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A+ 220-901 > Domain 1 Lesson 1 Post Assessment Questions > Flashcards

Domain 1 Lesson 1 Post Assessment Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which keyboard key can boot a computer directly to the BIOS?
Choices:

A - Esc
B - Delete
C - Up Arrow
D - Down Arrow

A

B - Delete

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2
Q

Which BIOS screen shows a list of computer drives?
Choices:

A - Cell Menu
B - Integrated Peripherals
C - Advanced BIOS Features
D - Standard CMOS Features

A

D - Standard CMOS Features

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3
Q

A user is having trouble booting into a computer. A technician removes the USB drive and the computer boots normally. Where in the BIOS can the technician go to change a setting so that the computer does not have this problem in the future?
Choices:

A - Security
B - Peripherals
C - Boot Sequence
D - Password Settings

A

C - Boot Sequence

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4
Q 
Which BIOS setting controls whether a system boots up on its own after a power outage has ended?
Choices
\:
A - Green Power Settings 
B - Power Saving Settings 
C - Restore at end of outage 
D - Restore on AC Power Loss
A

D - Restore on AC Power Loss

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5
Q

Which types of passwords are usually found in a BIOS? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - User
B - Network
C - Supervisor
D - Operating system

A

A - User

C - Supervisor

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6
Q

In a BIOS, overclocking information is typically saved in __________.
Choices:

A - CPU
B - RAM
C - Password Settings
D - Overclocking Profile

A

D - Overclocking Profile

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7
Q 
Which is the inherent problem when increasing a CPU's clock settings?
Choices:
A - Temperature may be too low 
B - Temperature may be too high 
C - CPU may be too fast for RAM 
D - CPU may be too slow for RAM
A

B - Temperature may be too high

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8
Q

Which part of a computer can be encrypted in some BIOS settings?
Choices:

A - CPU
B - RAM
C - Hard drive
D - Network card

A

C - Hard drive

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9
Q

Which BIOS setting indicates that the case is being removed from the computer?
Choices:

A - TPM
B - LoJack
C - Secure Boot
D - Intrusion detection and notification

A

D - Intrusion detection and notification

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10
Q

Which Windows screen shows the BIOS information, including the BIOS number?
Choices:

A - System
B - System Information
C - System Configuration
D - Computer Management

A

B - System Information

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11
Q

Which types of motherboards do not usually need fan or liquid cooling? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - ITX
B - ATX
C - Mini ITX
D - Micro ATX

A

A - ITX

C - Mini ITX

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12
Q

Which motherboard typically has a square shape?
Choices:

A - ITX
B - ATX
C - Mini ITX
D - Micro ATX

A

D - Micro ATX

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13
Q

Which type of chipset interacts with onboard graphics, expansion slots, and USB?
Choices:

A - Eastbridge
B - Westbridge
C - Southbridge
D - Northbridge

A

C - Southbridge

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14
Q

If the system date and time keeps resetting every time a computer is booted up, which item is most likely failing?
Choices:

A - CPU
B - Timer
C - CMOS battery
D - Windows drivers

A

C - CMOS battery

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15
Q

Which is a type of fan connector?
Choices:

A - PIX
B - Pinx
C - Molex
D - Simplex

A

C - Molex

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16
Q

Which are types of front panel connectors? Choose four answers.
Choices:

A - USB
B - SATA 
C - FireWire 
D - Ethernet 
E - Headphone 
F - Microphone
A

A - USB
C - FireWire
E - Headphone
F - Microphone

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17
Q

A user is trying to turn a computer on. They have pushed the power button, but the power light is not on. Which are possible reasons for this issue? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - The computer has a virus
B - The hard drive has crashed
C - The computer is unplugged
D - The power cable inside the computer is disconnected

A

C - The computer is unplugged

D - The power cable inside the computer is disconnected

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18
Q

Bus speeds are measured using which method of measurement?
Choices:

A - Hz
B - Bits
C - Bytes
D - Light years

A

A - Hz

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19
Q

Which is the oldest type of RAM?
Choices:

A - SSD
B - DDR
C - DDR2
D - SO-DIMM

A

B - DDR

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20
Q

Which type of RAM is used in laptops?
Choices:

A - USB
B - DDR
C - DDR2
D - SO-DIMM

A

D - SO-DIMM

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21
Q

A __________- sided RAM chip can run both of its sides at a time while a __________- sided chip can only run one side at a time.
Choices:

A - octo; uni
B - double; uni
C - single; double
D - double; single

A

C - single; double

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22
Q

Which error checking method is only used in high-end machines?
Choices:

A - Flash
B - Parity
C - ECC RAM
D - Performance monitor

A

C - ECC RAM

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23
Q 
Buffered memory has an extra chip on the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ module to handle large amounts of processing.
Choices:

A - Bus
B - DIMM
C - SO-DIMM
D - Performance

A

B - DIMM

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24
Q

Which is the first step to installing a video or sound card?
Choices:

A - Get the drivers
B - Open the machine
C - Turn the machine on
D - Install the sound card

A

A - Get the drivers

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25
Q

Video cards are installed in which type of slot?
Choices:

A - PCI
B - Kerberos
C - PCI Video
D - PCI Express

A

D - PCI Express

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26
Q

Which are types of expansion cards? Choose four answers.
Choices:

A - Riser 
B - SATA 
C - Modem 
D - TV tuner 
E - Notebook 
F - Thunderbolt
A

A - Riser
C - Modem
D - TV tuner
F - Thunderbolt

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27
Q

Which type of expansion card sometimes has built-in RAID support?
Choices:

A - Cellular
B - Storage
C - Wireless
D - Video capture

A

B - Storage

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28
Q

Which are types of optical drives? Choose three answers.
Choices:

A - CD 
B - USB 
C - DVD 
D - SATA 
E - Blu-ray
A

A - CD
C - DVD
E - Blu-ray

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29
Q

Which are different types of recordable discs? Choose four answers.
Choices:

A - BD-R 
B - BD-RE 
C - CD-ZD 
D - DVD-RW 
E - DVD-WTR 
F - DVD-RW DL
A

A - BD-R
B - BD-RE
D - DVD-RW
F - DVD-RW DL

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30
Q

Which best defines a hot swappable device?
Choices:

A - An optical drive that can be installed into a machine while it is running
B - A solid-state drive that can be uninstalled on a machine while it is running
C - A USB drive that can be installed or uninstalled on a machine while it is running
D - A hard drive that can be installed or uninstalled into a machine while it is running

A

D - A hard drive that can be installed or uninstalled into a machine while it is running

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31
Q

Which are types of flash memory drives? Choose four answers.
Choices:

A - xD 
B - MiniSD 
C - Mini USB 
D - MicroSD 
E - Micro USB 
F - Compact Flash
A

A - xD
B - MiniSD
D - MicroSD
F - Compact Flash

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32
Q

Which is a regular SD measurement?
Choices:

A - 24 x 32 mm
B - 36 x 43 mm
C - 43 x 36 mm
D - 50 x 100 mm

A

A - 24 x 32 mm

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33
Q

Which best defines an eMMC?
Choices:

A - A combination of an SSD and HDD device
B - Flash memory and a controller that controls media output
C - Flash memory and a controller that controls media output and how long the system remains powered
D - Flash memory and a controller that goes into a small ball grid array as a permanent attachment to circuit boards

A

D - Flash memory and a controller that goes into a small ball grid array as a permanent attachment to circuit boards

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34
Q

How many hard drives are used in a RAID 0?
Choices:

A - One
B - Two
C - Four
D - Three

A

B - Two

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35
Q

Which is a tape drive backup method?
Choices:

A - Waterfall
B - Hierarchical
C - Grandfather, Father, Son
D - Grandmother, Mother, Daughter

A

C - Grandfather, Father, Son

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36
Q

A movie lover needs to store a movie that is over 2 GB large. Which form of media should the movie lover use?
Choices:

A - CD
B - VCR
C - DVD
D - Tape

A

C - DVD

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37
Q

Which are Intel CPU socket types? Choose four answers.
Choices:

A - 775 
B - 904 
C - 941 
D - 1150 
E - 1366 
F - 2011
A

A - 775
D - 1150
E - 1366
F - 2011

38
Q

Which are groups of AMD CPU sockets? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - SM
B - FM
C - XM
D - AM

A

B - FM

D - AM

39
Q

When it comes to CPUs, having multiple cores does not mean there are multiple __________.
Choices:

A - drives
B - servers
C - networks
D - processors

A

D - processors

40
Q

Which best defines a CPU cache?
Choices:

A - A place where a CPU stores important ROM
B - An expansion device used to store RAM instructions
C - A CPU element that stores instructions the CPU will need again in SRAM
D - A CPU element that stores instructions the CPU will need again in DRAM

A

C - A CPU element that stores instructions the CPU will need again in SRAM

41
Q

Virtualization support ensures users can support which type of virtual machines?
Choices:

A - AMD
B - 32-bit
C - 64-bit
D - Kerberos

A

C - 64-bit

42
Q

Which are the two different types of CPU architecture?
Choices:

A - AMD
B - Intel
C - 32-bit
D - 64-bit

A

C - 32-bit

D - 64-bit

43
Q

Which best describes what the Execute Disable Bit does?
Choices:

A - Disables code execution in the CPU when a worm tries to insert code into it
B - Disables code execution in the GPU when a worm tries to insert code into it
C - Disables code execution in the buffer when a worm tries to insert code into it
D - Disables code execution in the motherboard when a worm tries to insert code into it

A

C - Disables code execution in the buffer when a worm tries to insert code into it

44
Q

Which are CPU cooling methods? Choose five answers.
Choices:

A - Fans 
B - Heat sink 
C - Liquid paste 
D - Liquid-based 
E - Thermal paste 
F - Fanless/passive 
G - Fanless/aggressive
A 
A - Fans 
B - Heat sink 
D - Liquid-based 
E - Thermal paste 
F - Fanless/passive
45
Q

Which are types of physical computer connections? Choose four answers.
Choices:

A - USB 
B - Micro 
C - Apex 
D - SATA 
E - Simple 
F - FireWire
A

A - USB
B - Micro
D - SATA
F - FireWire

46
Q

USB 3.0 cables can support up to how many bits?
Choices:

A - 1 Tb
B - 5 Gb
C - 12 Mb
D - 480 Mb

47
Q

A user has a client who needs to be able to transfer data from one site to another as quickly as possible. Which SATA cable should the user install?
Choices:

A - SATA 1
B - SATA 2
C - SATA 3
D - SATA 4

A

C - SATA 3

48
Q

Which are types of network connectors? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - DVI
B - VGA
C - RJ-11
D - RJ-45

A

C - RJ-11

D - RJ-45

49
Q

Which are types of PC video connectors? Choose four answers.
Choices:

A - VGA 
B - HDMI 
C - DVI-A 
D - DVI-D 
E - FireWire 
F - Thunderclap
A

A - VGA
B - HDMI
C - DVI-A
D - DVI-D

50
Q

Thunderbolt connectors combine __________ and DisplayPort into one signal.
Choices:

A - SATA
B - FireWire
C - Ethernet
D - PCI Express

A

D - PCI Express

51
Q

Which is the typical signal used for a wireless network?
Choices:

A - IR
B - RF
C - NFC
D - Bluetooth

52
Q

Which form of wireless connection is more common on smartphones than on desktops and laptops?
Choices:

A - IR
B - RF
C - NFC
D - Bluetooth

53
Q

Which are power supply connector types? Choose three answers.
Choices:

A - SATA
B - FireWire 
C - 4/8-pin CPU 
D - 10/20-pin heat sink 
E - 20/24-pin motherboard
A

A - SATA
C - 4/8-pin CPU
E - 20/24-pin motherboard

54
Q

For an ATX case, a user would need __________ watts or higher, but for a micro-ATX, __________ to 300 watts should be sufficient.
Choices:

A - 100; 180
B - 180; 200
C - 300; 100
D - 300; 180

A

D - 300; 180

55
Q

Which type of rail is dedicated to the CPU of a computer?
Choices:

A - Rail
B - Dual rail
C - Purma rail
D - Second rail

A

B - Dual rail

56
Q

Which items are required for a Graphic/CAD/CAM design workstation? Choose three answers.

A - Hyper-V 
B - Multicore processor 
C - High-end video card 
D - At least 8 GB of RAM 
E - At least 16 GB of RAM
A

B - Multicore processor
C - High-end video card
D - At least 8 GB of RAM

57
Q

Which two items are most important to a virtualization workstation?
Choices:

A - RAM
B - CPU cores
C - Video card
D - Sound card

A

A - RAM

B - CPU cores

58
Q

A home theater PC has surround sound audio, HDMI output, an HTPC compact form factor and (a) __________.
Choices:

A - TV tuner
B - liquid cooling
C - dedicated RAM
D - multicore processor

A

A - TV tuner

59
Q

Which best defines a thin client workstation?
Choices:

A - A machine with RAID capabilities
B - A machine with a dedicated video card
C - A machine with an operating system and basic applications
D - A machine with an operating system, basic applications, and network connectivity

A

D - A machine with an operating system, basic applications, and network connectivity

60
Q

Which are the two types of LCD monitor panels?
Choices:

A - LED
B - Fluorescent
C - Twisted Nematic
D - In-plane switching

A

C - Twisted Nematic

D - In-plane switching

61
Q

Which are types of displays? Choose three answers.
Choices:

A - DVI 
B - OLED 
C - HDMI 
D - Plasma 
E - Projector
A

B - OLED
D - Plasma
E - Projector

62
Q

Frame rate refers to how many __________ appear on the screen per second.
Choices:

A - colors
B - pixels
C - frames
D - images

A

C - frames

63
Q

Brightness is the degree in which the overall lighting will appear on a screen while __________ are/is the measured unit(s) that dictate(s) the amount of light output.
Choices:

A - pixels
B - lumens
C - lichtung
D - resolution

A

B - lumens

64
Q

Which are standard interfaces for analog or digital monitors? Choose three answers.
Choices:

A - DVI 
B - USB 
C - VGA 
D - HDMI 
E - Coaxial
A

A - DVI
C - VGA
D - HDMI

65
Q

Which is required in order to attach two monitors to one computer with only one monitor connection?
Choices:

A - Hub
B - Splitter
C - Silencer
D - Repeater

A

B - Splitter

66
Q

Users can configure multiple displays in which ways? Choose three answers.
Choices:

A - Extend the displays 
B - Duplicate the displays 
C - Maximize the display potential 
D - Display the devices using a DVR 
E - Show the desktop on only one of the displays
A

A - Extend the displays
B - Duplicate the displays
E - Show the desktop on only one of the displays

67
Q

Which are types of DVI cables? Choose three answers.
Choices:

A - DVI-I 
B - DVI-R 
C - DVI-D 
D - DVI-A 
E - DVI-HD
A

A - DVI-I
C - DVI-D
D - DVI-A

68
Q

Which display connector type transmits video, audio, and USB signals for monitors that have USB connectors?
Choices:

A - RCA
B - BNC
C - miniHDMI
D - DisplayPort

A

D - DisplayPort

69
Q

Which type of display cables use colors and consist of at least three separate cords? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - DVI 
B - VGA 
C - HDMI
D - Coaxial 
E - Composite 
F - Component
A

E - Composite

F - Component

70
Q

Which SATA cable type is longer?
Choices:

A - eSATA
B - SATA 1
C - SATA 2
D - SATA 3

71
Q

Which are 9-pin FireWire cables? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - I500
B - I700
C - S1600
D - S3200

A

C - S1600

D - S3200

72
Q

For old PS/2 ports, __________ is for a mouse and __________ is for a keyboard.
Choices:

A - green; purple
B - purple; green
C - green; orange
D - orange; green

A

A - green; purple

73
Q

Which are cable adapters and converters? Choose four answers.
Choices:

A - DVI to VGA 
B - PS/2 to USB 
C - HDMI to VGA 
D - DVI-D to VGA 
E - Coaxial to DVI 
F - Thunderbolt to HDMI
A

A - DVI to VGA
B - PS/2 to USB
C - HDMI to VGA
F - Thunderbolt to HDMI

74
Q

Which are computer input devices? Choose five answers.
Choices:

A - Mouse 
B - Printer 
C - Monitor 
D - Webcam 
E - Keyboard 
F - Touchpad 
G - Microphone
A 
A - Mouse 
D - Webcam 
E - Keyboard 
F - Touchpad 
G - Microphone
75
Q

Which are gaming input devices? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - Joystick
B - Light tan
C - Speakers
D - Gamepad

A

A - Joystick

D - Gamepad

76
Q

Which computer input devices are used to record images and videos? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - Digitizer 
B - Virtualizer 
C - Camcorder 
D - Digital camera 
E - Biometric devices
A

C - Camcorder

D - Digital camera

77
Q

Which are considered both input and output devices? Choose three answers.
Choices:

A - Printer 
B - Keyboard 
C - KVM switch 
D - MIDI device 
E - Touch screen
A

C - KVM switch
D - MIDI device
E - Touch screen

78
Q

A __________ is an input and output device which uses an Internet connection to stream content though applications.
Choices:

A - monitor
B - smart TV
C - MIDI device
D - KVM switch

A

B - smart TV

79
Q

Which are printer configuration settings? Choose four answers.
Choices:

A - Duplex 
B - Collate 
C - Quality 
D - Preview 
E - Green view 
F - Orientation
A

A - Duplex
B - Collate
C - Quality
F - Orientation

80
Q

In addition to a wired connection like __________, users can share printers wirelessly.
Choices:

A - DVI
B - USB
C - VGA
D - HDMI

81
Q

A user needs to use a wireless connection for their printer. The printer is only five meters away. Which form of wireless connection should the user utilize?
Choices:

A - IR
B - RF
C - Coaxial
D - Bluetooth

A

D - Bluetooth

82
Q

Which are the two connection types when setting up a printer wirelessly?
Choices:

A - Ad-hoc 
B - Kerberos 
C - Waterfall 
D - Hierarchical 
E - Infrastructure
A

A - Ad-hoc

E - Infrastructure

83
Q

Which are Apple-based features that help share devices like printers over a network? Choose two answers.

A - Jaguar
B - AirPrint
C - Bonjour
D - Mountain Lion

A

B - AirPrint

C - Bonjour

84
Q

How high can a hard drive cache be on a solid-state drive?
Choices:

A - 1 Gb
B - 8 Mb
C - 128 Gb
D - 128 Mb

85
Q

Which are parts of an inkjet printer? Choose five answers.
Choices:

A - Feeder 
B - Fulcrum 
C - Carriage 
D - Print head 
E - Alternator 
F - Ink cartridge 
G - Duplexing assembly
A 
A - Feeder 
C - Carriage 
D - Print head 
F - Ink cartridge 
G - Duplexing assembly
86
Q

Which best defines the thermal printer process?
Choices:

A - A feeder pushes paper through a sprocket where it prints
B - A feeder pushes thermal paper through a sprocket where it changes color and prints
C - A feeder pushes paper until it advances through a spooler where it heats up, changes color and prints
D - A feeder pushes thermal paper until it advances through a sprocket, heats up, changes color, and prints

A

D - A feeder pushes thermal paper until it advances through a sprocket, heats up, changes color, and prints

87
Q

Which elements are associated with impact printers? Choose four answers.
Choices:

A - Pin 
B - Ribbon
C - Print head 
D - Tractor feed 
E - Impact paper 
F - Thermal paper
A

A - Pin
B - Ribbon
C - Print head
D - Tractor feed

88
Q

Which virtual print option is Microsoft’s answer for users with no PDF reader?
Choices:

A - Print to file
B - Print to XPS
C - Print to image
D - Print to JavaScript

A

B - Print to XPS

89
Q

A user needs to perform some routine maintenance on their laser printer. Which actions should the user perform? Choose two answers.
Choices:

A - Cleaning
B - Buy new plugs
C - Replace the toner
D - Replace the sprockets

A

A - Cleaning

C - Replace the toner

90
Q

Which is a reason a user should replace the print head of an impact printer?
Choices:

A - When there is a paper jam
B - When the pins stop working
C - When the platen gets dented
D - When there is dust in the print head

A

B - When the pins stop working

91
Q

Which are inkjet printer maintenance actions? Choose four answers.
Choices:

A - Clear jams 
B - Calibration 
C - Clean heads 
D - Replace platen 
E - Replace ribbon 
F - Replace cartridges
A

A - Clear jams
B - Calibration
C - Clean heads
F - Replace cartridges

A+ 220-901 (5 decks)

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