signals
B - Split two data signals
C - Split the TV signal from streaming data
D - Increase the distance signals can travel

A

C - Split the TV signal from streaming data

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17
Q

IPv4 addresses are __________ bits in length while IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length
Choices:

A - 8
B - 16
C - 24
D - 32

A

D - 32

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18
Q

Binary numbers should be read from __________ to __________.
Choices:

A - right; left
B - left; right
C - largest digit; smallest digit
D - smallest digit; largest digit

A

A - right; left

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19
Q

Which IPv6 address is not a legitimate address?
Choices:

A - 2001:34ea:89ac::e421:0001
B - 2001:45fb:67ac:d001:0006:d471:0001
C - 2001:34fa:67ac:d001:0000:c421:0010
D - 2001:93gb:78ac:d001:0000:e531:0001

A

D - 2001:93gb:78ac:d001:0000:e531:0001

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20
Q

How can the IPv6 address of 2011:0000:0000:2a43:e325:0000:0000:0001 be shown? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - 2011::2a43:e325::1
B - 2011::2a43:e325::0001
C - 2011:0000:0000:2a43:e325::1
D - 2011::2a43:e325:0000:0000:0001

A

C - 2011:0000:0000:2a43:e325::1

D - 2011::2a43:e325:0000:0000:000125::1

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21
Q

Which is not a private IP address?
Choices:

A - 10.1.1.4
B - 172.16.1.4
C - 172.32.1.4
D - 192.168.1.4

A

C - 172.32.1.4

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22
Q

Which is the IPv6 indicator for an APIPA address?
Choices:

A - fe70
B - fe80
C - ed80
D - ee80

A

B - fe80

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23
Q

Which should have static IP addresses? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - Server
B - Printer
C - Laptop
D - Desktop

A

A - Server

B - Printer

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24
Q

On which tab in the TCP/IP v4 Properties can a second IP address be set for a device?
Choices:

A - General
B - Second Address
C - Alternate Address
D - Alternate Configuration

A

D - Alternate Configuration

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25
A device has an IP address of 192.168.1.4 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Which option describes the network portion? Choices: A - 192 B - 192.168 C - 192.168.1 D - 192.168.1.4
C - 192.168.1
26
Each subnet must have a __________ and a __________. Choices: A - host address; control address B - network address; host address C - network address; broadcast address D - submissive address; control address
C - network address; broadcast address
27
``` A class E subnet is reserved for which purpose? Choices: ``` A - Public networks B - Private networks C - Multicast addressing D - Government and experimental use
D - Government and experimental use
28
A technician needs to place 500 devices on a network. Using CIDR, what is the best host IP address? Choices: A - 192.168.0.1/21 B - 192.168.0.1/22 C - 192.168.0.1/23 D - 192.168.0.1/24
C - 192.168.0.1/23
29
What is the subnet mask of a 172.16.4.1/16 network? Choices: A - 255.255.0.0 B - 255.255.255.0 C - 255.255.252.0 D - 255.255.255.128
A - 255.255.0.0
30
The default gateway acts as a __________. Choices: A - message encoder B - message decoder C - network guardian D - switchboard operator
D - switchboard operator
31
The default gateway address for a network is 10.0.2.2. The IPv4 address for a device on the network is 10.0.2.46. The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0. How will the default gateway handle the message from a device within the 10.0.2.2 network? Choices: A - Nothing, the addresses do not match up with one another, so the message will never actually be sent B - Both of the devices are on the same network, so the message will simply be forwarded to the other device C - Both of the devices are on the same network, so the message will be encoded for protection from any sniffing devices D - The devices are on two separate networks, so the default gateway will encode the message and route it outside of the network
B - Both of the devices are on the same network, so the message will simply be forwarded to the other device
32
Which protocol uses UDP to transfer files? Choices: A - FTP B - TFTP C - HTTP D - HTTPS
B - TFTP
33
Which protocol uses port numbers 137-139 and 445? Choices: A - DNS B - SMB C - POP3 D - IMAP
B - SMB
34
Which ports are reserved for the AFP protocol? Choose two answers. Choices: A - Port 80 B - Port 427 C - Port 443 D - Port 548
B - Port 427 | D - Port 548
35
Which ports are used for the Internet? Choose two answers. Choices: A - Port 20- FTP B - Port 80- HTTP C - Port 23- Telnet D - Port 443- HTTPS
B - Port 80- HTTP | D - Port 443- HTTPS
36
Which port is reserved for the DNS protocol? Choices: A - Port 25 B - Port 32 C - Port 45 D - Port 53
D - Port 53
37
Which protocol is used to connect to remote systems without encryption? Choices: A - SSH B - SMTP C - IMAP D - Telnet
D - Telnet
38
On which port is the RDP protocol located? Choices: A - 23 B - 995 C - 1358 D - 3389
D - 3389
39
Which ports and protocols are used for incoming email? Choose two answers. Choices: A - Port 25- SMTP B - Port 143- IMAP C - Port 110- POP3 D - Port 465- SMPTS
B - Port 143- IMAP | C - Port 110- POP3
40
TCP/IP is a/an __________. Choices: A - single protocol B - suite of protocols C - port for protocols D - optional setting for TCP
B - suite of protocols
41
802.11n can run at speeds of __________ and up to __________ on a dual link. Choices: A - 200 Mbps; 400 Mbps B - 300 Mbps; 400 Mbps C - 200 Mbps; 500 Mbps D - 300 Mbps; 600 Mbps
D - 300 Mbps; 600 Mbps
42
In the 802.11ac standard, each antenna can run up to 400 Mbps. A smartphone generally has __________, while a desktop may have up to __________ antennas. Choices: A - one; four B - one; five C - two; four D - two five
A - one; four
43
Which 802.11 standards are susceptible to interference from cordless phones and microwave ovens? Choose three answers. Choices: ``` A - 802.11a B - 802.11b C - 802.11c D - 802.11g E - 802.11n F - 802.11ac ```
B - 802.11b D - 802.11g E - 802.11n
44
WPA2 replaced which wireless encryption protocols? Choose two answers. Choices: A - WEP B - WPA C - WEP2 D - WPA.b
A - WEP | B - WPA
45
Which mode, supported by both WPA and WPA2, uses RADIUS? Choices: A - Public B - Private C - Personal D - Enterprise
D - Enterprise
46
Which encryption type is used with WPA? Choices: A - AES B - WEP C - TKIP D - PITA
C - TKIP
47
Which 2.4 GHz channels are safe to use on the North American continent? Choose three answers. Choices: ``` A - 1 B - 2 C - 3 D - 5 E - 6 F - 9 G - 10 H - 11 ```
A - 1 E - 6 H - 11
48
A small business is looking for a cheap solution for configuring a DMZ. Which is the best option for the company? Choices: A - Installing a firewall between the Internet and Web server only B - Installing a firewall between the Web server and the internal network only C - Installing a single firewall with connections to the Internet, Web server, and the internal network D - Installing a firewall between the Internet and Web server and then installing
C - Installing a single firewall with connections to the Internet, Web server, and the internal network
49
NAT is run on which type of device? Choices: A - A switch B - A wireless antenna C - A port between the public and private networks D - A router or firewall placed between the public and private networks
D - A router or firewall placed between the public and private networks
50
DNAT assigns private addresses a public address from a pool of available __________. Choices: A - static IP addresses B - public IP addresses C - private IP addresses D - dynamic IP addresses
B - public IP addresses
51
Under which menu are the settings for UPnP found? Choices: A - Setup B - Security C - Administration D - Advanced Setup
D - Advanced Setup
52
Which type of Internet connection is typically shared with other customers in the area? Choices: A - Fiber B - Cable C - Dial-up D - Digital subscriber line
B - Cable
53
In ADSL, download speeds are __________ to/than upload speeds. Choices: A - equal B - faster C - slower D - more distant
B - faster
54
Fiber Internet connections are available in all areas. A - True B - False
B - False
55
In a satellite Internet connection, signal has to travel over __________ before reaching the satellite, and will then travel back to Earth. Choices: A - 10,000 miles B - 15,000 miles C - 20,000 miles D - 25,000 miles
C - 20,000 miles
56
Which are the two most common cellular connection types? Choices: A - E B - 2G C - 4G D - 4G LTE
C - 4G | D - 4G LTE
57
Which are methods used to connect to a mobile hotspot? Choose two answers. Choices: A - A USB cable B - A MiFi device C - An RJ-11 cable D - An access point on a smartphone or tablet
B - A MiFi device | D - An access point on a smartphone or tablet
58
A SOHO network is an example of which type of network? Choices: A - LAN B - PAN C - MAN D - WAN
A - LAN
59
Which type of network is comprised of several LANs in separate locations? Choices: A - LAN B - PAN C - MAN D - WAN
D - WAN
60
WANs are almost always leased from a __________. Choices: A - large IT firm B - cable company C - telephone company D - telecommunications provider
D - telecommunications provider
61
PANs typically are used with which type of devices? Choices: A - High security devices B - Wi-Fi-related devices C - Bluetooth-related devices D - Devices which need a physical connection
C - Bluetooth-related devices
62
Which type of network architecture device sends a received signal to every device on a network? Choices: A - Hub B - Port C - Switch D - Router
A - Hub
63
Which type of network architecture device replaced a hub? Choices: A - Hub B - Port C - Switch D - Router
C - Switch
64
A router can act as an access point but will also need a modem to perform which action? Choices: A - Route traffic between networks B - Route traffic from the Internet into the network C - Route traffic from the network out to the Internet D - Encrypt incoming traffic from the Internet to be used on the network
B - Route traffic from the Internet into the network
65
Which two types of modems are found in most business configurations? Choices: A - DSL B - Cable C - Dial-up D - Fiber optic
A - DSL | B - Cable
66
Which is a common type of bridge found in modern networks? Choices: A - Wired bridge B - Virtual bridge C - Physical bridge D - Wireless bridge
D - Wireless bridge
67
A patch panel typically sits between cables in a wall and which other network architecture device? Choices: A - Port B - Bridge C - Switch D - Router
C - Switch
68
Which is the definition of Ethernet over Power? Choices: A - A device which controls the signal strength of an Ethernet network B - A hacking method in which an Ethernet connection is overtaken by a faulty firewall C - An adapter which allows for an Ethernet connection using an existing electrical wiring in a building D - A method of delivering DC voltage over Cat 5 cabling to access points, wireless bridges, or wireless workgroup bridges in order to provide power to the unit
C - An adapter which allows for an Ethernet connection using an existing electrical wiring in a building
69
Which option uses a PoE injector? Choices: A - VoIP B - Port-forwarding C - A network adaptor D - A wireless repeater
A - VoIP
70
A __________ sends a signal from one end of a cable, while a __________ receives the signal at the other end. Choices: A - tone generator; tone probe B - tone probe; tone generator C - tone speaker; tone finisher D - tone encryptor; tone decrypter
A - tone generator; tone probe
71
A Wi-Fi analyzer is often a simple _________ to identify Wi-Fi networks in an area. Choices: A - app B - tool C - device D - command prompt command
A - app

A+ 220-901 (5 decks)

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