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Bio Exam 5 > DNA > Flashcards

DNA Flashcards

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1
Q

The amino acids that correspond to three nucleotide codons of mRNA?

A

Genetic code

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2
Q

The strand of DNA that is not used to transcribe mRNA; this strand is identical to the mRNA except that T nucleotides in the DNA are replaced by U nucleotides in the mRNA

A

Non-template strand

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3
Q

The enzyme that catalyzes the joining of DNA fragments together

A

DNA ligase

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4
Q

A form of RNA that carries the nucleotide sequence code for a protein sequence that is translated into a polypeptide sequence

A

mRNA

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5
Q

The molecule shape of DNA in which two strands a nucleotides wind around each other in a spiral shape

A

Double helix

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6
Q

Bond between the sugar and phosphate group that builds the backbone of DNA

A

Phosphodiester bond

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7
Q

Connects the nitrogenous bases according to base pair rules : A-T, G-C, holding DNA into its 3D shape

A

Hydrogen bond

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8
Q

Method used to amplify many copies of the DNA fragments in the process of DNA fingerprinting

A

Polymerase chain reaction

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9
Q

Enzyme from Thermos Aquaticus, a thermophile, responsible for building the complementary strands of DNA during PCR; heat stable

A

Taq polymerase

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10
Q

Molecular scissors that can cut DNA at specific locations

A

Restriction enzymes

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11
Q

A short nucleic acid sequence that provides a starting point for DNA synthesis

A

Primer

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12
Q

Specific equipment responsible for DNA sequencing, cloning, generation probes, quantification of DNA and more

A

Thermocycler

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13
Q

The process of removing the DNA from the nucleus and the rest of the cellular material

A

DNA extraction

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14
Q

The four nitrogenous bases of DNA

A

Adenine thyamine cytosine guanine (A,T,C,G)

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15
Q

A simple machine that makes a small containers of liquid

A

Vortex

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16
Q

If I have eight DNA nucleotides, how many DNA bases do I have? And how many base pairs?

A

Each nucleotide-regardless of whether it’s a DNA or RNA nucleotide-has a phosphate, sugar, and a base.
(So 8 DNA nucleotides would have 8 bases. DNA bases pair in twos which equal 4 DNA base pairs)

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17
Q

What would be the complementary DNA bases for this strand?-
If one strand of DNA has the base pairs: A, T, T, G, A, C… can you complete what the complimentary DNA bases would be for the other DNA strand?

A

Remember the base pairing rules for DNA and the popular mnemonic “apple to tree” (A-T) and car to garage” (C-G). Answer: T, A, A, C, T, G

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18
Q

In a process known as transcription, a complimentary RNA strand called Messenger RNA has to compliment the DNA. So if we still had the original portion of DNA: A,T,T,G,A,C… What would be the complementary RNA bases?

A

RNA= AU “apples under”, CG “car garage” Answer: U,A,A,C,U,G

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19
Q

True or false: bases are read in 3’s, so a codon is how these bases will be read. (E.g, AUG, CCA, GUC, etc.)

A

True

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20
Q

True or false: by reading a code on chart, you can determine the amino acids that will be brought in by the tRNAs. You can also determine the sequence of amino acids that make up a protein.

A

True

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21
Q

True or false: The most common ways to read a chart are the rectangular codon chart and the circular codon charts

A

True

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22
Q

True or false: codons are on the mRNA. The start mRNA is AUG.

A

True

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23
Q

True or false: The tRNA anticodon will be UAC if the mRNA is AUG (because of the base pairing rule)

A

True

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24
Q

True or false: when using a codon chart it is the mRNA that we look at.

A

True

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25
Q

True or false: In a rectangular codon chart, The left side of the chart is: first base, The top part is: second base, and the right side is: third base

A

True

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26
Q

True or false: The code mRNA for AUG stands for methionine.

A

True

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27
Q

True or false: methionine is commonly the starting amino acid for many polypeptide chains as AUG is a start codon.

A

True

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28
Q

True or false: when an mRNA reaches a STOP- It means it doesn’t code for an amino acid And it’s the end of a sequence for a polypeptide.

A

True

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29
Q

Who discovered relationships between DNA bases; A to T and G to C (the base pair rule)?

A

Erwin Chargaff

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30
Q

Who took X-ray crystallography DNA image number 51?

A

Rosalind Franklin, Raymond Gosling, Maurice Wilkins

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31
Q

Long, double helix, deoxyribose, nucleus only-guanine, cytozine, adamine, thymine=

A

DNA Structure

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32
Q

Short, single strand, ribose, nucleus or cytoplasm- juanine, cytozine, adenine, uracil

A

RNA structure

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33
Q

5’ prime carbon - 3’ prime carbon (DNA runs anti parallel)

A

Anti-parallel configuration

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34
Q

The three parts of a nucleotide

A

Neutrogynous base, pentose sugar, phosphate group

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35
Q

What are the two nitrogenous bases

A

Purines and pyrimidines

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36
Q

Double ring, guanine, adenine

A

Purine

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37
Q

Single ring, thiamine (uracell in RNA), cytosine

A

Pyrimidine

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38
Q

Forms between pento sugars and phosphate groups; creates backbone of DNA

A

Phosphodiester bonds

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39
Q

Nucleotides attached two ways

A

Phosphodiester bonds and hydrogen bonds

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40
Q

Form between complimentary nitrogenous base pairs; holds two DNA strands together; forms rungs of a ladder

A

Hydrogen bonds

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41
Q

DNA: A to T, G to C
RNA: A to U, G to C

A

Chargoffs base pairing rule

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42
Q

Occurs in “S” synthesis phase of interphase; 1) double helix unwinds and unzips (replication fork), 2) each parent strand of double helix serves as a template, 3) free floating DNA nucleotides are assembled according to base pair rules to form complementary daughter strand 5’-3’

A

DNA replication basics

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43
Q

What are the 5 bonds

A

Ionic, covalent (polar and nonpolar), hydrogen, peptide, phosphodiester

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44
Q

Forms between pentose sugars and phosphate groups; creates backbone of DNA

A

Phosphodiester bond

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45
Q

True or false: The Human genome contains 3 billion base pairs

A

True

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46
Q

True or false: DNA replication results in two double stranded DNA molecules identical to original DNA

A

True

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47
Q

Discontinuous synthesis on the lagging strand produces DNA segments

A

Okazaki fragment

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48
Q

Discontinuous synthesis occurs 5’-3’ (away from replication fork) and runs out of DNA

A

Lagging strand

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49
Q

True or false: leading and lagging strands are daughter strands

A

True

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50
Q

Searches DNA for initiation site

A

DNA promoter

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51
Q

Region from promoter to Terminator

A

Coding sequence

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52
Q

Detects termination signal and releases primary mRNA

A

Terminator

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53
Q

What are the 3 stages of transcription

A

DNA promoter, coding sequence, terminator

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54
Q

Sequence of three nucleotides in DNA or RNA that codes for specific amino acids; signals beginning or end of protein synthesis

A

Codon

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55
Q

Keratin, muscles, enzymes, hemoglobin, antibodies, JETRAT (junction, enzyme, transport, recognition, attachment, transduction), ribosomes, hair and nails

A

Types of proteins

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56
Q

Assemble according to base pair rules: U-A, C-A

A

Free floating RNA nucleotides

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57
Q

Bond between amino acids of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of another

A

Peptide bonds

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58
Q

True or false: There are more variation at RNA sequences

A

True

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59
Q

Original DNA is split and each half is used as template to assemble new

A

Semi-conservative replication

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60
Q

What are the five enzymes

A

DNA helicase, RNA primase, DNA polymerase 3, DNA polymerase 1, DNA ligase

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61
Q

Unwinds and unzips double helix of DNA; two parent strands

A

DNA helicases

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62
Q

Creates RNA primer; attaches to end

A

RNA primase

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63
Q

Builds daughter strand in 5’-3’ direction; requires primer, must move in 5’-3’ direction; proofreads as it builds daughter strand

A

DNA polymerase 3

64
Q

Degrades RNA primer and replicates it with DNA nucleotide

A

DNA polymerase 1

65
Q

Seals gaps in DNA backbone on lagging strand

A

DNA ligase

66
Q

5’-3’

A

Lagging strand

67
Q

3’-5’

A

Leading strand

68
Q

Two stages of making proteins

A

Transcriptions and translation

69
Q

Flow of information from gene or DNA nucleotide sequence to protein production (DNA- RNA to protein)

A

Central dogma of biology

70
Q

Happens in nucleus; short (1) strand segment of original DNA; creates complimentary messenger RNA strand

A

Transcription DNA to RNA

71
Q

True or false: translation is RNA to protein that creates a polypeptide

A

True

72
Q

Enzyme that controls transcription; assigns promoter; unwinds Helix and detects termination

A

RNA polymerase

73
Q

Transcribes messenger and DNA and carries out ribosome for protein synthesis

A

mRNA processing

74
Q

Needs to get ready and dressed

A

Pre mRNA

75
Q

Three steps of mRNA processing

A

5’ cap, 3’ cap and splicing

76
Q

Coding regions

A

Exons

77
Q

Non-coding regions

A

Introns

78
Q

Mature RNA

A

Splicing

79
Q

True or false: translation process occurs in ribosomes

A

True

80
Q

3 RNA types

A

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

81
Q

Carries genetic code information from DNA to ribosome

A

mRNA (messenger)

82
Q

Three nucleotides in DNA are RNA that correspond to specific amino acids; signal start or end of protein synthesis

A

Codon

83
Q

True or false: There are 64 codons

A

True

84
Q

Transports amino acids to ribosomes

A

tRNA (transfer)

85
Q

Complementary to mRNA; found on bottom of transfer RNA

A

Anticodons

86
Q

Where amino acids attach- “shuttle”

A

Amino acid attachment site (AAA site)

87
Q

Forms ribosome with protein; polypeptide is built; has large and small subunits; A acceptor site, P peptide site, E exit site

A

rRNA (ribosomal)

88
Q

What are the 3 tRNA building sites

A

A- acceptor, P- peptide, E- exit

89
Q

Considered redundant but not ambiguous; very specific, universal to all life on Earth

A

Genetic code

90
Q

3 types of RNA

A

Messenger (mRNA), transfer (tRNA), ribosomal (rRNA)

91
Q

What are the 3 stages of transcription

A

Initiation, elongation, termination

92
Q

First step; RNA polymerase binds to DNA and promoter; initiating unwinding of double helix to access template strand (promoter)

A

Initiation transcription

93
Q

RNA polymerase moves a long DNA template strand; adding nucleotides to RNA by base pairing rules with DNA sequence; (coding sequence)

A

Elongation transcription

94
Q

Final stage; RNA polymerase reaches termination sequence on DNA; causing RNA to detach and transcription process ends (Terminator)

A

Termination transcription

95
Q

3 stages of translation?

A

Initiation, elongation, termination

96
Q

Starting translation by assembling ribosome, mRNA and first tRNA molecule at start codon (start codon)

A

Initiation translation

97
Q

Sequential addition of amino acids to growing polypeptide chain as ribosome moves along mRNA (mRNA codone)

A

Elongation translation

98
Q

Final stage where polypeptide chain is released from ribosome when a stop codon is reached (stop codon releasing factor)

A

Termination translation

99
Q

What are the different categories of mutations you can see in DNA (genetic changes)?

A

Point mutations, frame shift, chromosomal

100
Q

Insertions or deletions that shift reading frame

A

Frame shift mutations

101
Q

Large scale changes like deletions, duplications, inversions and translocations

A

Chromosomal mutations

102
Q

Study of how environmental factors and behaviors can alter gene function without changing DNA sequence; changes can: affect how a body reads DNA sequences

A

Epigenetics

103
Q

Effects how body reads DNA sequences; impact production of protein in cells; influence risk of disease; passed from parents to children

A

Changes in Epigenetics

104
Q

Diet, exercise, sleep, smoking, alcohol, stress,, toxin exposure (pollution, cigarette smoke), chemicals (BPA, lead), RX

A

Changes in epigenetics that are caused by these

105
Q

True or false: Epigenetics can be reversible and are different from genetic changes

A

True

106
Q

What does CRISPR stand for?

A

Clustered, regularly, interspace, short, palindromic, repeats

107
Q

Genetic sequence found in bacteria that acts as defense mechanism against viruses; scientists have adapted this system to create a powerful tool for gene editing in the lab

A

CRISPR

108
Q

DNA sequence that read the same forwards and backwards

A

Palindromic

109
Q

What are the three types of stem cells?

A

Totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent

110
Q

Derived from early embryo and have potential to develop into any cell type in the body

A

Embryonic stem cell

111
Q

Found in various tissues throughout the body; can differ into limited range of cell type specific to their tissue origin

A

Adult stem cells

112
Q

Adult cells reprogram to behave like embryonic stem cells, allowing them to differentiate into various cell types

A

Induced pluripotent stem cell

113
Q

What are the three base substitutions/point mutations?

A

Silent, nonsense, missense mutations

114
Q

What are the two frameshift mutations?

A

Insertions and deletions

115
Q

True or false: an insertion or deletion of one or two bases is generally worse than an insertion or deletion of 3, 6 or 9 bases because it can shift the reading frame of the genetic message causing major impact.

A

True

116
Q

What is an example of a missense mutation?

A

Sickle cell anemia

117
Q

True or false: most mutations result from unrepared DNA polymerase errors during DNA replication (spontaneous mutations)

A

True

118
Q

True or false: non-ionizing radiation (UV light), results in thymine dimmers, which lead to skin cancer.

A

True

119
Q

True or false: for every second exposed to the sun, a skin cell accumulates 50 to 100 thymine dimmers

A

True

120
Q

True or false: Gene expression takes place differently in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

True

121
Q

True or false: prokaryotes have OPERONS

A

True

122
Q

Functionally related genes group together on chromosome, switched on or off together

A

OPERON

123
Q

Dissaccharide made of glucose and galactose

A

LAC= lactose

124
Q

Bacteria can use lactose for energy; glucose is favorite energy source when both glucose and lactose are present; enzymes to digest lactose are only needed when lactose is present (positive control) and glucose is low

A

LAC OPERON

125
Q

The production of enzymes that break down lactose

A

LAC OPERON

126
Q

When the DNA is uncoiled and loosened from nucleosomes to bind transcription factors

A

Epigenetic level

127
Q

When the RNA is transcribed

A

Transcriptional level

128
Q

When the RNA is processed and exported to the cytoplasm after it is transcribed

A

Post transcriptional level

129
Q

When tRNA is translated into protein

A

Translational level

130
Q

After the protein has been made

A

Post translational level

131
Q

True or false: eukaryotes don’t have operons

A

True

132
Q

True or false: in eukaryotic gene expression, functionally related genes are not necessarily grouped spatially

A

True

133
Q

True or false: In eukaryotic gene expression, coordinated expression is achieved by multiple similar control regions associated with functionally related genes

A

True

134
Q

True or false: Eukaryotic gene expression, coordinate control of genes via similar control elements, rather than operons

A

True

135
Q

A few specific methods for Eukaryotic gene expressions:

A

Chromatin modifications- (histone acetylation and DNA methylation); DNA control sequences (enhancers in silencers); regulator proteins (activators and repressors); transcription factors; alternative splicing of mRNA; degradation of mRNA; blockage of translation; proteasomes

136
Q

Non-genetic influences on gene expression or phenotype changes without genotype changes

A

Epi genetics

137
Q

True or false: maternal exposure to famine in early pregnancy increases the child’s risk of coronary heart disease, obesity and schizophrenia as an adult

A

True

138
Q

True or false: all the information needed to build a new individual is encoded in the DNA sequence of the bases ATGC

A

True

139
Q

Part of a DNA base sequence that codes for a specific protein

A

Gene

140
Q

More primitive organisms, no nucleus, transcription and translation occurs simultaneously and regulation primarily at transcription level, archaebacteria and eubacteria

A

Prokaryote

141
Q

Membrane-bound organelles (specialize in function-nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplast), transcription occurs first in nucleus then translation occurs in the cytoplasm, many levels regulation, protist, fungi, plants and animals

A

Eukaryot es

142
Q

True or false: only prokaryotes have operons

A

True

143
Q

True or false: coordinated expression is achieved by multiple similar control regions associated with functionally related genes

A

True

144
Q

True or false: epigenetics can be changed by environment and lifestyle. These can affect gene expression for you and generations of your offspring

A

True

145
Q

True or false: nucleosomes can slide along DNA. When nucleosomes are condensed (top), from methylation of DNA, transcription factors cannot bind and gene expression is (turned off).

A

True

146
Q

True or false: when the nucleosomes are spaced far apart (bottom), from acetylation of histones, the DNA is exposed. Transcription factors can bind, allowing gene expression to occur. (Turns on)

A

True

147
Q

True or false: cAMP levels increase only when glucose levels are low

A

True

148
Q

Red blood cells

A

Erythrocytes

149
Q

White blood cells

A

Leukocytes

150
Q

Platelets

A

Thrombocytes

151
Q

Protein that transports oxygen to all parts of the body

A

Hemoglobin

152
Q

The transparent, yellowish fluid portion of blood

A

Plasma

153
Q

Type of shock that results from significant blood loss

A

Hypovolemic shock

154
Q

Proteins on the surface of B cells that are secreted into the blood due to exposure to an antigen

A

Antibodies

155
Q

Universal blood donor

A

O negative

156
Q

Universal recipient

A

Type O, A B positive

157
Q

When red blood cells with A or B antigens mixed with anti-a or anti-B antibodies and cause red blood cell clumping

A

Agglutinate

Bio Exam 5 (3 decks)

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