Diuretics Flashcards

1
Q

Natriuretic Peptides are involved in:

A

long-term regulation of sodium and water balance, blood volume and arterial pressure

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2
Q

2 Major Actions of Natriuretic Peptides

A
  1. Vasodilator effects (directly dilate veins and arteries)
  2. Decrease Renin release, which decreases circulating levels of angiotensin II and aldosterone. This leads to further natriuresis and diuresis
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3
Q

Natriuretic Peptides serve as acounter-regulatory system for the:

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

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4
Q

ANP is produced by:

A

atrial myocytes

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5
Q

Functions of ANP

A

Relax smooth muscle
Promote NaCl and water excretion by kidney

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6
Q

ANP: Stimuli for release

A

Atrial stretch (increased Extra Cellular Volume)

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7
Q

Actions of ANP:

A

Inhibit Renin release
Inhibits aldosterone secretion
Acts directly on the collecting duct to decrease NaCl reabsorption (fine tuning urine)
Inhibits ADH release from the posterior pituitary

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8
Q

Elevated levels of ANP are found during _____ states such as occurs in___ ____.

A

hypervolemic
Heart failure

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9
Q

BNP (brain natriuretic peptide) is synthesized in the _____ and ____ and is released by the same mechanisms as _____ with similar physiological actions.

A

ventricles and brain
ANP

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10
Q

ANP and BNP will _____GRF by _____ the afferent arteriole and _____ the efferent arteriole.

A

increase
dilating
constricting

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11
Q

Cardiovascular and RenalActions of Natriuretic Peptides

A

Natriuresis and Diuresis
Improve glomerular filtration rate & filtration fraction
Inhibit renin release-
↓ circulating angiotensin II
↓ circulating aldosterone
Systemic vasodilation
Arterial hypotension
Reduced venous pressure
Reduced pulmonary capillarywedge pressure

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12
Q

Diuretics will ______ the rate of sodium reabsorption from the ______ which causes sodium output to increase (naturiesis) and results in diuresis.

A

decrease
tubules

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13
Q

Although many diuretics work within minutes this effects will…..
what are they end results?

A

decreases over the next few days with chronic use

Decreasse ECF , decrease MAP, decrease GFR, INCREASE Renin and Angiotensin II (override effects of diuretics)

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14
Q

Osmotic diuretics (urea and mannitol) will……and work at the _____ _____.

A

draw fluid into the tubules
proximal tubule

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15
Q

Loop Diuretics: Action and location

A

inhibit the Na-2Cl-K co-transporter in the TAL of Henle’s loop

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16
Q

The most used diuretic

A

Thiazide Diuretics

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17
Q

Thiazide Diuretics: Action and location

A

inhibit sodium chloride reabsorption in the early distal tubule.

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18
Q

Thiazides: Increase sodium reabsorption in exhancege for _____ and _____ ions

A

potassium and hydrogen

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19
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors example:

A

acetazolamide (Diamox)

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20
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors: Action and location

A

Reduce reabsorption of Na+ in the proximal convoluted tubule by decreasing bicarbonate reabsorption.

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21
Q

Disadvantage with Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors

A

causes acidosis through bicarbonate loss in the urine.

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22
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors main use?

A

glaucoma.

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23
Q

Aldosterone Antagonists example

A

Example: spironolactone (Aldactone)

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24
Q

Spironolactone: Action and location

A

Potassium-sparing diuretics:
Decreases reabsorption of Na+ and decreases K+ secretion by competing for aldosterone binding sites in the distal segment of the distal tubule.

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25
Q

Aldosterone Antagonists are often used in conjunction with thiazide or loop diuretics to help prevent _______.

A

hypokalemia

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26
Q

Other diuretics that spare potassium?

A

Na+ Channel Blockers
Examples: amiloride and triamterene

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27
Q

Osmoticdiuretics (mannitol)

A

Mainly proximal tubules

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28
Q

Loopdiuretics (furosemide, bumetanide)

A

Thick ascending loop of Henle

29
Q
A
30
Q

Thiazidediuretics (hydrochlorothiazide, chlorthalidone)

A

Early distal tubules

31
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide)

A

Proximal tubules

32
Q

Aldosterone antagonists (spironolactone, eplerenone)

A

Collecting tubules

33
Q

Sodium channel blockers (triamterene, amiloride)

A

Collecting tubules

34
Q

______ is the leading cause of end-stage renaldisease(ESRD), followed by hypertension.

A

Diabetes Mellitus

35
Q

Pre- Renal Failure definition and example:

A

Kidney not getting enough blood flow and therefore becomes ischemic

Examples: heart failure, hypovolemia

36
Q

Intra- Renal Failure definition and example:

A

Damage to the kidney itself

Examples: Toxins, infections, autoimmune disease, direct renal injury

37
Q

Post- Renal Failure definition and example:

A

Obstruction of the collecting system

Examples: Stones, urethral valves, tied off ureter, kinked Foley

38
Q

CKD: Symptoms often do not occur until the number of functioning nephrons decreases to at least ____% below normal.

A

70%

39
Q

CKDis usually defined as the presence of kidney damage or decreased kidney function that persists for at least __ months.

A

3

40
Q

Refers to sclerotic lesions of smaller arteries, arterioles, and glomeruli:

A

Nephrosclerosis

41
Q

Glomerulonephritis:

A

Most caused by deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in glomerular membranes
Can be post-streptococcal infection
Lupus can also cause this
AKI following sugery

42
Q

A condition in which the bones are partially absorbed and, therefore, become greatly weakened:

A

Osteomalacia

43
Q

Kidney lesions which decrease water and sodium excretion promote _________.

A

hypertension

44
Q

Effective treatment of hypertension requires enhancing the kidneys’ capability to excrete _____ and _____.
How?

A

salt and water

Either by increasing GFR or by decreasing tubular reabsorption

45
Q

Drugs that vasodilate the kidneys and increase GFR

A

calcium channel blockers

46
Q

Dialysis: The rate of movement of solute across this membrane depends on:

A

-concentration gradient of the solute**
-permeability and surface area of the membrane
-length of time the blood and fluid remain in contact with the membrane.

47
Q

Usually there is about ____ cc of blood in the dialysis machine at any time

A

500

48
Q

Indications for Dialysis

A

Fluid overload
Hyperkalemia
Severe acidosis
Metabolic encephalopathy
Pericarditis
Coagulopathy
Refractory GI symptoms
Drug toxicity

49
Q

Normal BUN:

A

Normally 10-20 mg/dL

50
Q

Normal Creatinine:

A

0.8-1.3 mg/dL in men; 0.6-1.0 in women

51
Q

Creatinine concentration is directly related to body _____ _____ and is inversely related to _____.

A

muscle mass
GFR

52
Q

GFR _______ with age in most people (___% decline per decade after age 20)

A

decreases
5%

53
Q

Succinylcholine is safe in patients with K<____ mEq/L, will transiently increase K+ by almost ___ mEq/L

A

5
0.5

54
Q

Cis-atracurium as it is degraded by ______ ______.

A

Hoffman elimination

55
Q

Muscle relaxants to avoid with decreased renal function:

A

Pancuronium, pipecuronium, alcuronium, doxacurium as these are primarily dependent on renal excretion

56
Q

______ ______ are the most likely group of drugs used in anesthetic practice to produce prolonged effects in ESRD because of their dependence onrenalexcretion.

A

muscle relaxants

57
Q

Is Sugammadex excreted by the kidneys?

A

YES

58
Q

______ is not currently indicated in patients with renal failure, pediatrics, and ICU patients.

A

Sugammadex

59
Q

Fluids: best to avoid _____ as it has 4mEq/L of K+

A

LR

60
Q

If serum potassium is ≥ ____mEq/L,we generally dialyze the patient. ____ hours of hemodialysis will typically suffice to prepare a patient for surgery

A

5.5
2 hours

61
Q

Studies have shown that DDAVP ______ vWF–factor-VIII levels and _______ bleeding time within approximately 1 h after infusion or injection.

A

increase
decreases

62
Q

________ is a key factor in the causation of perioperative renal failure

A

Hypovolemia

63
Q

Post-op renal failure has a mortality of _____

A

~50%

64
Q

True or False: It is easier to treat the complications of fluid overload than it is to treat acute renal failure!

A

TRUE

65
Q

Most common type of kidney stone:

A

Calcium Oxalate Stones

66
Q

Most stones <____mmpass spontaneously

A

4

67
Q

More common where diet rich in protein, fat and alcohol

A

Gout

68
Q
A