Domain 1 Lesson 1 Post Assessment Questions Flashcards
1
Q
Which keyboard key can boot a computer directly to the BIOS?
Choices:
A - Esc
B - Delete
C - Up Arrow
D - Down Arrow
A
B - Delete
2
Q
Which BIOS screen shows a list of computer drives?
Choices:
A - Cell Menu
B - Integrated Peripherals
C - Advanced BIOS Features
D - Standard CMOS Features
A
D - Standard CMOS Features
3
Q
A user is having trouble booting into a computer. A technician removes the USB drive and the computer boots normally. Where in the BIOS can the technician go to change a setting so that the computer does not have this problem in the future?
Choices:
A - Security
B - Peripherals
C - Boot Sequence
D - Password Settings
A
C - Boot Sequence
4
Q
Which BIOS setting controls whether a system boots up on its own after a power outage has ended? Choices \: A - Green Power Settings B - Power Saving Settings C - Restore at end of outage D - Restore on AC Power Loss
A
D - Restore on AC Power Loss
5
Q
Which types of passwords are usually found in a BIOS? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - User
B - Network
C - Supervisor
D - Operating system
A
A - User
C - Supervisor
6
Q
In a BIOS, overclocking information is typically saved in __________.
Choices:
A - CPU
B - RAM
C - Password Settings
D - Overclocking Profile
A
D - Overclocking Profile
7
Q
Which is the inherent problem when increasing a CPU's clock settings? Choices: A - Temperature may be too low B - Temperature may be too high C - CPU may be too fast for RAM D - CPU may be too slow for RAM
A
B - Temperature may be too high
8
Q
Which part of a computer can be encrypted in some BIOS settings?
Choices:
A - CPU
B - RAM
C - Hard drive
D - Network card
A
C - Hard drive
9
Q
Which BIOS setting indicates that the case is being removed from the computer?
Choices:
A - TPM
B - LoJack
C - Secure Boot
D - Intrusion detection and notification
A
D - Intrusion detection and notification
10
Q
Which Windows screen shows the BIOS information, including the BIOS number?
Choices:
A - System
B - System Information
C - System Configuration
D - Computer Management
A
B - System Information
11
Q
Which types of motherboards do not usually need fan or liquid cooling? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - ITX
B - ATX
C - Mini ITX
D - Micro ATX
A
A - ITX
C - Mini ITX
12
Q
Which motherboard typically has a square shape?
Choices:
A - ITX
B - ATX
C - Mini ITX
D - Micro ATX
A
D - Micro ATX
13
Q
Which type of chipset interacts with onboard graphics, expansion slots, and USB?
Choices:
A - Eastbridge
B - Westbridge
C - Southbridge
D - Northbridge
A
C - Southbridge
14
Q
If the system date and time keeps resetting every time a computer is booted up, which item is most likely failing?
Choices:
A - CPU
B - Timer
C - CMOS battery
D - Windows drivers
A
C - CMOS battery
15
Q
Which is a type of fan connector?
Choices:
A - PIX
B - Pinx
C - Molex
D - Simplex
A
C - Molex
16
Q
Which are types of front panel connectors? Choose four answers.
Choices:
A - USB B - SATA C - FireWire D - Ethernet E - Headphone F - Microphone
A
A - USB
C - FireWire
E - Headphone
F - Microphone
17
Q
A user is trying to turn a computer on. They have pushed the power button, but the power light is not on. Which are possible reasons for this issue? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - The computer has a virus
B - The hard drive has crashed
C - The computer is unplugged
D - The power cable inside the computer is disconnected
A
C - The computer is unplugged
D - The power cable inside the computer is disconnected
18
Q
Bus speeds are measured using which method of measurement?
Choices:
A - Hz
B - Bits
C - Bytes
D - Light years
A
A - Hz
19
Q
Which is the oldest type of RAM?
Choices:
A - SSD
B - DDR
C - DDR2
D - SO-DIMM
A
B - DDR
20
Q
Which type of RAM is used in laptops?
Choices:
A - USB
B - DDR
C - DDR2
D - SO-DIMM
A
D - SO-DIMM
21
Q
A __________- sided RAM chip can run both of its sides at a time while a __________- sided chip can only run one side at a time.
Choices:
A - octo; uni
B - double; uni
C - single; double
D - double; single
A
C - single; double
22
Q
Which error checking method is only used in high-end machines?
Choices:
A - Flash
B - Parity
C - ECC RAM
D - Performance monitor
A
C - ECC RAM
23
Q
Buffered memory has an extra chip on the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ module to handle large amounts of processing. Choices:
A - Bus
B - DIMM
C - SO-DIMM
D - Performance
A
B - DIMM
24
Q
Which is the first step to installing a video or sound card?
Choices:
A - Get the drivers
B - Open the machine
C - Turn the machine on
D - Install the sound card
A
A - Get the drivers
25
Video cards are installed in which type of slot?
Choices:
A - PCI
B - Kerberos
C - PCI Video
D - PCI Express
D - PCI Express
26
Which are types of expansion cards? Choose four answers.
Choices:
```
A - Riser
B - SATA
C - Modem
D - TV tuner
E - Notebook
F - Thunderbolt
```
A - Riser
C - Modem
D - TV tuner
F - Thunderbolt
27
Which type of expansion card sometimes has built-in RAID support?
Choices:
A - Cellular
B - Storage
C - Wireless
D - Video capture
B - Storage
28
Which are types of optical drives? Choose three answers.
Choices:
```
A - CD
B - USB
C - DVD
D - SATA
E - Blu-ray
```
A - CD
C - DVD
E - Blu-ray
29
Which are different types of recordable discs? Choose four answers.
Choices:
```
A - BD-R
B - BD-RE
C - CD-ZD
D - DVD-RW
E - DVD-WTR
F - DVD-RW DL
```
A - BD-R
B - BD-RE
D - DVD-RW
F - DVD-RW DL
30
Which best defines a hot swappable device?
Choices:
A - An optical drive that can be installed into a machine while it is running
B - A solid-state drive that can be uninstalled on a machine while it is running
C - A USB drive that can be installed or uninstalled on a machine while it is running
D - A hard drive that can be installed or uninstalled into a machine while it is running
D - A hard drive that can be installed or uninstalled into a machine while it is running
31
Which are types of flash memory drives? Choose four answers.
Choices:
```
A - xD
B - MiniSD
C - Mini USB
D - MicroSD
E - Micro USB
F - Compact Flash
```
A - xD
B - MiniSD
D - MicroSD
F - Compact Flash
32
Which is a regular SD measurement?
Choices:
A - 24 x 32 mm
B - 36 x 43 mm
C - 43 x 36 mm
D - 50 x 100 mm
A - 24 x 32 mm
33
Which best defines an eMMC?
Choices:
A - A combination of an SSD and HDD device
B - Flash memory and a controller that controls media output
C - Flash memory and a controller that controls media output and how long the system remains powered
D - Flash memory and a controller that goes into a small ball grid array as a permanent attachment to circuit boards
D - Flash memory and a controller that goes into a small ball grid array as a permanent attachment to circuit boards
34
How many hard drives are used in a RAID 0?
Choices:
A - One
B - Two
C - Four
D - Three
B - Two
35
Which is a tape drive backup method?
Choices:
A - Waterfall
B - Hierarchical
C - Grandfather, Father, Son
D - Grandmother, Mother, Daughter
C - Grandfather, Father, Son
36
A movie lover needs to store a movie that is over 2 GB large. Which form of media should the movie lover use?
Choices:
A - CD
B - VCR
C - DVD
D - Tape
C - DVD
37
Which are Intel CPU socket types? Choose four answers.
Choices:
```
A - 775
B - 904
C - 941
D - 1150
E - 1366
F - 2011
```
A - 775
D - 1150
E - 1366
F - 2011
38
Which are groups of AMD CPU sockets? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - SM
B - FM
C - XM
D - AM
B - FM
| D - AM
39
When it comes to CPUs, having multiple cores does not mean there are multiple __________.
Choices:
A - drives
B - servers
C - networks
D - processors
D - processors
40
Which best defines a CPU cache?
Choices:
A - A place where a CPU stores important ROM
B - An expansion device used to store RAM instructions
C - A CPU element that stores instructions the CPU will need again in SRAM
D - A CPU element that stores instructions the CPU will need again in DRAM
C - A CPU element that stores instructions the CPU will need again in SRAM
41
Virtualization support ensures users can support which type of virtual machines?
Choices:
A - AMD
B - 32-bit
C - 64-bit
D - Kerberos
C - 64-bit
42
Which are the two different types of CPU architecture?
Choices:
A - AMD
B - Intel
C - 32-bit
D - 64-bit
C - 32-bit
| D - 64-bit
43
Which best describes what the Execute Disable Bit does?
Choices:
A - Disables code execution in the CPU when a worm tries to insert code into it
B - Disables code execution in the GPU when a worm tries to insert code into it
C - Disables code execution in the buffer when a worm tries to insert code into it
D - Disables code execution in the motherboard when a worm tries to insert code into it
C - Disables code execution in the buffer when a worm tries to insert code into it
44
Which are CPU cooling methods? Choose five answers.
Choices:
```
A - Fans
B - Heat sink
C - Liquid paste
D - Liquid-based
E - Thermal paste
F - Fanless/passive
G - Fanless/aggressive
```
```
A - Fans
B - Heat sink
D - Liquid-based
E - Thermal paste
F - Fanless/passive
```
45
Which are types of physical computer connections? Choose four answers.
Choices:
```
A - USB
B - Micro
C - Apex
D - SATA
E - Simple
F - FireWire
```
A - USB
B - Micro
D - SATA
F - FireWire
46
USB 3.0 cables can support up to how many bits?
Choices:
A - 1 Tb
B - 5 Gb
C - 12 Mb
D - 480 Mb
B - 5 Gb
47
A user has a client who needs to be able to transfer data from one site to another as quickly as possible. Which SATA cable should the user install?
Choices:
A - SATA 1
B - SATA 2
C - SATA 3
D - SATA 4
C - SATA 3
48
Which are types of network connectors? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - DVI
B - VGA
C - RJ-11
D - RJ-45
C - RJ-11
| D - RJ-45
49
Which are types of PC video connectors? Choose four answers.
Choices:
```
A - VGA
B - HDMI
C - DVI-A
D - DVI-D
E - FireWire
F - Thunderclap
```
A - VGA
B - HDMI
C - DVI-A
D - DVI-D
50
Thunderbolt connectors combine __________ and DisplayPort into one signal.
Choices:
A - SATA
B - FireWire
C - Ethernet
D - PCI Express
D - PCI Express
51
Which is the typical signal used for a wireless network?
Choices:
A - IR
B - RF
C - NFC
D - Bluetooth
B - RF
52
Which form of wireless connection is more common on smartphones than on desktops and laptops?
Choices:
A - IR
B - RF
C - NFC
D - Bluetooth
C - NFC
53
Which are power supply connector types? Choose three answers.
Choices:
```
A - SATA
B - FireWire
C - 4/8-pin CPU
D - 10/20-pin heat sink
E - 20/24-pin motherboard
```
A - SATA
C - 4/8-pin CPU
E - 20/24-pin motherboard
54
For an ATX case, a user would need __________ watts or higher, but for a micro-ATX, __________ to 300 watts should be sufficient.
Choices:
A - 100; 180
B - 180; 200
C - 300; 100
D - 300; 180
D - 300; 180
55
Which type of rail is dedicated to the CPU of a computer?
Choices:
A - Rail
B - Dual rail
C - Purma rail
D - Second rail
B - Dual rail
56
Which items are required for a Graphic/CAD/CAM design workstation? Choose three answers.
```
A - Hyper-V
B - Multicore processor
C - High-end video card
D - At least 8 GB of RAM
E - At least 16 GB of RAM
```
B - Multicore processor
C - High-end video card
D - At least 8 GB of RAM
57
Which two items are most important to a virtualization workstation?
Choices:
A - RAM
B - CPU cores
C - Video card
D - Sound card
A - RAM
| B - CPU cores
58
A home theater PC has surround sound audio, HDMI output, an HTPC compact form factor and (a) __________.
Choices:
A - TV tuner
B - liquid cooling
C - dedicated RAM
D - multicore processor
A - TV tuner
59
Which best defines a thin client workstation?
Choices:
A - A machine with RAID capabilities
B - A machine with a dedicated video card
C - A machine with an operating system and basic applications
D - A machine with an operating system, basic applications, and network connectivity
D - A machine with an operating system, basic applications, and network connectivity
60
Which are the two types of LCD monitor panels?
Choices:
A - LED
B - Fluorescent
C - Twisted Nematic
D - In-plane switching
C - Twisted Nematic
| D - In-plane switching
61
Which are types of displays? Choose three answers.
Choices:
```
A - DVI
B - OLED
C - HDMI
D - Plasma
E - Projector
```
B - OLED
D - Plasma
E - Projector
62
Frame rate refers to how many __________ appear on the screen per second.
Choices:
A - colors
B - pixels
C - frames
D - images
C - frames
63
Brightness is the degree in which the overall lighting will appear on a screen while __________ are/is the measured unit(s) that dictate(s) the amount of light output.
Choices:
A - pixels
B - lumens
C - lichtung
D - resolution
B - lumens
64
Which are standard interfaces for analog or digital monitors? Choose three answers.
Choices:
```
A - DVI
B - USB
C - VGA
D - HDMI
E - Coaxial
```
A - DVI
C - VGA
D - HDMI
65
Which is required in order to attach two monitors to one computer with only one monitor connection?
Choices:
A - Hub
B - Splitter
C - Silencer
D - Repeater
B - Splitter
66
Users can configure multiple displays in which ways? Choose three answers.
Choices:
```
A - Extend the displays
B - Duplicate the displays
C - Maximize the display potential
D - Display the devices using a DVR
E - Show the desktop on only one of the displays
```
A - Extend the displays
B - Duplicate the displays
E - Show the desktop on only one of the displays
67
Which are types of DVI cables? Choose three answers.
Choices:
```
A - DVI-I
B - DVI-R
C - DVI-D
D - DVI-A
E - DVI-HD
```
A - DVI-I
C - DVI-D
D - DVI-A
68
Which display connector type transmits video, audio, and USB signals for monitors that have USB connectors?
Choices:
A - RCA
B - BNC
C - miniHDMI
D - DisplayPort
D - DisplayPort
69
Which type of display cables use colors and consist of at least three separate cords? Choose two answers.
Choices:
```
A - DVI
B - VGA
C - HDMI
D - Coaxial
E - Composite
F - Component
```
E - Composite
| F - Component
70
Which SATA cable type is longer?
Choices:
A - eSATA
B - SATA 1
C - SATA 2
D - SATA 3
A - eSATA
71
Which are 9-pin FireWire cables? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - I500
B - I700
C - S1600
D - S3200
C - S1600
| D - S3200
72
For old PS/2 ports, __________ is for a mouse and __________ is for a keyboard.
Choices:
A - green; purple
B - purple; green
C - green; orange
D - orange; green
A - green; purple
73
Which are cable adapters and converters? Choose four answers.
Choices:
```
A - DVI to VGA
B - PS/2 to USB
C - HDMI to VGA
D - DVI-D to VGA
E - Coaxial to DVI
F - Thunderbolt to HDMI
```
A - DVI to VGA
B - PS/2 to USB
C - HDMI to VGA
F - Thunderbolt to HDMI
74
Which are computer input devices? Choose five answers.
Choices:
```
A - Mouse
B - Printer
C - Monitor
D - Webcam
E - Keyboard
F - Touchpad
G - Microphone
```
```
A - Mouse
D - Webcam
E - Keyboard
F - Touchpad
G - Microphone
```
75
Which are gaming input devices? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - Joystick
B - Light tan
C - Speakers
D - Gamepad
A - Joystick
| D - Gamepad
76
Which computer input devices are used to record images and videos? Choose two answers.
Choices:
```
A - Digitizer
B - Virtualizer
C - Camcorder
D - Digital camera
E - Biometric devices
```
C - Camcorder
| D - Digital camera
77
Which are considered both input and output devices? Choose three answers.
Choices:
```
A - Printer
B - Keyboard
C - KVM switch
D - MIDI device
E - Touch screen
```
C - KVM switch
D - MIDI device
E - Touch screen
78
A __________ is an input and output device which uses an Internet connection to stream content though applications.
Choices:
A - monitor
B - smart TV
C - MIDI device
D - KVM switch
B - smart TV
79
Which are printer configuration settings? Choose four answers.
Choices:
```
A - Duplex
B - Collate
C - Quality
D - Preview
E - Green view
F - Orientation
```
A - Duplex
B - Collate
C - Quality
F - Orientation
80
In addition to a wired connection like __________, users can share printers wirelessly.
Choices:
A - DVI
B - USB
C - VGA
D - HDMI
B - USB
81
A user needs to use a wireless connection for their printer. The printer is only five meters away. Which form of wireless connection should the user utilize?
Choices:
A - IR
B - RF
C - Coaxial
D - Bluetooth
D - Bluetooth
82
Which are the two connection types when setting up a printer wirelessly?
Choices:
```
A - Ad-hoc
B - Kerberos
C - Waterfall
D - Hierarchical
E - Infrastructure
```
A - Ad-hoc
| E - Infrastructure
83
Which are Apple-based features that help share devices like printers over a network? Choose two answers.
A - Jaguar
B - AirPrint
C - Bonjour
D - Mountain Lion
B - AirPrint
| C - Bonjour
84
How high can a hard drive cache be on a solid-state drive?
Choices:
A - 1 Gb
B - 8 Mb
C - 128 Gb
D - 128 Mb
A - 1 Gb
85
Which are parts of an inkjet printer? Choose five answers.
Choices:
```
A - Feeder
B - Fulcrum
C - Carriage
D - Print head
E - Alternator
F - Ink cartridge
G - Duplexing assembly
```
```
A - Feeder
C - Carriage
D - Print head
F - Ink cartridge
G - Duplexing assembly
```
86
Which best defines the thermal printer process?
Choices:
A - A feeder pushes paper through a sprocket where it prints
B - A feeder pushes thermal paper through a sprocket where it changes color and prints
C - A feeder pushes paper until it advances through a spooler where it heats up, changes color and prints
D - A feeder pushes thermal paper until it advances through a sprocket, heats up, changes color, and prints
D - A feeder pushes thermal paper until it advances through a sprocket, heats up, changes color, and prints
87
Which elements are associated with impact printers? Choose four answers.
Choices:
```
A - Pin
B - Ribbon
C - Print head
D - Tractor feed
E - Impact paper
F - Thermal paper
```
A - Pin
B - Ribbon
C - Print head
D - Tractor feed
88
Which virtual print option is Microsoft's answer for users with no PDF reader?
Choices:
A - Print to file
B - Print to XPS
C - Print to image
D - Print to JavaScript
B - Print to XPS
89
A user needs to perform some routine maintenance on their laser printer. Which actions should the user perform? Choose two answers.
Choices:
A - Cleaning
B - Buy new plugs
C - Replace the toner
D - Replace the sprockets
A - Cleaning
| C - Replace the toner
90
Which is a reason a user should replace the print head of an impact printer?
Choices:
A - When there is a paper jam
B - When the pins stop working
C - When the platen gets dented
D - When there is dust in the print head
B - When the pins stop working
91
Which are inkjet printer maintenance actions? Choose four answers.
Choices:
```
A - Clear jams
B - Calibration
C - Clean heads
D - Replace platen
E - Replace ribbon
F - Replace cartridges
```
A - Clear jams
B - Calibration
C - Clean heads
F - Replace cartridges
