Disorders of CVS Flashcards

1
Q

a) What electrolyte mediates SA and AV nodal cell current in comparison to atrial and ventricular myocytes? (how does this affect phase 0 of Action Potenbetwtial profile)
b) How are cells with properties of SA and AV nodal tissue connected to the remainder of the myocardium?
c) Why are cells in the SA node the dominant pacemakers in a normal heart?

A

a) SA and AV nodal cells are mediated by calcium. Atrial and ventricular myocytes are mediated by sodium current. Thus the action potential upstroke (phase 0) is slow in nodal tissue compared to atrial and ventricular cells.
b) SA and AV nodal cells are electrically conected to the remainder of the myocardium by cells with an electrophysiologic phenotype between that of nodal cells and atrial/ventricular myocytes.
c) Because cells in the SA node exhibit the most rapid phase 4 depolarision thus are the dominant pace makers.

IMAGE: Action potential profiles recorded in SA or AV nodal tissue compared with cells from atrial or ventricular myocardium. Nodal cell action potentials exhibit more depolarized resting membrane potentials, slower phase 0 upstrokes, and phase 4 diastolic depolarization.

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2
Q

a) What is the most common cause of pathologic Bradycardia?
b) In what decades of life should SA node dysfunction be considered and what are the symptoms?
c) What are some reversible aetiologies for bradycardia? & what is the only reliable therapy in the absence of the above reversible aetiologies?

A

a) SA node dysfunction and AV conduction block. (difficult to distinguish from physiologic bradycardia, particularly in the young/athletes)
b) 5th and 6th decades of life SA node dysfunctionm increases in frequency. Symptoms include fatigue, exercise intolerance, syncope all with sinus bradycardia.
c) Increased vagal tone/hypoxia/hypothermia and drugs. The ony reliable therapy is permanent pacemaking.

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3
Q

What are some of the most common aetiologies for bradycardia?

A

**Vascular: CAD, acute MI, collagen vascular disease
**Infectious/inflammation: Pericarditis, myocarditis (incl viral)
**Neoplastic: Increased Intracranial pressure
**Degenerative/Drugs:

Senile Amyloidosis, Sick Sinus Syndrome (SSS)

Beta blockers

 Calcium channel blockers

 Digoxin

 Ivabradine

 Antiarrhythmics (class I and III)

 Adenosine

 Clonidine (other sympatholytics)

 Lithium carbonate

 Cimetidine

 Amitriptyline

 Phenothiazines

 Narcotics (methadone)

 Pentamidine

**Iatrogenic: Radiation therapy/Postsurgical

**Congenital: Myotonic Dystrophy
**Autoimmune/Autonomic: Carotid sinus hypersensitivity. Vasovagal (cardioinhibitory) stimulation. Rheumatic heart disease. Endotracheal suctioning (vagal maneuvers)

**Traumatic: Chest trauma
**Endocrine/Metabolic: Hypothyroidism.

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4
Q

a) What shape are SN node cells and where exactly are they located in the right atrium?
b) What is the vascular source to the SA node and how is it innervated?

A

a) Fusiform shaped cells in the epicardium at the right atrial/SVC junction
b) SA nodal artery arises from the right CA in 55-60% & left circumflex artery in 40-45% of persons. SA node is richly innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves and ganglia

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5
Q

a) How is intrinsic SA node dysfunction characterised?
b) Describe an infiltrative disorder affecting SA node typically seen in the 9th decade of life

A

a) Characterised pathologically by fibrous replacement of the SA node or it’s connections to the atrium. Inflammatory processes will often ultimately produce replacment fibrosis.
b) Senile Amyloidosis. Deposition of Amyloid protein in the atrial myocardium can impair SA node function.

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6
Q

a) Describe a rare heritable form of sinus node disease, the types and pathophysiology
b) What conditions may hasten it’s onset?
c) Name/describe any other conditions you can think of that affect SA node.

A

a) Sick Sinus syndrome

SSS1: Autosomal recessive form with a prominent feature of atrial inexcitability and absence of P waves.

SSS2: Autosomal dominant sinus node dysfunction with SVT (Tachy-brady variant).

SSS3: Variant in myosin heavy chain 6 increase in susceptibility of SSS.

NB: SSS in elderly also associated with fibrous tissue in SA node.

b) CAD, diabetes mellitis, HTN, cardiomyopathies and valvular diseases.
c) Neuromuscular diseases incl Kearns-Sayre syndrome (ophthalmoplegia, retinal disease, cardiomyopathy) and myotonic dystrophy have a predilection for the conducting system and SA node.

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7
Q

a) How could asymptomatic SA node dysfunction manifest on ECG?
b) What altered cardiac rhythms can be caused by SA node dysfunction?

A

a)Sinus bradycardia

Sinus arrest: No conduction from SA node to atria, thus no P wave causing long pauses, arrhythmia and possible fatal asystole.

Exit block: SA Node depolarises normally however impulses are blocked before they can be transmitted. Leads to intermittent dropped P waves

b)SVT, AFib, Bradycardia

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8
Q

a) What symptoms develop with SA Node dysfunction?
b) What are the risks of persistent AFib in a patient with SA Node dysfunction?
c) What is the risk with tachy/brady variant of SSS and what are the risks of this occuring?

A

a) Symptoms commonly only arise from SA Node dysfunction due to concomitant CVD. A minority of patients with SSS will develop heart failure due to fast/slow HRs.
b) Diabetes Mellites, HTN, left Ventricular dilatation, Valvular heart disease and Ventricular pacing
c) Thromboembolism with AFib. Greatest risk if patients >65, stroke, valvular heart diease, left ventricular dysfunction or atrial enlargement. These patients need to be anticoagulated

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9
Q

a) How many patients with SA Node dysfunction have concurrent AV Node dysfunction?
b) How many patients with SA Node dysfunction develop SVT, AFib or AFlutter?

A

a) Up to 25%, however only a minority will require treatment for the AV node.
b) One third to half of patients.

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10
Q

a) What is the definition of sinus bradycardia and what is gernally considered abnormal?

A

a) <60bpm is sinus bradycardia. Very common and typically benign. Generally <40bpm in the awake state in the absence of physical conditioning is considered abnormal.

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11
Q

a) Desribe first degree SA block
b) Describe type I second-degree (Mobitz I/Wenchebach) SA block, and
c) Describe how it appears on the ECG
d) Describe Type II second degree (Mobitz II) SA block on ECG

A

a) Delay between impulse generation in SA Node and transmission to the atrium (not detectable on surface ECG)
b) A progressive prologation of SA node conduction with intermittant failure of the impulses originating in the SA node to conduct to surrounding atrial tissue
c) Intermittent absence of P waves producing a regularly irregular rhythm. Subtly decreasing P-P intervals before the pause.
d) There is no change in SA node conduction, thus no change in P-P interval before the pause.

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12
Q

a) Describe third degree or complete heart block on ECG
b) How can the rhythm be maintained in third degree heart block?
c) What the most common causes of SA Exit block?

A

a) No SA Node impulses are conducted to the right atrium, thus a complete absence of P waves. May lead to fatal asystole.
b) Junctional escape rhythms
c) Sick sinus syndrome, increased vagal tone (athletes), vagal stimulation (surgery, pain), inferior MI, myocarditis, drugs (digoxin, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, amiodarone).

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13
Q

a) How is SA Node dysfunction diagnosed? and What diagnostic testing can be utilised?
b) How can SA Node disease be ruled out?

A

a) Diagnosis is commonly clinical with ECG correlation. Longer-term ECG measurements e.g. Holter monitor (~24hrs) may permit correlation of symptoms with cardiac rhythm.
b) SA Node dysfunction may be ruled out when symptoms occur in the absence of sinus bradyarrhythmias.

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14
Q

a) What are 2 differential diagnoses for SA Node dysfunction?
b) Define these conditions
c) How can they be differentiated from SA Node dysfunction?

A

a) Chronotropic Incompetence and Carotid Sinus Hypersensitivity.
b) Chronotropic incompetence is failure to increase HR with exercise, specifically failure to reach 85% HR max or failure to achieve a HR >100. Carotid sinus hypersensitivity (CSH) is defined by >3 sec pause (asystole-which can be present in asymptomatic elderly) and a decrease of 50mmHg BP or more with carotid sinus massage.
c) Exercise testing is useful to discriminate between chronotropic incompetence and resting bradycardia. Autonomic nervous system testing with carotid sinus massage can confirm CSH.

NB: Determining the intrinsic heart rate (IHR) with propranolol & atropine can also indicate SA disease.

NB: Electrophysiologic testing using invasive techniques can be used to rule out more malignant aetiologies of syncope e.g VTachyarrhythmias and AV conduction block.

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15
Q

a) Describe the treatment for symptomatic and asymptomatic SA Node dysfunction
b) What medications should be discontinued prior to decisions regarding the need for PPM?

A

NB: Since SA node dysfunction is not associated with increased mortality rates, aim of therapy is to alleviate symptoms

a) In symptomatic SA Node dysfunction, exclusion of extrinsic causes and correlation with symptoms is an essential part of initial management. PM implantation is the primary therapeutic intervention in patients with symptomatic SA Node dysfunction.
b) Cease beta blockers and calcium channel blockers, which increase SNRT (sinus node recovery time) & cease antiarrhymthic drugs with class I and III action that may promote SA Node exit block.

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16
Q

a) Is there a role for chronic pharmacotherapy is SA Node dysfunction?
b) Are there any medications for acute management of SA Node dysfuction?
c) What is the MOA of the above mentioned medications?

A

a) Chronic pharmacotherapy for sinus bradycardias is limited. Digitalis has been shown to shorten SNRT in patients with SA node dysfunction.
b) Isoprenaline or atropine can be used to increase SA firing rate acutely when bradyarrhythmia occurs with haemodynamic compromise. Atropine is short-acting, Isoprenaline can be given by prolonged infusion for a longer duration of action. PM is then preferred for persistent bradycardia.
c) Atropine functions to competitively block the action of acetylcholine at parasympathetic (muscarinic) sites in smooth muscle, secretory glands and the CNS. From a cardiac perspective, this increases CO by increasing HR and contractility.

NB: Theophylline has been used acutely & chronically to increase HR, however has risks for patients with tachy-brady syndrome, increasing risk of SVT and serious ventricular arrhythmias.

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17
Q

a) What is the primary indication of pacing in SA Nodal disease?
b) What are the indications for the use of pacemakers, as categorised by levels of evidence?
c) Describe what each class of evience means.

A

a) Pacing in SA Nodal disease is indicated to alleviate symptoms of bradycardia.
b) See table
c) Class I conditions are those for which there is evience or consensus of opinion that therapy is useful and effective.

Class II evidence there is conflicting evidence. e.g. Class IIa conditions the weight of evidence favours treatment; in class IIb conditions, efficacy is less well established by the evidene/opinion of experts.

Class III conditions the evidence suggests the therapy/treatment is not efficacious & may be harmful.

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18
Q

a) What is the long-term treatment option for CSH and Vasovagal Syncope?

A

a)CSH, if accompnied by a significant cardioinhibitory component, responds well to PM. The mechanism of vaso-vagal syncope is incompletely understood and several RCTs involving PM have shown inconclusive results.

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19
Q

a) What is the % of young adults affected by AV conduction block?
b) What is the incidence of AV block in adult populations?
c) Of the PM inplanted in America and Europe, how many for due to AV conduction disorders?

A

a) 10% of young adults suffer high vagal tone which can cause transient AV conduction block.
b) Estimated incidence of 200 per million population per year. With comorbidities such as MI, aging and fibrosis, persistent AV block is much more common.
c) ~50% of 160,000 PPM is the US and 70-80% of those in Europe.

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20
Q

a) Where is the AV Node located in relation to the lining of the heart, where is it located in relation to the R atrium? & what atrionodal bundles converge on it from the SA Node?
b) What is the name and anatomic borders of a prominent atrial triangle?
c) Describe the names and course of the electrical conduction system of the heart once it leaves the AV Node.

A

a) AV Node located in the subendocardial structure of the heart (transitional zone). It is in the posterior-inferior aspect of the right atrium. Superior, medial and posterior transitional atrionodal bundles converge on the AV Node.
b) Triangle of Koch, bordered by coronary sinus ostium posteriorly, septal tricuspid valve anteriorly, and the t_endon of Todaro superiorly_.
c) AV Node > central fibrous body > annulus fibrosis > bundle of His > Splits

RBB > travels around R ventricle (moderator band)

LBB > expands into broad subendocardial sheet of tissue in L ventricle.

Purkinje fibres emerge from RBB and LBB and ramifies (branches out) on the endocardial surface of the R & L ventricles.

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21
Q

a) Describe the blood supply and innervation to AV Node & bundle branches.
b) Describe in simple terms the cellular make up of the AV Node and conducting system.

A

a) AV nodal artery and first septal perforator of LAD supply AV Node. Bundle branches have dual supply from septal LAD perforators and branches from PDA.
- AV Node is highly innervated by postganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The bundle of His and distal conducting system are minimally influenced by autonomic tone.
b) AV Node cells are heterogenous with a range of action potential profiles. Fast and slow AV nodal pathways have been described but it is controversial whether these are anatomically distinct or represent two different regions of the AV nodal complex. The His bundle and BB are insulated from ventricular myocardium. The most rapid conduction is observed in these tissues.

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22
Q

a) In what simple way can AV Node disorders be classified?
b) List some possible causes for AV Node dysfunction
c) What infectious, autoimmune and neuromuscular diseases have a particular predilection for the conduction system and may affect the AV Node?

A

a) May be classified as functional or structural, functional causes are more likely to be reversible. Structural changes e.g. with fibrosis are generally permanent (often associated with normal aging)
b) Use VINDICATE acronym. See table
c) See table

NB: AV block may also occur during valve surgery or as a consequence of catheter ablation.

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23
Q

a) In what percentage of patients with acute MI does AV block develop?
b) How does inferior MI affect the AV node and at what level?
c) How does anterior MI affect the AV node and at what level?

A

a) 10-15%
b) Level of block tends to be in the AV node with stable, narrow escape rhythms.
c) Level of block at the distal AV nodal complex, His bundle, or bundle branches. Results in wide complex, unstable escape rhythms and worse prognosis with high mortality.

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24
Q

a) How does AV conduction block manifest on ECG?
b) What does the width of the QRS say about the location of the block?
c) Where does Type II second degree (Mobitz II) typically occur in the conduction system?
d) What is it called when there is a series of non-conducted P-waves?

A

a) Slow conduction on ECG in it’s mildest form and complete failure to conduct intermittently or persistently in it’s more severe form.
b) Narrow QRS suggests delay in AV node or Bundle of His. Wide QRS suggests delay in distal conduction system.
c) Typically in the distal of infra-His conduction system, often assoc with intraventricular conduction delays (e.g. BBB). More likely to proceed to higher grades of AV block.

NB: Mobitz II-Intermittent non-conducted P waves without progressive prolongation of PR interval.

d) Paroxysmal AV block, implies significant conduction disease and is an indication for PPM.

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25
Q

a) What is the primary aim of diagnostic tests for the AV Node and why is this important?
b) How can location of AV Node block be identified and
c) What can be used to do this?
d) Where is the block commonly located in type II second-degree (mobitz II) block?
e) What electrophysiologic testing is available and how does this change the management?

A

a) Testing is aimed at determining the level of conduction block, particularly in asymptomatic patients. Prognosis and therapy depend on this.
b) Location can be identified through the differences in innervation of AV Node & infranodal conduction system
c) Vagal stimulation and carotid sinus massage slow conduction in the AV Node. Atropine/Isoprenaline, and exercise improve conduction through AV Node and impair inranodal conduction.
e. g patients with CHB and narrow QRS, exercise typically increases HR, in contrast with acquired CHB with wide QRS, does not respond with change to HR.
d) Commonly infranodal in the His-Purkinje system.
e) His bundle electrogram can give more precise info about the location of the block/atrial and ventricular activation. This can be helpful in second degree blocks. With acquired CHB there is little indication as PPM is almost always indicated.

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26
Q

a) When is temporary pacing indicated? What are the causative factors?
b) What are some adjunctive therapies to PM?
c) What are the types of temporary pacing?

A

a) During acute haemodynamic compromise due to a transient causative factor.

Inferior MI, electrolyte derangement and ishcaemia, inhibition of excessive vagal tone, withholding of drugs with AV Nodal blocking qualities.

b) Atropine or Isoprenaline if block is in AV node.
c) Transcutaneous pacing for minutes/hours (cathode-Anterior & Anode-posterior) & Transvenous pacing for hours/days. Placed in jugular or subclavian and advanced to right ventricle.

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27
Q

a) Why are there no RCTs of pacing in patients with AV block?
b) What are the indications for PM?
c) Do patients who are asymptomatic get a PM?

A

a) High-grade AV block is potentially lethal.
b) Symptomatic bradycardia and irreversible second or third degree AV block (regardless of cause or level).
c) Therapy is individualised in this group. PM is indicated in aquired CHB with cardiac enlargement; left ventricular dysfunction and waking HR <40. Second degree AV block with wide QRS and intra or infra His block, profound first degree AV block and patients with neuromuscular diseases that have a predilection for the conduction system.

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28
Q

a) Describe the basic mechanism of ACS
b) When is a STEMI likely to develop in coronary vasculature and how does this happen?
c) Describe the factors associated with vascular injury?
d) Describe the cascade of events following vascular injury

A

a) Disruption of a vulnerable plaque results in a completely of subtotally occlusive thrombus, this may then result in ischaemic chest discomfort.
b) STEMI occurs when a coronary artery thrombus develops rapidly at a site of vascular injury.
c) cigarette smoking, HTN, and lipid accumulation.
d) STEMI occurs when the surface of an atherosclerotic plaque becomes disrupted (exposing its contents to the blood) and conditions (local or systemic) favor thrombogenesis. The coagulation cascade is activated on exposure of tissue factor in damaged endothelial cells at the site of the disrupted plaque. The coronary artery eventually becomes occluded by a thrombus containing platelet aggregates and fibrin strands

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29
Q

a) What are the determinants of MI injury/severity?
b) What are some rare causes of STEMI?

A

a) -Vulnerable plaque and thrombogenic blood
- Coronary microvasculature dysfunction
- Cardiomyosite swelling, interstitial oedema, tissue inflammation.
b) Coronary emboli, congenital abnormalities, coronary spasm +many others

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30
Q

a) What are seven factors that affect myocardial damage caused by coronary occlusion?

A

a) 1-Territory supplied by affected vessel

2-If the vessel was completely occluded

3-Duration of occlusion

4-Amount of collateral vessels supplying affected tissue

5-Oxygen demand for that particular segment of myocardium

6-Endogenous factors that can produce early spontaneous lysis of the occlusive thrombus

7-Adequacy of myocardial perfusion in the infarct zone when flow is restored in the occluded epicardial coronary artery

31
Q

a) What symptoms often accompany chest pain in an MI?
b) What are some common DDx that present similarly
c) What are some indicators of pain that may rule out MI?
d) Describe STEMI presentations without pain, how else can these patients present?

A

a) Weakness, sweating, nausea, vomiting, amxiety, and a sense of impending doom.
b) Acute pericarditis, PE, acute aortic dissection, costochondritis, and GI disorders
c) Pain may radiate as high as the occipital area but not below the umbilicus (more likely GI). Radiation to the trapezius is also uncommon and pericarditis should be considered in this case.
d) Patients with TIIDM are less likely to experience chest pain. In the elderly, STEMI may present with sudden dyspnoea and progress to APO, sudden LOC, confusion, sense of profound weakness, new arrhythmia, evidence of peripheral PE or unexplained drop in SBP.

32
Q

a) What are the physical findings for a patient with STEMI?
b) How can the location of the infarct affect the nervous system to alter the physical signs?

A

a) Restless/Anxious, Pallor, Diaphoresis, 3rd and 4th heart sounds depending on ventricular dysfunction, murmurs due to affected valvular dysfunction e.g. mitral; pericardial friction rub (transmural STEMI), decreased carotid pulse volume due to decreased SV.
b) ~25% patients with anterior infarct have symptoms of sympathetic hyperactivity (tachy/hypertensive), up to 50% with inferior infarct have parasympathetic hyperactivity (bradycardia/hypotension).

33
Q

a) What are the stages of STEMI over time?
b) What are the primary lab tests of value when confirming STEMI Dx?

A

a) 1-Acute (hours-7 days)

2-Healing (7-28 days)

3-Healed (>29 days)

b) ECH, cardiac biomarkers, cardiac imaging, and nonspecific indices of tissue necrosis/inflammation (?lactate)

34
Q

a) In addition to ST elevation, what other common ECG change may be seen in acute MI?
b) What factors affect whether this wave is transient or present at all?

A

a) Patients may evolve a Q wave, which may be transient.
b) Depends on whether the leads overly the infarct zone, reperfusion status of ischaemic mycardium and restoration of membrane potentials over time. Q wave may not occur if obstructing thrombus is not totally occlusive, obstruction is transient or if there’s a rich collateral network.

35
Q

a) When are Q waves considered normal?
b) When are Q waves considered pathological?

A

a) Small Q waves are normal in most leads, deeper Q waves >2mm may be in lead III and aVR, normally Q waves are not seen in leads V1-V3.
b) Pathological Q waves indicate current or prior MI.

Pathological if:

  • >40ms (1 small square) wide
  • >2mm deep (2 small squares)
  • >25% depth of QRS complex
  • Seen in leads V1-V3
36
Q

a) Why are troponins useful in diagnosing MI?
b) What is the other cardiac biomarker that can be useful and why?

A

a) Serum biomarkers such as troponins are released from necrotic heart muscle after STEMI. It’s valuable in distinguihing unstable angina from NSTEMI. It’s less of an immediate value in patients with STEMI as often reperfusion necessitates urgent decision making.

NB: cTnI may remain elevated for 7-10 days.

b) CK-MB is advantageous because it is not present in significant concentrations in extracardiac muscle. However it may be elevated after cardiac surgery, myocarditis and cardioversion.

NB: CK on it’s own may be elevated with skeletal muscle disease or trauma and is therefore not specific enough to Dx MI.

37
Q

a) How is the quantity of troponin related to size of the infarct?
b) What is the primary cardiac imaging technique aside from CXR, what is it’s benefit in the acute setting?
c) What 2 serious complications of STEMI can this imaging technique pick up?

A

a) There is only a weak correlation between _size of the infarct and troponin level_s, re-opening of coronary artery occlusion (spontaneous/ mechanical/pharmacologic), in the early hours of STEMI may cause a higher trop peak due to rapid wash-out from the infarct zone, overwhelming lymphatic clearance and thus entering the venous system.
b) Echocardiography cannot tell between acute and chronic ishaemia, however can be used to diagnose wall motion abnormalities, LV function, RV infarction, ventricular aneurysm, pericardial effusion, and LV thrombus.
c) Doppler Echocardiography can indicate septal defects & mitral regurg, two serious complications of STEMI

38
Q

a) What other imaging techniques are available after the acute stage of MI?

A

a) -Myocardial perfusion Imaging with Tl or Tc-sestamibi distributes in proportion to myocardial blood flow and viable myocardium, therefore injured/scarred myocardium reveals a cold spot in the first few hours after transmural MI. (NB: cannot distinguish between acute and chronic).
- Radionucleotide Ventriculography: Labelled RBCs demonstrate wall motion disorders. Value in assessing haemodynamic consequences of infarction, it is non-specific as many cardiac abnormalities alter the ventriculogram.
- High Resolution Cardiac MRI with ‘late enhancement’ technique. Uses Gadolinium, images are obtained after 10min delay, gradually percolates into infarct zone, giving bright signal in areas of infarction.

39
Q

a) Describe the types of MI in relation to their clinical circumstances

A

a)

Type I: Spontaneous MI related to atherosclerotic plaque rupture, ulceration, fissuring, erosion, or dissection.

Type II: MI secondary to Ischaemic Imbalance. Condition other than CAD contributes to O2 imbalance e.g. coronary spasm, coronary embolism, tachy-brady arrhythmias, anaemia, respiratory failure, hypotension or hypertension

Type III: MI resulting in death when biomarkers unavailable. Ischaemic symptoms and ischaemic ECG changes or new LBBB, death occured prior to biomarkers obtained or could rise

Type IVa: MI related to PCI

Type IVb: MI related to Stent Thrombosis. Detected on coronary angiography or autopsy.

Type V: MI related to CABG

40
Q

a) What is the ideal time between first medical contact and PCI? What is the gold-standard time?
b) What initial medication should be given to a patient with chest pain, possible cardiac origin in order?
c) What are the considerations when giving Morphine IV for pain relief?
d) What other medication could be considered for pain control, what is the mechanism?

A

a) Within 120minutes of first medical contact. First medical contact to PCI device time gold standard Class A evidence is <90mins.
b) 300mg Aspirin>(if chest pain ongoing)>400-800mcg SL GTN every 5mins (3 doses) >(if chest pain ongoing) Morphine IV 2.5-5mg.

NB: May consider IV nitroglycerin, however avoid if SBP <90mmHg or suspicion of inferior MI

c) It reduces sympathetically mediated arteriolar and venous contriction, thus reducing CO. Vagotonic effect may also cause bradycardia or advanced heart block. Volume expansion with IV saline may be required.
d) Beta-blockers e.g. metoprolol can be considered if HR >60bpm. Presumably by diminishing myocardial O2 demand and hence ischemia. There is also evidence that that IV b-blockers reduce risk of re-infarction and ventricular fibrillation. NB: There are other important factors for use of this medication.

41
Q

a) What ECG signs indicate a patient is a candidate for reperfusion therapy?
b) Describe the cardiac zones of infarction and their related prognosis?
c) What can be done to optimise the timely restoration of coronary perfusion? Is there anything to avoid?

A

a) ST segment elevation of at least 2mm in 2 contiguous precordial leads and 1mm in two adjacent limb leads is present.
b) The central zone of infarct contains necrotic tissue and is irretrievably lost. However, the surrounding ischaemic myocardium (ischaemic penumbra) may be improved with timely restoration of coronary perfusion.
c) Adequate pain control, treatment of CHF, minimising tachycardia and reducing hypertension. Avoid glucocorticoids and NSAIDs (except aspirin) which can impair healing and increase risk of myocardial rupture.

42
Q

a) Compared with fibrinolysis, when is primary PCI preferred?
b) What is the goal of fibrinoysis and when should it be administered?
c) What fibrinolytic tissue plasminogen activators (tPA) are used in Australia? What are the doses?
d) What are these drugs primary MOA?

A

a) When diagnosis is in doubt, cardiogenic shock is present, bleeding risk increased, or symptoms have been present for 2-3h (when clot is more mature and less easily lysed by fibrinolytic drugs).
b) Goal is prompt restoration of full coronary arterial patency. Therapy should ideally be initiated within 30 mins of presentation.
c) Alteplase: >65kg 15mg IV bolus, followed by 50mg IV over 30mins, then 35mg over 60mins. OR

Reteplase: 10 units IV bolus, repeat once after 30mins OR

Tenecteplase: <60kg: 30mg (6000 units) IV bolus. 60-69kg: 35mg (7000units) IV bolus. 70-79kg: 40mg (8000units) IV bolus. 80-89kg 45mg (9000units) IV bolus. >90kg 50mg (10000units) IV bolus.

d) These drugs promote conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which subsequently lyses fibrin thrombi.

43
Q

a) What are the 7 absolute contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy?

A

a) Any prior IC haemorrhage

Known structural cerebrovascular lesion (e.g. A-V Malformation)

Known malignant IC neoplasm

Ischaemic stroke within the last 3/12 (except acute iscaemic strone within 4.5hrs)

Suspected Aortic Dissection

Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excl menses)

Significant closed head or facial trauma within 3/12.

44
Q

a) What are the 13) relative contraindications of fibrinolytic therapy?

A

a) History of chronic, severe, poorly controlled PB

Severely elevated BP on presentation SBP >180mmHg or DBP >110mmHg.

Ischaemic stroke more than 3/12 ago, dementia, or known IC abnormality not covered as an absolute CI

Traumatic or prolonged CPR >10mins

Recent major surgery <3/52

Recent internal bleeding <4/52 e.g. GI or GU

Non-compressible vascular punctures in past 24hrs e.g liver biopsy, lumbar puncture

Pregnancy or within 1/52 post-partum

Active peptic ulcer disease

Current use of anti-coagulants, the higher the INR, the higher bleeding risk

Advanced liver disease (due to thrombocytopenia)

Infective endocarditis

TIA <6/12 ago

45
Q

a) What is the most concerning adverse effect of Fibrinolytic therapy?
b) What indicates that fibrinolytic therapy may have failed? and what options are these in this case?

A

Haemorrhage. Haemorrhagic stroke is the most serious complication and occurs in ~0.5-0.9% of patients treated with these agents. >70yo have ~double the risk.

b) When there is failure of perfusion (e.g. persistent chest pain and ST elevation >90mins) a rescue PCI should be considered; or in coronary artery re-occlusion (re-elevation of ST segments) or recurrent angina, in which case urgent PCI should be considered.

46
Q

a) What are some added holistic considerations to management post MI?
b) Which types of medication are used in long-term management of acute coronary syndromes?
c) What are these medications and their doses?

A

a) Activity in the first 3/7, Diet (low Na), Bowel Management and Sedation e.g Diazepam if required to attain good bed rest in first 24hrs.
b) Dual anti-platelet therapy, a statin, beta-blocker, ACEI or ARBs for those intolerant to ACEI
c) Aspirin 100mg + Clopidogrel (P2Y12 inhibitor)75mg, Atenolol/Metoprolol 25-100mg, ACEI multiple options e.g. Enalapril 2.5-40mg, ARB multiple options e.g. Irbesartan 75-300mg

47
Q

a) What is the mechanism of Clopidogrel?
b) What is the best management for ventricular dysfunction after ACS?
c) What are the clinical signs of left ventricular pump failure on haemodynamic assessment?
d) Approx how much of the LV is affected for haemodynamic symptoms to become apparent?
e) Describe diastolic failure in basic terms

A

a) The active metabolite of clopidogrel selectively inhibits binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to its platelet P2Y12 receptor and the subsequent ADP- mediated activation of the glycoprotein GPIIb/IIIa complex, thereby inhibiting platelet aggregation. This action is irreversible.
b) ACEI or ARBs should be prescribed to reduce/reduce effects of ventricular remodelling. Particularly when Ejection Fraction <40%.
c) Pulmonary crackles, S3 and S4 gallop sounds (triple rhythm in diastole is called a gallop and results from the presence of a S3, S4 or both), elevated LV filling pressure and elevated pulmonary artery pressure.
d) 20-25%, infarction of >40% of the LV usually results in cardiogenic shock.
e) Reduction in ventricular compliance often due to cardiomyopathy/cardiac dilatation.

48
Q

a) What sre the most common reasons for hypovolaemia post ACS?
b) What is the approx optimal LV filling or pulmonary artery wedge pressure?
c) What is the mainstay of management for CHF in the context of STEMI? What medication is less effective in this instance?
d) Where is the location of the ACS if the RV is affected?
e) What are some clinical signs of RV failure?

A

a) Diuretics, reduced fluid intake or vomiting.
b) ~20mmHg
c) Diuretic agents are extremely effective, and Frusemide IV is the first point of call. Digitalis administration to patients with STEMI are unimpressive.
d) Inferior infarction or inferoposterior infarction.
e) Increased LVP/extension, hepatomegaly, Kussmaul’s sign (paradoxical increase in JVP with inspiration).

49
Q

a) What is the main cause of Arrhythmias after STEMI?
b) Describe a Ventricular Premature Contraction (VPC), what medication is effective at reducing VPC?
c) How does a VPC occur and how is it named?

A

a) Autonomic NS imbalance, electrolyte disturbances, ischaemia and slowed conduction zones of ischaemic myocardium.
b) VPC are ventricular premature depolarisations that occur in many patients with STEMI and do not require therapy. B-blockers abolish VPC in patients with STEMI and in the prevention of VF, however in the context of healthy patients, are not usually needed.
c) Groups of PM cells throughout the conducting system are capable of spontaneous depolarisation. Ectopic firing of a focus within the ventricles bypasses the His-Purkinje system and depolarises the ventricles directly.

50
Q

a) What are the 4 main ECG features of a Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVC)?
b) How are PVCs classified and what are the repeating patterns?
c) What electrolyte abnormalities are a high risk for VT in patients with STEMI? What level should their values be aimed?

A

a) Broad QRS complex >120ms, premature (e.g. earlier than the next SR is expected), Discordant ST segment and T wave changes (ST segment and T wave changes are directed oposite to the main vector of the QRS complex), usually followed by compensatory pause.
b) Unifocal (single ectopic focus), multifocal (two or more ectopic foci. Patterns include:

Bigeminy-Every other beat is PVC

Trigeminy-Every third beat is PVC

Quadrigeminy-Every fourth beat is PVC

Couplet-two consecutive PVCs

NSVT: 3-30 consecutive PVCs

c) Hypokalaemia and Hypomagnesaemia, aim for ~4.5mmol/L and 2.0mmol/L respectively.

51
Q

a) In sustained VT that is well tolerated haemodynamically, what are the medication options?
b) What is the next step if VT does not cease promptly?
c) What is the management when haemodynamically unstable VT?

A

a) Amiodarone 300mg IV over 10-20mins, followed by 900mg by IV infusion over 24hrs (lidocaine is another less common option).
b) Direct Current (DC) cardioversion
c) DC Cardioversion, if refractory, give epinephrine (1mg IV) or amiodarone 75-150mg bolus).

NB: If not successful, requires urgent consideration for implantation of a cardioverter-defibrillator.

52
Q

a) What is the initial management of symptomatic bradycardia with haemodynamic compromise in the context of post-STEMI?
b) If the bradycardia is persistent, what is the management?
c) What is an important consideration with AV block in terms of the location of the STEMI that has caused it?

A

a) Atropine 0.5mg every 3-5mins to a max of 3mg.
b) If persistent, may be considered for electrical PM.
c) Heart block in inferior infarction is commonly the result of increased vagal tone or release of adenosine, thus is transient. Heart block related to anterior wall infarction is usually related to ischaemic malfunction of the conduction system, which is commonly assoc with myocardial necrosis.

53
Q

a) What are the possible complications after STEMI?
b) What is important management with recurrent chest pain post STEMI?
c) What pattern of discomfort is typical for pericarditis
d) What is the management of pericarditis?

A

a) Recurrent chest discomfort, pericarditis, thromboembolism & left ventricular aneurysm
b) Refer for immediate coronary arteriography or mechanical revascularisation due to high risk of further ischaemic damage.
c) Sharp, radiates to either trapezius, pleuritic. Worse when supine and eased when sitting up and leaning forward.
d) eTG: >70kg Colchicine 500mcg BD for 3/12 PLUS Aspirin 750-1000mg TDS for 1 or 2/52. Decrease by 250-500mg every 1 or 2 weeks to stop.

54
Q

a) What are the two main types of emboli and where do they arise post STEMI?
b) What can be a major complication of a)1 from the above question?
c) What is the medical mgmt when a thrombus or large area of regional wall motion abnormality is seen?

A

a) 1-Arterial emboli arise from LV mural thrombus & 2-pulmonary emboli arise from leg veins.
b) Hemiparesis when the cerebral circulation is involved or HTN if the renal circulation is compromised
c) Systemic anti-coagulation, usually ~3-6 months.

55
Q

a) What is a left ventricular (LV) wall aneurysm and what is it composed of?
b) What are the complications of LV wall aneurysm, when do they occur in relation to STEMI, where in the heart are they most common and what is the main physical finding?

A

a) It is dyskinesis aka outward movement of a wall segment during systole (or local expansile paradoxical wall motion). Composed of scar tissue.
b) CHF, arterial embolism, and ventricular arrhythmias. Occur weeks-months after STEMI. Apical aneurysms are the most common, diffuse, or displaced apical impulse is the main physical finding.

56
Q

a) What factors are associated with increased CV risk after STEMI? (12)
b) How is exercise stress testing utilised following STEMI?

A

a) Persistent ischemia (spontaneous/provoked), LV ejection fraction (<40%), crackles above lung bases or congestion on CXR, & symptomatic ventricular arrhythmias. Also hx of MI, >75yo, DM, prolonged sinus tachycardia, hypotension, ST-segment changes at rest without angina (“silent ischemia”), nonpatency of infarcted coronary artery on angio, advanced heart block or new IV conduction abnormality.

NB: Recognition of a depressed LV ejection fraction by echocardiography identifies patients who should receive meds to inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

b) Submaximal exercise stress testing before D/C to detect ischemia or ventricular ectopy to provide the patient a guideline for exercise in the early recovery period. Alternatively/in addition, a maximal (symptom-limited) exercise stress test at 4–6 weeks after infarction.

57
Q

a) What is the usual timeline for a patient returning to physical activity and work following a STEMI?

A

a)Hospital for an uncomplicated STEMI ~3–5 days.

First 1–2 weeks, patient is encouraged to increase activity by walking short distances. Normal sexual activity may be resumed during this period.

After 2 weeks, the physician must regulate the patient’s activity on the basis of exercise tolerance.

Most patients will be able to return to work within 2–4 weeks.

58
Q

a) What are the secondary prevention medications utilised post STEMI?

A

a) A_spirin 100mg_, (Clopidogrel 75mg if intolerant)

ACEI or ARBs and/or aldosterone antagonists should be used indefinitely by patients with clinically evident heart failure, a moderate decrease in global ejection fraction, or a large regional wall motion abnormality to prevent late ventricular remodeling and recurrent ischemic events.

Beta-blockers for at least 2 years after STEMI

Discussion regarding risks for atherosclerosis

NB: Patients who have a stent and an indication for anticoagulation should receive dual antiplatelet therapies in combination with warfarin. They should also receive a proton pump inhibitor to minimize the risk of GI bleeding and should have regular monitoring of their Hb levels and stool test.

59
Q

a) Define AF
b) How fast is the ventricular rate of conduction in AF?
c) What are the obvious ECG changes in AF?
d) Describe paroxysmal AF?
e) Name the three types of AF in basic terms, with timelines and the anatomic triggers.

A

a) AF is a type of arrhythmia characterised by disorganised, rapid and irregular atrial activation with loss of atrial contraction and an irregular ventricular rate determined by AV conduction
b) Ventricular rate tends to be 120-160bpm. It may exceed 200bpm, however it may be lower if the patient has high vagal tone.
c) Absence of distinct P waves and irregularly irregular rhythm
d) Episodes of AF from ectopic foci, commonly cease within 24hrs, however can last up to 7 days.
e) Paroxysmal AF (<7 days)> Persistent AF (>7 days) (requiring Cardioversion) > Long-standing persistent or permanent AF

60
Q

a) What are the risk factors for developing AF?
b) What are some acute precipitating factors of AF?
c) In patients with AF >1 year, what cardiac changes are present?
d) What are the clinical consequences of AF? What are the subjective symptoms?

A

a) Age (~95% AF patients are >60yo), HTN, DM, Heart failure, obesity, sleep apnoea.

NB: AF is also a risk of developing heart failure & vice-versa

b) Hyperthyroidism, acute ETOH intoxication, MI or PE, also after cardiac surgery or pericarditis.
c) Structural and electrophysiological remodelling e.g. fibrosis, which uncouples atrial fibres, promoting focal automaticity. In patients with AF >1 year, it is difficult to restore or maintain SR.
d) Loss of atrial contribution to ventricular filling, predisposition to thrombus formation with potential embolization, exacerbation of heart failure, chronic tachycardia due to depressed ventricular function, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, heart failure with preserved systolic function. Subjectively, exercise intolerance, fatigability, dizziness or syncope (can occur when AF terminates to SR (tachy-brady)).

61
Q

a) How is treatment of AF guided in general terms?
b) How is new onset sympomatic AF treated? What is the importance with timing?

A

a) Primarily guided by patient symptoms, haemodynamic effect, duration of AF, risk of stroke and underlying heart diease.
b) New onset symptomatic AF e.g. causing severe hypotension, pulmonary oedema &/or angina should be electronically cardioverted. If duration of AF is unclear or known to be >48h, anticoagulation must be commenced prior to cardioversion.

62
Q

a) Where is the major source of thromboembolism and stroke in AF?
b) Why is there a risk of thromboembolism after 48h?
c) Who has the highest risk for thromboembolism with AF, even within 48h of onset?
d) What happens if a patient presents with AF within 48hrs?
e) Describe the 2 approaches to anticoagulation?

A

a) Formation of thrombus in the left atrial appendage where flow is relatively stagnant.
b) Following conversion from prolonged AF to SR, atrial mechanical function can be delayed for weeks, such that thromboembolism can occur days after restoration of SR if anticoagulation is not taken.
c) Patients with rheumatic/mitral stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, prior hx of embolic events, or marked left atrial enlargement.

NB: These patients may require anticoagulation even within 48h of onset.

d) Patients at low risk can be instructed to notify their physician to arrange for cardioversion within 48hrs.
e) 1-Anticoagulate for 3/52 before cardioversion and a minimum of 4 weeks after to allow time for full atrial mechanical recovery.

2-Start anticoagulation, perform an echo to check for the presence of thrombus, if thrombus is absent proceed with cardioversion and anticoagulate for minimum of 4 weeks.

NB: There is a substantial risk of recurrence after cardioversion, and longer-term maintenance of anticoagulation is considered based on patient individual risk e.g. CHA2DS2VASc score

63
Q

a) Describe the pupose and medication options for acute rate control of AF

A

a) The goal of acute rate control is to reduce the ventricular rate to <110bpm. PO is usually efficient, however may use IV if required. e.g. Patient with normal LV function Atenolol 25mg daily (increase up to 100mg if req) or Metoprolol 25mg BD (up to 100mg BD). OR patients with LV dysfunction/HF: Diltiazem MR 180mg daily (up to 360mg) OR Verapamil MR 180mg daily (up to 480mg)

64
Q

a) What is the goal of chronic rate control in AF? What is the goal rate at rest and exertion?
b) What medications can be used for L-T rate control?

A

a) Prevent deterioration of ventricular function from excessive rates. Rate of <80bpm at rest & <100bpm with light exertion (walking). NB: If adequate rate control is difficult to acheive catheter ablation of AV junction to create heart block or implantation of PPM achieves permanent rate control without medication.
b) Flecainide 50mg BD (up to 150mg BD) PLUS (if still in AF)Sotalol 40mg BD (up to 160mg BD)

65
Q

a) What conditions give a definite anticoagulation requirement for AF?
b) What is non-valvular AF?
c) What is CHA2DS2VASc and what are the associated points?
d) When is anticoagulation considered according to the above score?

A

a) Mitral stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy or prior hx of stroke
b) Patients with AF who do not have mod-severe mitral stenosis or mechanical heart valve
c) Congestive HF=1

HTN=1

Age>75yo=2

DM=1

Stroke=2

Vascular Disease=1

Age 65-75yo=1

Sex-female=1

d) Anticoagulation is recommended for score of 2 or more, and may be considered for score of 1.

66
Q

a) What anticoagulants are used for valvular vs nonvalvular AF?
b) What are the options for NOACs?
c) When do you not use NOACs in AF? What is their advantage?
d) How are Warfarin and NOACs reversed?

A

a) Valvular AF has an increased risk of thromboembolism and stroke and Warfarin should be used (others are inferior). In non-valvular AF, Warfarin or Non-Vitamin K Oral Anticoagulants (NOACs) can be used.
b) Direct thrombin inhibitors (Dabigatran), and factor Xa inhibitors (Apixaban, rixaroxaban).

NB: Comparison is difficult because they have not been trialled against each other, only against warfarin.

c) Do not use NOACs in valvular AF, or with severe renal impairement. NOACs have predictable dose response, do not need monitoring.
d) Warfarin can be reversed with fresh frozen plasma and Vitamin K. Dabigatran can be reversed with Idarucizumab (expensive and not widely available).

NB: NOACs appear to have a lower IC bleeding risk than warfarin.

67
Q

a) What are some risk factors for bleeding to consider when starting anticoagulation?
b) What is the HAS-BLED Score?

A

a) >65, heart failure, renal insufficiency, prior bleeding, and excessive alcohol or NSAID use.
b) HTN=1, Abnormal Liver/Renal function=1/2, Stroke=1, bleeding tendency=1, Labile INR=1, Age>65, Drugs (concomitant aspirin or NSAIDs) or alcohol

68
Q

a) What general comorbidities is AF associated with?
b) What is the importance of sinus rhythm vs rate control?
c) When is a rhythm control strategy commonly used?
d) What is a reasonable management strategy after first episode of AF?

A

a) Obesity, HTN, excessive alcohol use and sleep apnoea. Aggressive rx of these factors may substantially reduce AF episodes.
b) In RCTs, taking antiarrhythmic medications to maintain SR did not improve survival or symptoms compared to a rate control strategy, and the drug therapy group had more hospitalizations.
c) Symptomatic paroxysmal AF, recurrent episodes of symptomatic persistent AF, AF with difficult rate control, & AF that has resulted in depressed ventricular function.
d) AV nodal blocking agents, cardioversion, and anticoagulation. If recurrences are infrequent, periodic cardioversion is reasonable.

69
Q

a) What is the goal for primary pharmacologic therapy in AF?
b) What are the L-T options for rhythm control?

A

a) Maintain sinus rhythm or reduce episodes of AF.

b) Beta blocker + Class I Sodium channel blockers e.g Flecainide 50mg PO BD for patients with normal left ventricular function & no CAD. (Negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effects warrant avoidance in patients with CAD or HF)

Class III agents e.g. Sotalol 40mg BD (increasing to 160mg BD) is an option. NB: ~3% risk of QT prolongation and torsades des pointes

Note: Amiodarone may be an option under specialist care, however up to 40% of patients experience amiodarone-related toxicities during L-T therapy.

70
Q

a) What are the surgical options for AF and when are they indicated?

A

a) Catheter Ablation via the femoral vein involves cardiac catheterisation, trans (atrial) septal puncture, and radiofrequency ablation or cryoablation to electrically isolate the left atrial regions around the PV, thus abolishing the ability of triggering foci in these regions.

It is most commonly considered for patients with previously untreated recurrent paroxysmal AF.

NB: Ablation is less effective in patients with persistent AF, and particularly long-standing persistent AF, particularly when associated with more extensive cardiac disease and co-morbidities.

71
Q

a) What are the two most common complications that occur in survivors of DVT and PE?
b) What are the symptoms associated with the above diagnosis?

A

a) Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary HTN or Post thrombotic syndrome (aka chronic venous insufficiency)
b) Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary HTN causes breathless esp with exertion. Postthrombotic syndrome ankle/calf swelling and leg aching caused by damage to the venous valves of the leg. In severe cases it can cause skin ulceration.

72
Q

a) What is Virchow’s triad?
b) What is the sequence of events after endothelial injury that involves inflammation and platelet activation?
c) In what environment do venous thrombi form and flourish?

A

a) Venous stasis, hypercoagulability and endothelial injury.
b) Endothelial injury leads to recruitment of activated platelets, which release microparticles>>>microparticles contain proinflammatory mediators that bind neutrophils, stimulating them to release their nuclear material and form web-like neurtrophil extracellular traps>>>these prothrombotic traps contain histones that stimulate platelet aggregation and promote platelet-dependent thrombin generation.
c) Environment of stasis, low oxygen tension, and upregulation of proinflammatory genes.

73
Q

a) What are the two most common genetic conditions causing prothrombotic states, and what is the most common acquired cause of thrombophilia?

A