Disorders of the kidney and urinary tract Flashcards

1
Q

a) Define AKI and it’s diagnostic features
b) What are the 5 most common causes of AKI and what 4 clinical settings often preceed it?
c) What are the 3 broad categories that cause AKI?

A

a) AKI is defined by the impairment of kidney filtration and excretory function over days to weeks. It represents a heterogenous group of conditions that share common diagnostic features e.g. Increase in serum creatinine (SCr), reduction in urine volume and reduction in eGFR.
b) Common causes include volume depletion, heart failure, adverse effects of medications, obstruction of the urinary tract, or malignancy. The most common clinical settings for AKI are sepsis, major surgical procedures, critical illness involving heart or liver failure, and nephrotoxic medication administration.
c) Prerenal Azotemia (azo=nitrogen; emia=blood); Intrinsic; Postrenal

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2
Q

a) What are the most common causes of prerenal AKI? (4)
b) What are the 3 anatomical parts of the kidney involved in intrinsic AKI?
c) What are the 3 most common causes of damage to the tubules and interstitium?
d) What are the exogenous (6) and endogenous (4) types of nephrotoxins?

A

a) 1-Hypovalaemia, 2-Decreased CO, 3-Decreased effective circulating volume (CHF &/or Liver failure), 4-Impaired renal autoregulation (NSAIDS, ACEI/ARB, Cyclosporins)
b) Glomerulus (acute glomerular nephritis), Tubules and interstitium, Vascular (vasculitis, malignant hypertension, TTP-HUS)
c) Ischaemia, Sepsis/Infection, Nephrotoxins
d) Exogenous: Iodinated contrast, aminoglycosides, cisplatin, amphotericin B, PPIs, NSAIDs

Endogenous: Haemolysis, rhabdomyolysis, myeloma, intratubular crystals

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3
Q

a) What is the most common form of AKI and what are the conditions that cause it?
b) What occurs with prolonged periods of prerenal azotemia?
c) What is the significance of elevated Urea in AKI?

A

a) Prerenal azotemia is the most common form of AKI resulting in increased SCr &/or BUN due to inadequate renal plasma flow and intraglomerular hydrostatic pressure to support normal glomerular filtration. Commonly associated with hypovolaemia, decreased CO, and nephrotoxic medications.
b) Prolonged periods of prerenal azotemia may lead to ischemic injury- acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
c) Urea is a waste product formed in the liver when protein is broken down into amino acids. This process produces ammonia, which is converted into the less toxic waste product Urea. Nitrogen is a component of both ammonia and urea, so Urea and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) are interchangeable. Urea is constantly filtered out of the kidneys and released into urine, therefore when eGFR decreases due to AKI, Urea levels increase in the blood.

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4
Q

a) What are the normal intrarenal mechanisms for maintaining perfusion pressure during hypovolemia in regards to afferent and efferent arteriole?
b) What is the effect of NSAID on this process?
c) What is the effect of ARBs on this process?

A

a) Normal glomerular capillary pressure is maintained with reduced perfusion pressure by afferent vasodilatation and efferent vasoconstriction.
b) Reduced perfusion pressure with an NSAID. Loss of vasodilatory prostaglandins increases afferent resistance; this causes the glomerular capillary pressure to drop below normal values and the GFR to decrease.
c) Reduced perfusion pressure with an ACE-I or ARB. Loss of angiotensin II action reduces efferent resistance; this causes the glomerular capillary pressure to drop below normal values and the GFR to decrease.

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5
Q

a) What percentage of CO goes to the kidneys?
b) What are the normal homeostatic responses to decreased effective circulating volume and what are the mediators of this reponse?
c) What is the basic function of angiotensin II?

A

a) Renal blood flow accounts for 20% of the CO.
b) Renal vasoconstriction, with salt and water reabsorption are homeostatic responses to decreased CO/circulating volume. Angiotensin II, norepinephrine and vasopressin (ADH) are the mediators of this.
c) Maintains glomerular filtration by causing renal efferent vasoconstriction, which maintains glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure closer to normal

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6
Q

a) What reflex occurs within the afferent arteriole, leading to dilation in the setting of low perfusion pressure, thereby maintaining glomerular perfusion.
b) What intrarenal vasodilator prostaglandins are produced in reponse to low renal perfusion pressure?
c) How is the macula densa involved in maintaining glomerular filtration?
d) When do these regulatory mechanisms fail?

A

a) Myogenic reflex
b) Kallikrein and kinins, and possibly nitric oxide (NO) also increase to cause vasodilation of afferent arteriole in response to low renal perfusion pressure.
c) Macula densa (specialized cells within the distal tubule) detects decreases in solute delivery, this elicits dilation of the juxtaposed afferent arteriole to maintain glomerular perfusion, mediated, in part, by Nitric Oxide (NO)
d) Even in healthy adults, autoregulation fails when systolic BP falls below 80mmHg

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7
Q

a) What factors may affect the renal autoregulatory response, and how does this occur physiologically?
b) What is the risk of AKI in advanced liver disease?

A

a) Atherosclerosis, L-T HTN, and older age. These factors can lead to hyalinosis (thickening of arteriole walls by hyaline material) and myointimal hyperplasia (abnormal proliferation of smooth muscle in vascular wall) which both involve narrowing of arterioles and impaired renal afferent vasodilation.

NB: In CKD, afferent vasodilation may be at max capacity to maximise GFR response to reduced renal mass.

b) Advanced liver disease can exhibit a haemodynamic profile resembling prerenal azotemia in the setting of total body overload. Primary arterial vasodilation in the splanchnic circulation ultimately results in vascocontriction similar to that seen in hypovaemia. AKI can be triggered by volume depletion or spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.

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8
Q

a) Define type 1 hepatorenal syndrome and when there is a poor prognosis associated with this
b) Define type 2 hepatorenal syndrome

A

a) HRS-1 is defined by a doubling of sCr within 2/52 to >221umol (eGFR usually <20) without alternate cause (e.g. shock/nephrotoxics). Poor prognosis is seen when there is a persistance despite volume administration and WH of diuretics.
b) HRS-2 is a less severe form characterised by a less severe sCr rise and involes diuretic resistant (refractory) ascites.

NB: HRS and prerenal azotemia is difficult to differentiate just by observation of kidney function, LFTs will indicate if HRS is a factor. There is no cure from a hepatic perspective except port-systemic shunt/liver transplant.

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9
Q

a) What are the most common causes of intrinsic AKI in general?
b) What are the most common exact causes of intrinsic AKI (exogenous and endogenous)

A

a) Sepsis, ischaemia, and nephrotoxins (endogenous and exogenous)
b) Acute tubular Necrosis (ATN), Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), HTN, Penicillin, PPI, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura/haemolytic-uremic syndrome (TTP-HUS), tubulointerstitial nephritis-uveitis (TINU).

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10
Q

a) What is the primary mechanism of AKI in the context of sepsis, what is a clinical sign of ATN?
b) What is the haemodynamic effect of sepsis?
c) Which part of the kidneys is particularly vulnerable to ischaemic damage and what are the causative factors?
d) When does ischaemia-associated AKI most commonly occur?

A

a) With sepsis, AKIs typically occur in the setting of haemodynamic collapse requiring vasopressor support. ATN may be assumed with the presence of tubular debris and casts in the urine.
b) Generalised arterial vasodilation-mediated by cytokines that upregulate NO synthase in the vasculature-leading to decreased BP and reduced kidney perfusion, thus reducing eGFR.
c) The outer medulla, because of the architecture of the blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the tubules. Enhanced leukocyte-endothelial interactions in the small vessels lead to inflammation and reduced local blood flow to the metabolically very active S3 segment of the proximal tubule, which depends on oxidative metabolism for survival.
d) In the context of limited renal reserve (e.g. CKD or older age) with co-existing sepsis, vasoactive or nephrotoxic drugs, rhabdomyolysis, or systemic inflammatory states e.g. burns and pancreatitis.

NB: There is low risk of severe AKI with reduced perfusion alone, even after total interruption of renal blood flow during suprarenal aortic clamping or cardiac arrest.

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11
Q

a) What are the risk factors for post-operative AKI?
b) What is the mechanism for AKI with Burns and Acute Pancreatitis?
c) What diseases of the microvasculature can lead to AKI due to ischaemia?
d) What diseases of the macrovasculature can lead to AKI due to ischaemia?

A

a) CKD, older age, Diabetes Mellitus, CHF, and emergency procedures.
b) Extensive fluid losses into the extravascular compartments (third spacing) of the body frequently accompany severe burns and acute pancreatitis. This causes severe hypovaemia and a systemic inflammatory response which may facilitate AKI.
c) Thrombotic microangiopathies (cocaine, certain chemotherapy agents, antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, radiation nephritis, malignant hypertensive nephrosclerosis, and TTP-HUS), scleroderma, and atheroembolic disease.
d) Renal artery dissection, thromboembolism, or thrombosis, and renal vein compression or thrombosis

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12
Q

a) What is the mechanism of AKI due to nephrotoxic substances?
b) What is the type of AKI that occurs with iodinated substances, what is the clinical course and how does it occur?
c) What are the other diagnostic agents implicated as a cause of AKI?

A

a) Extremely high blood concentration of circulating substances along the nephron where water is reabsorbed and in the medullary interstitium; this results in high-concentration exposure of toxins to tubular, interstitial, and endothelial cells.
b) Contrast Nephropathy is characterized by a rise in SCr beginning 24–48 h following exposure, peaking within 3–5 days, and resolving within 1 week.

Contrast nephropathy is thought to occur from: (1) Hypoxia in the renal outer medulla; (2) Cytotoxic damage to the tubules directly or via the generation of oxygen-free radicals (concentration of agent within the tubule is markedly increased); and (3) transient Tubule Obstruction with precipitated contrast material.

c) High dose gadolinium for MRI and PO Sodium Phosphate in bowel prep

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13
Q

a) Name the antibiotics associated with AKI and the toxic mechanism on the kidneys

A

a) -Vancomycin: When trough levels are high and in combination with other nephrotoxic ABs
- Aminoglycosides (e.g Gentamicin) cause tubular necrosis. Aminoglycosides are freely filtered across the glomerulus and then accumulate within the renal cortex, where concentrations can greatly exceed those of the plasma. AKI typically manifests after 5–7 days of therapy. Hypomagnesemia is a common finding.

-Amphotericin B: (Antifungal) Causes renal vasoconstriction from an increase in tubuloglomerular feedback as well as direct tubular toxicity mediated by reactive oxygen species. Clinical features include polyuria, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and nongap metabolic acidosis.

-Acyclovir: Can precipitate in tubules and cause AKI by tubular obstruction.

NB: AKI secondary to acute interstitial nephritis can occur as a consequence of exposure to many antibiotics;incl penicillins, cephalosporins, quinolones, sulfonamides, and rifampin.

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14
Q

a) Which chemotherapeutic agents are well known to be a risk for AKI?

A

a) -Cisplatin and Carboplatin: Accumulate in proximal tubular cells and cause necrosis and apoptosis.
- Bevacizumab: Causes proteinuria and hypertension via injury to the glomerular microvasculature (thrombotic microangiopathy).

NB: Other antineoplastic agents such as mitomycin C and gemcitabine may cause thrombotic microangiopathy with resultant AKI.

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15
Q

a) What are the endogenous compounds that can possibly cause AKI?
b) When can these compounds be released in increased amounts?
c) What is the mechanism in which the AKI occurs?
d) What is the endogenous compound affecting the kidney in Tumour Lysis Syndrome?
e) How do myeloma light chains affect the kidney?

A

a) Myoglobin, Haemoglobin, Uric acid, and Myeloma light chains.
b) Myoglobin can be released by injured muscle cells, and hemoglobin can be released during massive hemolysis leading to pigment nephropathy. Rhabdomyolysis is characterised by high myoglobin levels.
c) Intrarenal vasoconstriction, direct proximal tubular toxicity, and mechanical obstruction of the distal nephron lumen when myoglobin or hemoglobin precipitates with Tamm-Horsfall protein (uromodulin, the most common protein in urine-produced in the thick ascending limb of the LoH), a process favored by acidic urine.
d) Massive release of uric acid (hyperuricaemia) leads to precipitation of uric acid in the renal tubules and AKI
e) Direct tubular toxicity and by binding to Tamm-Horsfall protein to form obstructing intratubular casts. NB: Hypercalcemia, which can also be seen in multiple myeloma, may cause AKI by intense renal vasoconstriction and volume depletion.

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16
Q

a) What is the mechanism of glomerulonephritis for AKI?
b) Describe post-renal AKI and the pathophysiology?
c) Describe the functional or structural issues leading to post renal AKI

A

a) Diseases involving the glomerular podocytes, mesangial and endothelial cells can lead to AKI by compromising the filtration barrier and blood flow within the renal circulation. NB: ~5% of AKI are glomerular.
b) When normally unidirectional flow of urine is acutely blocked either partially or totally, leading to increased retrograde hydrostatic intratubular pressure and interference with glomerular filtration. Reductions in GFR are due to underperfusion of glomeruli and changes to glomerular ultrafiltration coefficient.
c) Bladder neck obstruction e.g. prostate disease, neurogenic bladder or therapy with anticholinergic drugs; obstructed IDC, blood clots, calculi and urethral strictures are common causes of postrenal AKI which impacts both kidneys.

NB: Unilateral obstruction unlikely to cause AKI unless CKD or reflex vasospasm in contralateral kidney.

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17
Q

a) What is the obvious factor to differentiate AKI from CKD?
b) Without the above knowledge, what imaging clues suggest CKD?
c) What are the Pathology/Urine features of Prerenal Azotemia, Sepsis associated AKI, Ischaemia assoc AKI, Rhabdomyolysis, Haemolysis, Tumour Lysis and Multiple Myeloma?

A

a) A recent sCr baseline that shows normal kidney function would indicate an AKI.
b) Small, shrunken kidneys with cortical thinning on renal USS, renal osteodystrophy (done disease), normocytic anemia (with absence of blood loss or secondary hyperparathyroidism) with hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia, are consistent with CKD
c) -Prerenal Azotemia: BUN/Creatinine ratio >20, hyaline casts in urine, SG >1.018, UOsm >500
- Sepsis Assoc AKI: +ve MCS, renal tubular epithelial casts, often granular casts
- Ischaemia Assoc AKI: Granular casts, renal tubular epithelial casts
- Rhabdomyolysis: Elevated myoglobin, CK; urine haem positive with few RBCs
- Haemolysis: Anemia, elevated LDH, low haptoglobin
- Tumour Lysis: Hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia
- Multiple Myeloma: Monoclonal spike in urine or serum electrophoresis; low anion gap; anemia

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18
Q

a) What symptoms and history may increase clinical suspicion for AKI?
b) What objective physical signs may indicate/high suspicion of AKI?
c) What medical conditions may give rise to AKI if exacerbated?
d) What conditions may increases suspicion of post renal AKI?
e) What is an important consideration for medications in AKI aside from the nephrotoxicity?
d) What findings would indicate a Glomerulonephritis as apossible cause for AKI?
e) What miscellaneous conditions should also be a consideration for AKI?

A

a) Vomiting, diarrhoea, glycosuria causing polyuria, medications including diuretics, NSAIDS, ACEI & ARBs.
b) Orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, reduced JVP, decreased skin turgur and dry mucous membranes
c) CHF, Liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, vascular disease (possible renal artery disease)
d) Prostatic disease, nephrolithiasis, pelvic/para-aortic malignancy
e) Doses of certain medications must be adjusted for reductions in kidney function. NB: sCr increases will lag behind changes in filtration rate.
d) Palpable purpura, pulmonary haemorrhage, or sinusitis raises the pssibility of systemic vasculitis with glomerulonephritis.
e) AKI in a person with hx of autoimmune disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus should lead to consideration of exacerbation of underlying disease. Pregnancy should also lead to consideration of preeclampsia as the cause of AKI. Tense abdomen should prompt consideration of abdominal compartment syndrome etc

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19
Q

a) What situations could cause complete anuria?
b) What urine output has a worse prognosis?
c) What diagnosis should be considered with red or brown urine?
d) What diagnosis can be considered depending on the proteinuria found in urine sediment examination?

A

a) Complete urinary tract obstruction, renal artery occlusion, sptic shock, severe ischaemia (with cortical necrosis), or severe proliferative glomerulonephritis or vasculitis.
b) Oliguria AKA reduction in UO denotes more severe AKI
c) Pigment nephropathy due to haemolysis causing Rhabdomyolysis.
d) AKI from ischaemia or nephrotoxins leads to mild proteinuria. Greater proteinuria in AKI suggests damage to glomerular ultrafiltration barrier or excretion of myeloma light chains (NB: Myeloma light chains are not detected in urine dipstik [albumin] and need sulfosalicylic acid test or immunoelectrophoresis). Heavy proteinuria is present in glomerulonephritis, vasculitis, or toxins/medications that affect glomerulus+tubulointerstitium (e.g. NSAIDs).

NB: AKI can complicate minimal change disease (a cause of nephrotic syndrome). If dipstik is +ve for haemoglobin but few red cells are evident in urine sediment, then rhabdomyolysis or haemolysis should be suspected.

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20
Q

a) What is the characteristic urine sediment findings in the following diagnosis?
- ATN due to ischaemic injury/sepsis/nephrotoxins:
- Glomerulonephritis:
- Interstitial Nephritis:
b) What diagonsis should be considered with the finding of Oxalate crystals or Uric acid crystals?

A

a) -ATN due to ischemic injury, sepsis, or certain nephrotoxins: Pigmented “muddy brown” granular casts and tubular epithelial cell casts (may be absent in 20% of cases)
- Glomerulonephritis may lead to dysmorphic red blood cells or red blood cell casts.
- Interstitial nephritis may lead to white blood cell casts.

NB: Urine sediment findings overlap in glomerulonephritis and interstitial nephritis, Dx not possible with urine sediment alone.

b) Oxalate crystals in AKI should prompt an evaluation for ethylene glycol toxicity. Abundant uric acid crystals may be seen in the tumor lysis syndrome.

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21
Q

a) What is the pattern of sCr rise with Prerenal Azotemia, Contrast nephropathy, Atheroembolic disease and toxins such as aminoglycosides ABs and Cisplatin?
b) What pathology tests are helpful for the Dx of glomerulonephritis and vasculitis?

A

a) -Prerenal Azotemia: Modest rises in SCr that return to baseline with improvement in hemodynamic status.
- Contrast nephropathy leads to a rise in SCr within 24–48 h, peak within 3–5 days, and resolution within 5–7/7
- Atheroembolic disease usually manifests with more subacute rises in SCr, although severe AKI with rapid increases in SCr can occur in this setting.
- Aminoglycoside antibiotics and cisplatin, the rise in SCr is characteristically delayed for 3–5 days to 2 weeks after initial exposure.
b) Depressed complement levels and high titers of antinuclear antibodies (ANA), antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCAs), antiglomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) antibodies, and cryoglobulins.

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22
Q

a) What are the causes of disproportionate BUN elevation in comparison to sCr?
b) Describe the FeNa?
c) What can affect the FeNa?
d) When is FeNa >1% and when is it <1%?

A

a) Low tubular flow rate and increased renal medullary recycling of urea seen in prerenal azotemia causing AKI, however other causes include upper gastrointestinal bleeding, hyperalimentation, increased tissue catabolism, and glucocorticoid use.
b) The fraction of the filtered sodium load that is reabsorbed by the tubules, and is a measure of both the kidney’s ability to reabsorb sodium as well as endogenously and exogenously administered factors that affect tubular reabsorption.
c) Sodium intake, effective intravascular volume, GFR, diuretic intake, and intact tubular reabsorptive mechanisms.
d) FeNa is frequently >1% because of tubular injury and resultant inability to reabsorb sodium. FeNa <1%, suggests avid tubular sodium reabsorption.

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23
Q

a) In post-renal AKI, what imaging can be considered to investigate possible obstruction? What findings may be apparent in the presence of obstruction?
b) What are the differences in kidney size in terms of acute v CKD?
c) When is renal biopsy considered?
d) What main biomarkers are available for use in the clinical setting?

A

a) Renal USS or CT-KUB. Dilatation of the collecting system and hydroureteronephrosis.
b) In CKD, kidneys are usually smaller (unless patient has diabetic nephropathy, HIV-assoc nephropathy, or infiltrative diseases). Normal sized kidneys are expected in AKI. Enlarged kidneys in a patient with AKI suggests the possibility of acute interstitial nephritis or infiltrative diseases.
c) When prerenal azotemia, postrenal AKI, and ischemic or nephrotoxic AKI are deemed unlikely, and other possible diagnoses are being considered such as glomerulonephritis, vasculitis, interstitial nephritis, myeloma kidney, HUS and TTP, and allograft dysfunction.
d) Kidney injury molecule-1 (KIM-1) is a type 1 transmembrane protein that is abundantly expressed in proximal tubular cells injured by ischemia or nephrotoxins such as cisplatin.

Neutrophil gelatinase associated lipocalin (NGAL, also known as lipocalin-2 or siderocalin). is highly upregulated after inflammation and kidney injury and can be detected in the plasma and urine within 2 h of cardiopulmonary bypass–associated AKI.

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24
Q

a) What are some general complications of severe AKI?

A

a) -Uraemia: At high concentrations, mental status changes and bleeding complications can arise.

-Hyponatraemia (fluid O/L)

-Hyperkalaemia: Common in rhabdomyolysis, hemolysis, and tumor lysis syndrome due to release of intracellular potassium from damaged cells.

-Metabolic Acidosis (usually with elevated anion gap) can complicate acid-base & potassium balance.

-Bleeding: Direct hematologic effects from AKI-related uremia include decreased erythropoiesis and platelet dysfunction.

-Cardiac Complications: Arrhythmias, pericarditis, and pericardial effusion. Volume overload and uremia may lead to impaired cardiac function.

-Malnutrition: AKI is often a severely hypercatabolic state, therefore malnutrition is a major complication.

-Infection: Impaired host immunity has been described in end-stage renal disease and may be operative in severe AKI.

Hyperphosphataemia and Hypocalcaemia: Hyperphosphatemia, in highly catabolic patients or those with AKI from rhabdomyolysis, hemolysis, and tumor lysis syndrome. AKI-associated hypocalcemia can arise from derangements in vit D–parathyroid hormone–fibroblast growth factor-23 axis. Hypocalcemia is often asymptomatic but can lead to perioral paresthesias, muscle cramps, seizures, and prolongation of the QT interval.

-Hypervolaemia & Hypovolaemia: Expansion of extracellular fluid volume due to impaired salt and water excretion. The result can be weight gain, dependent edema, increased jugular venous pressure, and pulmonary edema; the latter can be life threatening. Recovery from AKI can sometimes be accompanied by polyuria, which, if untreated, can lead to significant volume depletion.

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25
Q

a) What are the 4 main considerations when treating an AKI?
b) What is the acute treated for AKI due to Glomerulonephritis/Vasculitis, allergic interstitial nephritis, scleroderma (scleroderma renal crisis), rhabdomyolysis or idiopathic TTP-HUS?

A

a) Optimisation of Haemodynamics, correction of fluid and electrolyte imbalances, discontinuation of nephrotoxic medications, and dose adjustment of administered medications.
b) -Glomerulonephritis/ Vasculitis: Immunosuppressive agents &/or plasmapheresis
- Allergic interstitial nephritis: (due to meds) Cease offending meds.
- Scleroderma (scleroderma renal crisis): ACE Inhibitors
- Idiopathic TTP-HUS: Plasma exchange (medical emergency). Pharmacologic blockade of complement activation may also be effective.
- Rhabdomyolysis: Aggressive volume repletion (up to 10L p/day). Plus diuretics if needed to achieve urinary flow rates of 200–300 mL/h.

NB: No specific therapy for rhabdo other than dialysis (severe) or supportive care with fluid and electrolyte balance & tissue perfusion. Pay attention to calcium and phosphate because of precipitation in damaged tissue and release when tissue heals.

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26
Q

a) What are the treatment options for post renal AKI?

A

a) Prompt recognition and relief of urinary tract obstruction.

  • Transurethral or suprapubic bladder catheterization may be needed for urethral strictures or functional bladder impairment.
  • Percutaneous nephrostomy tube placement or ureteral stent placement for ureteric obstruction.
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27
Q

a) What are the main supportive measures for AKI?
b) What acid/base imbalance is associated with an AKI and when do you treat these?
c) What electrolyte imbalance is assoc with AKI and how is it treated?
d) What is the mechanism and treatment for AKI related malnutrition and anaemia?

A

a) -IVF (NB: Hypervolemia in oliguric or anuric AKI may be life threatening due to APO)
- In severe cases of volume overload, furosemide may be given w/wo thiazide diuretic.
- Fluid and Na restriction
b) Metabolic Acidosis is assoc with AKI. Not treated unless severe (pH <7.20 and serum bicarbonate <15 mmol/L). Can be treated with oral or intravenous sodium bicarbonate
c) Hypocalcaemia and Hyperphosphataemia, the latter can be rx by limiting instestinal absorption with phosphate binders (calcium carbonate, calcium acetate, aluminium hydroxide). Hypocalcaemia does not usually require therapy unless symptoms are present.
d) Inadequate nutrition may lead to starvation ketoacidosis and protein catabolism. Excessive nutrition may increase the generation of nitrogenous waste and lead to worsening azotemia. Patients with AKI should achieve a total energy intake of 20–30 kcal/kg per day.

Anaemia in AKI is multifactorial and does not respond to erythropoiesos-stimulating agents. Prophylaxis for GI bleeding (due to uremia) with PPI may be required, however PPI have been associated with interstitial nephritis.

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28
Q

a) In general, when is dialysis considered?
b) When to start dialysis is still a debate, what are the pros/cons of starting early vs late?
c) At what uremic value do some nephrologists start dialysis and what are the available dialysis modes?
d) What are the different types of dialysis?

A

a) When medical management fails to control overload, hyperkalaemia, or acidosis; also if there is the presence of severe complications of uremia (asterixis, pericardial rub/effusion, encephalopathy, uremic bleeding).
b) Late initiation= risk of volume, electrolyte, and metabolic complications of AKI. -Initiating early: Unnecessary exposure to IV lines and invasive procedures, with risks of infection, bleeding, procedural complications, and hypotension.
c) When BUN >35mmol/L. Modes for renal replacement therapy (RRT) are via the peritoneal cavity (for peritoneal dialysis) (not commony usd for AKI) or the large blood vessels (for hemodialysis, hemofiltration, and other hybrid procedures)
d) Hemodialysis is typically performed 3–4 h per day, three to four times per week, and is the most common form of renal replacement therapy for AKI. One of the major complications of hemodialysis is hypotension.

Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) can be performed by convective clearance or diffusive clearance.

NB: Prerenal and post renal AKI have better overall outcomes that intrarenal AKI.

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29
Q

a) Describe the Glomerulus, where it resides, it’s attachments and it’s anatomy including important cells

A

a) The glomerulus resides within Bowman’s space.

  • Lined by parietal cells that transition into tubular epithelia migrating to proximal nephron or to replace podocytes.
  • Attached to afferent arteriole that forms a branching capillary bed in mesangial matrix, which funnels out to efferent arteriole.
  • Fenestrated endothelial cells rest on a Glomerular Basement Membrane (GBM) which line glomerular capillaries.
  • Delicate foot processes from podocytes cover the outer surface of glomerular capillaries, interconnecting with adjacent podocytes by slit-pore membranes forming a selective filtration barrier.
  • Efferent arteriole carries blood into cortical peritubular capillaries aka medullary vasa recta that supply and exchange with a folded tubular architecture.
30
Q

a) How much do healthy glomerular capillaries filter each day?
b) What is the physiochemical barrier and how does it govern filtration?
c) Describe the imperfect barrier mechanism for albumin.
d) How much albumin is excreted per day and how does this change with glomerular injury?
e) Why is there so many diseases that affect the glomerulus?

A

a) Glomerular capillaries filter 120–180 L/d of plasma water containing various solutes
b) Physiochemical barrier excludes most large proteins and all cells from filtration by governing pore size and electrostatic charge.
c) Although albumin has a negative charge which would normally be repelled by the negatively charged GBM, it’s physical radius is 3.6nm, while GBM and slit-pore membrane radius is 4nm. Thus various amounts of albumin variably cross the filtration barrier into te proximal tubule, only to be reclaimed by megalin and cubilin receptors along proximal tubule.
d) 8-10mg Albumin is excreted by healthy kidneys daily (20-60% of total extreted protein), this can rise to gram quantities following glomerular injury.
e) Because the microenvironment supporting the glomerular capillaries can be injured in a variety of ways, producing many different lesions.

31
Q

a) What are the nine possible pathogenesis linked to glomerular disease?

A

a) Genetic mutations, infection, toxin exposure, autoimmunity, atherosclerosis, hypertension, emboli, thrombosis, or diabetes mellitus.

NB: Even after careful Ix, the cause is unknown in some lesions and they are known as idiopathic.

32
Q

a) Discuss the genetic mutations producing familial kidney disease

A

a) Congenital Nephrotic Syndromes: Mutations in NPHS1 (nephrin) and NPHS2 (podocin) affect the slit-pore membrane at birth; TRPC6 cation channel mutations produce focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) in adulthood
- Polymorphisms in the gene encoding apolipoprotein L1, APOL1, are a major risk for nearly 70% of African Americans with nondiabetic end-stage renal disease (ESRD), particularly FSGS
- Mutations in complement factor H associated with membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN), C3 glomerulopathies, or atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (aHUS)
- Type II partial lipodystrophy from mutations in genes encoding lamin A/C, or PPARγ cause a metabolic syndrome associated with MPGN, or C3 glomerulopathies, which is sometimes accompanied by dense deposits and C3 nephritic factor
- Alport’s syndrome: Mutations in genes encoding α3, α4, or α5 chains of type IV collagen, produces split-basement membranes with glomerulosclerosis;
- Lysosomal storage diseases: e.g. α-galactosidase A deficiency causing Fabry’s disease and N acetylneuraminic acid hydrolase deficiency causing nephrosialidosis, produce FSGS.

33
Q

a) What are the risks of HTN and atherosclerosis on the kidney over time?
b) How does malignant hypertension affect the glomerulus?
c) In general, what 3 factors are associated with Diabetic Nephropathy?

A

a) Produce pressure stress, ischemia, or lipid oxidants that lead to chronic glomerulosclerosis.
b) It can worsen glomerulosclerosis with fibrinoid necrosis of arterioles (fibrin collection in small vessels of glomeruli causing unprogrammed cell death-appears very pink on H&S stain) and glomeruli, thrombotic microangiopathy (clotted glomerular capillaries), and acute renal failure.

NB: Fibrinoid necrosis usually only occurs in immune diseases and malignant HTN

c) Thickening of the GBM secondary to longstanding hyperglycaemia, Glycosylation end products (proteins/lipids assoc with atherosclerosis), reactive oxygen species (free radicals that can cause cell death)

34
Q

a) What in basic terms is Glomerulonephritis?
b) What is an example of immune disease based in the kidneys, and what is an example of those that spread to the kidneys?

A

a) Inflammation of the glomerular capillaries
b) Membranous glomerulonephritis (MGN) or MPGN originate in the kidney. Lupus nephritis or G_ranulomatosis with polyangiitis_ spread to the kidney. Antiglomerular basement membrane disease producing Goodpasture’s syndrome injures both lung & kidney because of the narrow distribution of the α3 NC1 domain of type IV collagen that is the target antigen.

35
Q

a) How can immune deposits affect the GBM?
b) What pathology tests can be done to indicate the above?
c) How are GBM damaged in this immune mediated process?

A

a) Preformed immune deposits collect along the GBM in the subendothelial space or in situ along the subepithelial space.
b) Immunofluorescent staining with labeled anti-IgG can demonstrate linear staining for anti-GBM disease or immune deposits with membranous glomerulonephritis
c) I_mmune deposits_ and complement deposition classically draw macrophages and neutrophils into the glomerulus incl. T lymphocytes. These locally derived oxidants and proteases expand inflammation. GBM are damaged with either endocapillary or extracapillary proliferation.

36
Q

a) What autoimmune events in the kidney typically cause a humoral immune response?
b) What does an immune response in the Glomerulus stimulate?

A

a) Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, lupus nephritis, and idiopathic membranous nephritis typically are associated with immune deposits along the GBM, while anti-GBM antibodies produce the linear binding of anti-GBM disease.
b) The release of local proteases and activate the complement cascade, producing C5–9 attack complexes. In addition, local oxidants damage glomerular structures, producing proteinuria and effacement of the podocytes.

NB: Overlapping pathophysiologic mechanisms produce similar glomerular lesions, suggesting that often converge toward common patterns of injury.

37
Q

a) What renal issues accompany persistent glomerulonephritis that worsens kidney function?
b) What does glomerulonephritis look like histologically?
c) How is loss of renal function explained due to interstitial damage?
d) What happens to the RAS system with interstitial damage?
e) What is the third mechanism causing decline in renal function in relation to peritubular capillaries?

A

a) Interstitial nephritis, renal fibrosis, and tubular atrophy
b) Tubulointerstitial nephritis
c) Urine flow is impeded by tubular obstruction due to interstitial inflammation/oedema and fibrosis. This alters tubular and vascular architecture, thus compromising tubular transport of solutes and water from tubular lumen to vascular space. This failure increases the solute and water content of the tubule fluid, resulting in isosthenuria and polyuria.
d) Reduction of renin output from the juxtaglomerular apparatus due to interstitial inflammation. Consequently, local vasoconstrictive influence of angiotensin II on glomerular arterioles decreases, and filtration drops owing to a generalized decrease in arteriolar tone.
e) Cross-sectional volume of capillaries is decreased by interstitial inflammation, edema, or fibrosis. Thus, decreased perfusion leads to tubular ischemic injury

38
Q

a) What is the difference between acute tubulointerstitial nephritis and chronic interstitial fibrosis?
b) How does proteinuria lead to the development of interstitial nephritis?
c) Why do tubules disaggregate and what does this lead to?

A

a) Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis suggests potentially recoverable renal function, whereas the development of chronic interstitial fibrosis prognosticates permanent loss.
b) Proteinuria, carrying activated cytokines and lipoproteins producing reactive oxygen species, triggers a downstream inflammatory cascade in/around epithelial cells lining the tubular nephron. This induces T-lymphocyte and macrophage infiltrates in the interstitial spaces along with fibrosis and tubular atrophy.
c) Tubules disaggregate from direct damage to their basement membrane, leading to interstitial fibroblasts and fibrosis at the site of injury. Scar tissue forms through fibrogenesis. When fibroblasts outdistance their survival factors, apoptosis occurs, and the permanent renal scar becomes acellular, leading to irreversible renal failure.

39
Q

a) Descibe the clinical tests leading to a suspicion of Glomerular disease
b) What lesions need to be excluded when working up microscopic haematuria?
c) What is seen in urine sediment that makes Glomerulonephritis more likely?

A

a) Microscopic haematuria with varying degrees of proteinuria. As few as 3–5 RBCs in the spun sediment from first-voided morning urine is suspicious.

NB: Diagnosis of glomerular injury can be delayed as patients will not realize they have microscopic hematuria, and only rarely with the exception of IgA nephropathy and sickle cell disease is gross hematuria present.

b) Malignancy of the urinary tract/bladder. BPH, interstitial nephritis, papillary necrosis, hypercalciuria, renal stones, cystic kidney diseases, or renal vascular injury.
c) RBC casts or dysmorphic RBCs

40
Q

a) What is the normal amount of albumin that appears in the urine and what does it mean if there is more?
b) What clinical signs are associated with proteinuria?
c) What are some normal causes of proteinuria and therefore how is it glomerular related proteinuria diagnosed?
d) What types of protein are found in urine for Glomerular disease? what about other kidney diseases?

A

a) ~ 8–10 mg/24 h of albumin appears in the urine normally. In early nephropathy, such as in diabetic nephropathy, proteinuria increases to 30–300 mg/24 h and is called microalbuminuria and represents the presence of renal disease. >300 mg/24 h of albuminuria represents frank proteinuria and advanced renal disease
b) Foaming urine on voiding &/or oedema.
c) Fever, exercise, obesity, sleep apnea, emotional stress, and congestive heart failure can explain transient proteinuria. Isolated proteinuria must be sustained over multiple clinic visits to dx glomerular lesions.

d)

  • Glomerular disease proteinuria is nonselective, i.e albumin and a mixture of serum proteins.
  • Minimal change disease (MCD) in children, proteinuria is selective and composed largely of albumin.
  • Inflammatory glomerular disease, e.g acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis or MPGN, have pyuria with considerable numbers of leukocytes (this has to be distinguished from urine infected with bacteria).
41
Q

a) What is the difference between acute nephritic syndrome and rapidly porgessive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) in terms of pathology and clinical presentation?
b) Describe pulmonary-renal syndrome in relation to RPGN.
c) Describe Nephrotic syndrome and it’s clinical manifestation

A

a) Acute Nephritic Syndrome patient presents with HTN and fluid retention with proteinuria (1-2g/24h), haematuria with RBC casts, pyuria (Urine with WBC/pus) and a slow rise in serum Creatinine** if glomerular inflammation develops slowly. If **serum creatinine rises quickly over a few days it is sometimes called RPGN; the histopathologic term for RPGN is crescentic glomerulonephritis.
b) RPGN presenting with lung hemorrhage from Goodpasture’s syndrome, antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA)-associated small-vessel vasculitis, SLE, or cryoglobulinemia, they are often diagnosed as having a pulmonary-renal syndrome.
c) Nephrotic syndrome is proteinuria (>3.0 g/24 h), HTN, hypercholesterolemia, hypoalbuminemia, edema/anasarca, and microscopic hematuria; if heavy proteinuria present without clinical manifestations, it’s sometimes called nephrotic-range proteinuria.

NB: GFR may initially be normal/high, but with hyperfiltration and nephron loss, it declines over months-years.

42
Q

a) Describe basement membrane syndrome (BMS) and it’s two associations as well as clinical presentation.

b) Describe Glomerular-Vascular syndrome and it’s associated systemic diseases.

A

a) BMS presents with microscopic haematuria, mild-heavy proteinuria, and HTN with variable creatinine. It’s either caused by genetically abnormal basement membranes (Alport’s syndrome) or an autoimmune response to basement membrane collagen IV (Goodpasture’s syndrome).
b) Glomerular-vascular syndrome describes patients with vascular injury producing hematuria and mod proteinuria. These patients may have vasculitis, thrombotic microangiopathy, antiphospholipid syndrome, or commonly, a systemic disease e.g. atherosclerosis, cholesterol emboli, HTN, sickle cell anemia, and autoimmunity.

43
Q

a) Describe infectious disease associated syndrome an the differences in common causes of glomerulonephritis between the Western Hemisphere and the rest of the world.

A

a) Infectious disease-associated syndrome is a variety of inflammatory reactions in glomerular capillaries due to infectious disease. They result in nephrotic syndrome to acute nephritic injury, with a combination of hematuria and proteinuria. In Western Hemisphere the most common infectious disease associated is subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE), for the rest of the world malaria, and schistosomiasis may be the most common causes of glomerulonephritis, closely followed by HIV and chronic hep B and C.

44
Q

a) What initial investigations can be done for the kidneys and then what are the studies for further diagnostic work-up?

A

a) Initial history, physical examination, blood chemistries, renal ultrasound, and urinalysis. Further dx workup involves serum tests: Proteins (HIV and hepatitis B and C antigens), antibodies** (anti-GBM, antiphospholipid, antistreptolysin O [ASO], anti-DNAse, antihyaluronidase, ANCA, anti-DNA, cryoglobulins, anti-HIV, and anti-hepatitis B and C antibodies) or depletion of **complement components (C3 and C4).

NB: Hx and exam can reveal if isolated to the kidney (primary glomerulonephritis) or is part of a systemic disease (secondary glomerulonephritis).

45
Q

a) How may chronic Glomerulonephritis appear on USS KUB?
b) What are the common symptoms of a patient who is quickly developing renal failure?
c) What is the difficulty with Primary Glomerulonephritis that has progressed slowly?

A

a) Chronic glomerular disease often presents with decreased kidney size.
b) Fatigue, weakness, uremic symptoms assoc with nausea, vomiting, fluid retention, and somnolence.
c) Patients can be remarkably asymptomatic, as are patients with acute glomerulonephritis without much loss in renal function. Selected patients who are clinically stable, have adequate blood clotting parameters, and are willing and able to receive treatment are encouraged to have a renal biopsy.

46
Q

a) When is a renal biopsy indicated, and what is the tissue tested for in the lab?

A

a) Renal biopsy is indicated in the setting of glomerulonephritis which is not resolving to initial treatment. A biopsy can identify the type of glomerular injury and often suggest course of treatment.
- Light microscopy using stains for hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) to assess cellularity and architecture
- Periodiodic acid–Schiff (PAS) to stain carbohydrate moieties in the membranes of the glomerular tuft and tubules
- Jones-methenamine silver to enhance basement membrane structure
- Congo red for amyloid deposits
- Masson’s trichrome to identify collagen deposition and assess the degree of glomerulosclerosis and interstitial fibrosis.
- Direct immunofluorescence using conjugated antibodies against IgG, IgM, and IgA to detect the presence of “lumpy-bumpy” immune deposits or “linear” IgG or IgA antibodies bound to GBM
- Antibodies against trapped complement proteins (C3 and C4).
- High-resolution electron microscopy can clarify the principal location of immune deposits and the status of the basement membrane.

PLUS MORE!

47
Q

a) How are focal vs diffuse lesions identified?
b) What is the difference between segmental and global glomerular injury?
c) Differentiate proliferative, endocapillary and extracapillary glomerular characteristics
d) Describe glomerular synechiae
e) Describe glomerular crescents
f) Describe Glomerular Sclerosis and how age-related glomerulosclerosis can be estimated.

A

a) Each region of a renal biopsy is assessed separately. By light microscopy, glomeruli (ideally 20) are reviewed individually for discrete lesions; <50% involvement is considered focal, and >50% is diffuse.
b) Segmental glomerular injury involves a portion of the tuft, global involves most of the glomerulus.
c) Proliferative characteristics show increased glomerular cellularity. When cells in the capillary tuft proliferate, it is called endocapillary, and when cellular proliferation extends into Bowman’s space, it is called extracapillary.
d) Synechiae are adhesions which form when epithelial podocytes attach to Bowman’s capsule in glomerular injury
e) Glomerular crescents are defined as 2 or more layers of proliferating cells (fibrocellular/fibrin collections) in the Bowman’s Space. May be the extension of synechiae.
f) Sclerotic glomeruli show acellular, amorphous accumulations of proteinaceous material throughout the tuft with loss of functional capillaries and normal mesangium. Age-related glomerulosclerosis is common in adults, background percentage of sclerosis can be estimated by dividing patient age in half and subtracting 10.

48
Q

a) What can immunofluorescence and electron microscopy detect?
b) In the biopsy, what vascular changes can the glomerular tubules show?
c) What is the cause and significance of assessing tubule adjacency?

A

a) Detect the presence and location of subepithelial, subendothelial, or mesangial immune deposits, or reduplication/splitting of the basement membrane.
b) Can show angiopathy, vasculitis, the presence of fibrils, or thrombi.
c) Cause of tubule separation can be edema, tubular dropout, or collagen deposition from interstitial fibrosis. Interstitial fibrosis is an ominous sign of irreversibility and progression to renal failure.

49
Q

a) How do acute nephritic syndromes classically present and is the clinical course if untreated?
b) Describe the epidemiology of Acute Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

A

a) Acute nephritic syndromes classically present with HTN, hematuria, RBC casts, pyuria, and mild-mod proteinuria. Inflammatory damage to glomeruli causes GFR to fall. Eventually produces uremic symptoms with salt and water retention, leading to oedema and HTN.

b) Aka acute endocapillary proliferative glomerulonephritis. In underdeveloped countries most often affects children 2-14yo. In developed countries it the elderly most affected. More common in males. Skin and throat infections with particular M type streptococci antedate glomerular disease.
- 2-6 weeks after skin infection and 1-3 weeks after streptococcal pharyngitis.

50
Q

a) What would the renal biopsy in poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis demonstrate?

A

a) Hypercellularity of mesangial and endothelial cells, glomerular infiltrates of polymorphonuclear leukocytes, granular subendothelial immune deposits of IgG, IgM, C3, C4, and C5–9, and subepithelial deposits (which appear as “humps”)

51
Q

a) Describe Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis as a disease process
b) Describe the classic presentation of Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis and how it may be diagnosed with pathology

A

a) Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is an immune-mediated disease involving streptococcal antigens, circulating immune complexes, and activation of complement in association with cell-mediated injury.
b) Acute nephritic picture with hematuria, pyuria, RBC casts, oedema, HTN, and oliguric renal failure. May appear as RPGN. Systemic symptoms of headache, malaise, anorexia, and flank pain (renal capsule swelling) in ~50% of cases.
- 5% in children and 20% of adults have proteinuria in nephrotic range.
- In the first week 90% have depressed CH50, decreased C3 & normal C4.
- Positive rheumatoid factor (30–40%), cryoglobulins and circulating immune complexes (60–70%)
- ANCA against myeloperoxidase (10%).
- Positive cultures for streptococcal infection are inconsistent (10–70%), but increased titers of ASO (30%), anti-DNAse (70%), or antihyaluronidase antibodies (40%) can help confirm dx.

NB: Dx of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis rarely requires a renal biopsy.

52
Q

a) What is the treatment for poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?
b) What is the prognosis of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis and how long does it take to resolve?

A

a) Rx is supportive, with control of HTN, oedema, and dialysis as needed. AB rx for streptococcal infection should be given to all patients and their cohabitants.

NB: No role for immunosuppressive therapy even with crescents present.

b) Prognosis is good, with permanent renal failure very uncommon (<1%). Haematuria and proteinuria resolves in the majority of children within 3-6 weeks. 3–10% may have persistent microscopic hematuria, nonnephrotic proteinuria, or HTN. Prognosis in the elderly is worse with high incidence of azotemia (up to 60%), nephrotic-range proteinuria, and ESRD.

53
Q

a) What is a common renal complication from subacute bacterial endocarditis?
b) What are some comorbidities to Endocarditis-associated glomerulonephritis?
c) Why is Glomerulonephritis unusual in acute bacterial endocarditis?
d) How does the renal histology appear grossly on biopsy vs microscopy?

A

a) Endocarditis-associated glomerulonephritis. Particularly in patients who are untreated for a long time, have negative blood cultures, or have right-sided endocarditis.
b) Vulvular heart disease, IV Drug use, Hep C, and Diabetes Mellitus.
c) Because it takes 10–14 days to develop immune complex–mediated injury, by which time the patient has been treated, often with emergent surgery.
d) Grossly, the kidneys in SBE have subcapsular hemorrhages/embolic infarcts (“flea-bitten” appearance), microscopy shows focal proliferation around foci of necrosis assoc with abundant mesangial, subendothelial, and subepithelial immune deposits of IgG, IgM, and C3. Cresents may also be present on biopsy.

54
Q

a) How does the patient with Endocarditis-associated glomerulonephritis clinically present and what are the indicative pathology results?
b) What is the basis of pathogenesis?

A

a) May present with gross/ microscopic hematuria, pyuria, mild proteinuria, AKI or, RPGN with rapid loss of renal function. A normocytic anemia, elevated ESR, hypocomplementemia, high titers of rheumatoid factor, type III cryoglobulins, circulating immune complexes, and ANCAs may be present. Levels of serum creatinine may be elevated at dx, but with modern therapy there is little progression to chronic renal failure.

b) Pathogenesis hinges on the renal deposition of circulating immune complexes in the kidney with complement activation.

55
Q

a) What is the primary treatment of Endocarditis-associated glomerulonephritis?
b) What other locations of infection can cause post-infectious glomerulonephritis?
c) What is the most predominant causative organism?

A

a) Primary rx is 4–6 weeks of ABs, and if accomplished quickly, prognosis for renal recovery is good.

NB: ANCA-assoc vasculitis sometimes accompanies or is confused with SBE and should be ruled out, as the rx is different.

b) Ventriculoatrial and ventriculoperitoneal shunts; pulmonary, intraabdominal, pelvic, or cutaneous infections; and infected vascular prostheses.
c) Staphylococcus

NB: In developed countries, a significant proportion of cases afflict adults, esp immunocompromised.

56
Q

a) What is a common renal complication of SLE and in what population is it most severe?
b) What is the basic pathophysiology of Lupus Nephritis?
c) What is the most common clinical signs of Lupus Nephritis?
d) What serum antibodies correlate best with Lupus Nephritis?
e) How is complement related to Lupus Nephritis in basic terms?

A

a) Lupus nephritis is a common and serious complication of SLE and most severe in African-American female adolescents.
b) Lupus nephritis results from the deposition of circulating immune complexes, >>activate the complement cascade >>complement-mediated damage, leukocyte infiltration, activation of procoagulant factors, and cytokine release. Presence of antiphospholipid antibodies may also trigger a thrombotic microangiopathy minority of patients.
c) Proteinuria, but hematuria, HTN, varying degrees of renal failure, and active urine sediment with RBC casts can all be present.
d) Anti-dsDNA antibodies that fix complement correlate best with the presence of renal disease.

NB: Many Serologic abnormalities are common in Lupus Nephritis, not all are diagnostic

e) Hypocomplementemia is common in pts with acute Lupus Nephritis (70–90%) Declining complement levels may herald a flare.

NB: Urinary biomarkers of Lupus Nephritis are being identified to assist in predicting renal flares, renal biopsy is the only reliable method of identifying the morphologic variants of Lupus Nephritis.

57
Q

a) What are the 6 classes of lupus related glomerular injury?

A

a) Class I: Minimal mesangial & Normal histology with mesangial deposits

Class II: Mesangial proliferation & Mesangial hypercellularity with expansion of the mesangial matrix Class III: Focal nephritis & Focal endocapillary ± extracapillary proliferation with focal subendothelial immune deposits and mild mesangial expansion

Class IV: Diffuse nephritis & Diffuse endocapillary ± extracapillary proliferation with diffuse subendothelial immune deposits and mesangial alterations. Involves vast majority of glomeruli.

Class V: Membranous nephritis & Thickened basement membranes with diffuse subepithelial immune deposits; may occur with class III or IV lesions and is sometimes called mixed membranous and proliferative nephritis Class VI: Sclerotic nephritis & Global sclerosis of nearly all glomerular capillaries

58
Q

a) What is renal function like in class I and II lupus related glomerular injury?
b) What is the prognosis and therapy for the above classes?

A

a) Both class I and II lesions are typically assoc with minimal renal manifestation and normal renal function; nephrotic syndrome is rare.
b) Pts with Class I & II lesions i.e. limited to renal mesangium have an excellent prognosis and generally do not need therapy for their lupus nephritis.

59
Q

a) How does Class III Lupus Nephritis present clinically?
b) How is Class III Lupus Nephritis treated in terms of mild proliferation/scarring to severe proliferation/scarring?
c) How do patients with Class IV Lupus Nephritis present with path/clinical?
d) What is a poor prognostic indicator on biopsy?
e) What is the management that may indice remission?

A

a) HTN, active urinary sediment, and proteinuria. Sometimes elevated sCreatinine.
b) Mild proliferation can be treated with steroids alone with a good prognosis, treatment of severe proliferation is the same as class IV.
c) High anti-DNA antibody titers, low serum complement, haematuria, RBC casts, proteinuria, HTN and decreased renal function (50% of patients have nephrotic range proteinuria).
d) Patients with crescents on biopsy often have a rapidly progressive decline in renal function.
e) High-dose steroids and either cyclophosphamide (immunosuppresant) or mycophenolate mofetil (suppresses lymphocyte proliferation) for 2–6 months

THEN

followed by maintenance therapy with low dose steroids and mycophenolate mofetil or azathioprine

NB: Nephrologists tend to avoid prolonged use of Cyclophosphamide without first banking eggs/sperm.

60
Q

a) What are patients with Class V lupus nephritis predisposed to?
b) How do patients with Class V lupus nephritis present?
c) What is the management of Class V lupus nephritis?
d) Describe progression and prognosis of Lupus Nephritis.

A

a) Renal-vein thrombosis (like patients with idiopathic membranous nephropathy) nad other thrombotic complications.
b) A minority will present with HTN and renal dysfunction (varying clinical course reflecting the heterogeneity of this class)
c) Patients with severe nephrotic syndrome, elevated sCr, and a progressive course probably benefit from steroids and immunosuppressive agents.

NB: Antiphospholipid antibodies present in lupus may result in glomerular microthromboses and complicate the course in up to 20%.

d) Patients in lower Classes may develop remission, however patients with higher classes can also have lesions which trnasform, requiring re-evaluation incl biopsy. ~20% of patients with lupus nephritis will reach end stage disease requiring dialysis or transplantation.

61
Q

a) Define Antiglomerular Basement Membrane Disease (anti-GBM)
b) What is it called when these patients present with lung hemorrhage and glomerulonephritis?
c) What are the target epitopes and hexamer structure involved in antiglomerular basement membrane disease?
d) How are the epitopes exposed from the collagen IV hexamer?

A

a) Autoantibodies directed against glomerular basement antigens causing glomerulonephritis.
b) A pulmonary-renal syndrome called Goodpasture’s syndrome.
c) Epitopes lie in the quaternary structure of α3 NC1 domain of collagen IV. Anti-GBM involves a perturbation of quaternary structure of the α 345NC1 hexamer.
d) Usually exposed by infection, smoking, oxidants, or solvents.

62
Q

a) Describe the two age groups in which Goodpastures commonly presents?
b) How do these two groups present?
c) What is the gold standard for diagnosis of Goodpastures Syndrome?
d) What is the main treatment option for Goodpasture Syndrome?

A

a) Young men in their late twenties and in men and women in their sixties and seventies.
b) Disease in the younger group is usually explosive, with hemoptysis, Hb drop, fever, dyspnea, and hematuria. Hemoptysis is largely confined to smokers

Older group has prolonged, asymptomatic renal injury; presentation with oliguria is often associated with a particularly bad outcome.

NB: Those who present with lung hemorrhage as a group do better

c) Urgent Kidney Biopsy. Typically show focal or segmental necrosis that later, with aggressive destruction of the capillaries by cellular proliferation, leads to crescent formation in Bowman’s space. As these lesions progress, there is concomitant interstitial nephritis with fibrosis and tubular atrophy.
d) Patients with severe disease may require acute dialysis, less severe disease typically responds to 8-10 treatments of plasmapheresis with oral pred and cyclophosphamide in the first 2 weeks. Kidney transplantation is possible, but because there is risk of recurrence, experience suggests that patients should wait for 6 months and until serum antibodies are undetectable.

63
Q

a) Describe IgA Nephropathy
b) In what gender and what decade is it likely to present, and what is the more common geographical distribution?
c) How is Henoch-Schonlein purpura distinguished from IgA Nephropathy?
d) In what other diseases are deposits of IgA found in glomerular mesangium?

A

a) Characterized by episodic hematuria associated with the deposition of IgA in the mesangium. One of the most common forms of glomerulonephritis worldwide.
b) Male preponderance in the second and third decades of life. Rare familial clustering. 30% prevalence along Asian and Pacific Rim and 20% Southern Europe (much lower in northern europe and north america).
c) Henoch-Schönlein purpura has prominent systemic symptoms, a younger age (<20 yo), preceding infection, and abdominal complaints.
d) Chronic liver disease, Crohn’s disease, gastrointestinal adenocarcinoma, chronic bronchiectasis, idiopathic interstitial pneumonia, dermatitis herpetiformis, mycosis fungoides, leprosy, ankylosing spondylitis, relapsing polychondritis, and Sjögren’s syndrome.

64
Q

a) What is the gold standard for IgA diagnosis?
b) How does IgA nephropathy most commonly present?
c) What is the prognosis of IgA Nephropathy?
d) What is the treatment of IgA Nephropathy?

A

a) Renal biopsy, despite elevated serum IgA levels in 20–50% of patients, and IgA deposition in skin biopsies in 15–55% of patients.
b) Recurrent episodes of macroscopic hematuria during/immediately following an URTI. Often accompanied by proteinuria &/or persistent asymptomatic microscopic hematuria.
c) IgA nephropathy is a benign disease for the majority, and 5–30% go into a complete remission, with others having hematuria but well preserved renal function. In the minority, there is slow progressive disease, with renal failure seen in only 25–30% of patients over 20–25 years.

NB: Persistent proteinurea for >6 months have poorer outcomes.

d) Large studies have supported the use of ACE-I in patient with proteinuria or declining renal function. In patients with persistent proteinuria steroids and immunosuppressive therapies have shown conflicting results.

NB: When presenting as RPGN, patients typically receive steroids, cytotoxic agents, and plasmapheresis.

65
Q

a) Describe ANCA small-vessel vasculitis
b) How does ANCO cause vasculitis?
c) What conditions are in the group of ANCA small-vessel vasculitis?
d) What serum anti-bodies can be found in the above conditions?
e) How are teh diseases in the above group treated?

A

a) Patients with small-vessel vasculitis (arterioles, capillaries, and venules; rarely small arteries) and glomerulonephritis with positive serum ANCA
b) ANCA are produced with the help of T cells and activate leukocytes and monocytes, which together damage the walls of small vessels. Endothelial injury also attracts more leukocytes and extends the inflammation
c) Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, microscopic polyangiitis, Churg-Strauss syndrome, and renal-limited vasculitis
d) anti-proteinase 3 (PR3) or anti-myeloperoxidase (MPO), Lamp-2 antibodies

NB: anti-PR3 antibodies are more common in granulomatosis with polyangiitis and anti-MPO antibodies are more common in microscopic polyangiitis or Churg-Strauss

e) Although there are unique features to each condition, they’re treated similarly. Induction therapy incl. Glucocorticoids and either Cyclophosphamide or Rituximab.

Plasmapheresis in rapidly progressive renal failure or pulmonary haemorrhage.

Patients are maintained on cyclophosphamide or less toxic agents such as azathioprine, methotrexate, or rituximab for up to a year to minimize the risk of relapse.

NB: Monthly “pulse” IV cyclophosphamide to induce remission of ANCA-associated vasculitis is as effective as daily oral cyclophosphamide but may be associated with increased relapses

66
Q

a) What umbrella group of conditions does Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis come under, and how does it typically present?
b) How does the name change with/without renal involvement, what is the appearance of the CXR and what will biopsy of involved tissue look like?
c) What is the appearance of the biopsy during active disease?
d) After exposure to what is the disease more common?
e) How common is relapse compared to other ANCA-associated vasculitis?

A

a) It comes under ANCA small-vessel vasculitis. Classically present with fever, purulent rhinorrhea, nasal ulcers, sinus pain, polyarthralgias/arthritis, cough, hemoptysis, SOB, microscopic hematuria, and 0.5–1 g/24 h of proteinuria. Occasional cutaneous purpura and Mononeuritis multiplex (asymmetric sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy).
b) Without renal involvement = limited granulomatosis with polyangiitis (some patients will show renal injury later). CXR often reveals nodules and persistent infiltrates, sometimes cavities. Biopsy of involved tissue will show a small-vessel vasculitis and adjacent noncaseating granulomas.
c) Segmental necrotizing glomerulonephritis without immune deposits. Classified as focal, mixed, crescentic or sclerotic
d) Silica dust and those with α1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is an inhibitor of PR3.
e) Relapse after achieving remission is common and is more common in patients with granulomatosis with polyangiitis than the other ANCA-associated vasculitis

NB: L-T f/u is important due to relapse risk and malignancy after immunosuppressive therapy.

67
Q

a) How do Granulomatosis with polyangiitis and Microscopic Polyangiitis differ? and how is this distinction made?
b) When is a diagnosis of Churg-Strauss syndrome considered in the setting of small-vessel vasculitis?
c) What symptoms/serum markers can precede the systemic manifestations of Churg-Strauss?
d) What is seen on renal biopsy of Churg-Strauss?

A

a) Patients with Microscopic Polyangiitis rarely have significant lung disease or destructive sinusitis. Distinction is made on biopsy, where the vasculitis in microscopic polyangiitis is without granulomas. Some patients will also have injury limited to the capillaries and venules.
b) When small-vessel vasculitis is associated with peripheral eosinophilia, cutaneous purpura, mononeuritis, asthma, and allergic rhinitis.
c) Hypergammaglobulinemia, elevated serum IgE, or +ve Rheumatoid factor. Lung inflammation, including fleeting cough and pulmonary infiltrates

NB: A third of patients may have exudative pleural effusions associated with eosinophils.

d) Small-vessel vasculitis and focal segmental necrotizing glomerulonephritis.

NB: Churg-Strauss syndrome is an auto-immune condition

68
Q

a) How are C3 Glomerulopathies defined?
b) What is deemed to be the cause?
c) When does dense deposit disease (DDD) and C3 glomerulopathies commonly present?
d) How do patients with DDD present?
e) What are the C3/C4 values and other diagnostic markers in C3 Glomerulopathies?
f) What are the optimal treatments?

A

a) Defined by the glomerular accumulation of C3 with little or no immunoglobulin and encompasses dense deposit disease (DDD). NB: DDD is defined morphologically with dense deposits forming ribbons in the GBM. In the absence of DDD it is characterised by C3 glomerulonephritis (C3GN).
b) The presence of a complement mutation believed to cause the renal pathology, including mutations in the complement factor H regulatory proteins (CFHR’s) genes.
c) DDD is primarily a disease of children and young adults while the other C3 glomerulopathies are reported to present in an older age group ~30yo.
d) Present with proteinuria and/or hematuria with nephrotic range proteinuria in up to 2/3 of patients
e) C3 levels are typically low, normal C4 levels, C3 nephritic factor, Factor H, paraprotein detection and specific CFHR genetic mutations.
f) Inhibition of the renin-angiotensin system, anticoagulants, steroids and other immunosuppressants.

NB: Some evidence suggests benefit with eculizumab, a monoclonal antibody directed at C5 which is activated by C3.

69
Q

a) What is MEMBRANOPROLIFERATIVE GLOMERULONEPHRITIS (MPGN)?
b) How is it subdivided into types and what are the types?
c) Hw do patients with MPGN present?
d) What are the treatments?
e) What are the clinical signs of poor outcome?

A

a) An immune-mediated glomerulonephritis characterized by thickening of the GBM with mesangioproliferative changes; 70% of patients have hypocomplementemia.
b) Subdivided pathologically into type I, type II, and type III disease.
- Type I MPGN is commonly assoc with persistent hep C infections, autoimmune diseases like lupus or cryoglobulinemia, or neoplastic diseases. Type I is the most proliferative, shows mesangial proliferation with lobular segmentation on renal biopsy and mesangial interposition between the capillary basement membrane and endothelial cells, producing a double contour sometimes called tram-tracking.
- Types II and III MPGN can be idiopathic, and immunoglobulin-mediated disease (driven by the classical complement pathway).
c) Proteinuria, hematuria, and pyuria (30%); systemic symptoms of fatigue and malaise are most common in children with type I disease; or an acute nephritic picture with RPGN and a speedy deterioration in renal function in up to 25% of patients. Low serum C3 levels are common.
d) In the presence of proteinuria, treatment with inhibitors of the renin-angiotensin system is prudent. In secondary MPGN, treating the associated infection, autoimmune disease, or neoplasms is of benefit. In particular, pegylated interferon and ribavirin are useful in reducing viral load.
e) Nephrotic syndrome, hypertension, and renal insufficiency all predict poor outcome.

70
Q

ACUTE NEPHRITIC SYNDROMES: Mesangioproliferative Glomerulonephritis

A