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Psychiatry > Disorders > Flashcards

Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment of anorexia nervosa in CAMHS community?

A
  • family base treatment
  • dietitian
  • olanzapine
  • SSRI
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2
Q

Risk with anorexia nervosa?

A
  • refeeding syndrome
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3
Q

What risk assessment score is used in anorexia?

A

MARSIPAN risk assessment

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4
Q

What factor is used in anorexia scaling in adults and children?

A
  • Adults = BMI <13

- children = <70% BMI for age

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5
Q

What is refeeding syndrome

A
  • fatal metabolic response to too rapid re-feeding after a period of starvation
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6
Q

Treatment of refeeding syndrome

A
  • low energy replacement with high phosphate content
  • correct electrolyte imbalances
  • daily monitoring of bloods
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7
Q

What is ARFID?

A
  • Avoidant - restrictive food intake disorder
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8
Q

Explain Avoidant-restrictive food intake disorder (ARFID)

A
  • Sensory based
  • fear of consequences e.g. vomiting
  • little interest in eating
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9
Q

Management of ARFID

A
  • CBT
  • SSRI
  • Dietetic input
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10
Q

ARFID may be seen in what conditions?

A
  • autism - sensory based avoidance of food
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11
Q

What is bulimia nervosa?

A
  • episodes of binging followed by purging (vomiting or laxative)
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12
Q

Features of bulimia nervosa?

A
  • dental erosions
  • parotid gland swelling
  • russell’s sign
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13
Q

Treatment of bulimia nervosa?

A
  • CBT
  • Fluoxetine (60mg)
  • family therapy
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14
Q

Treatment of binge eating disorder?

A
  • self-help guide

- group CBT

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15
Q

Consequences of eating disorders?

A
  • bone health
  • fertility
  • dental health
  • physical and mental health
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16
Q

Define personality

A

a cluster of relatively predictable patterns of thinking, feeling and behaving

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17
Q

Define personality disorder

A
  • out with the individuals character
  • pervasive
  • stable, long duration
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18
Q

Symptoms of an anankastic personality?

A
  • excessive doubt
  • perfectionism
  • conscientiousness
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19
Q

Trait vs disorders?

A
  • disorder = pervasive, causes distress, impairment of functioning
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20
Q

What rating scales can be used for personality disorders

A
  • zanarini rating scale
  • personality assessment schedule
  • personality disorders questionnaire
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21
Q

Cluster A DSM V categories

A
  • paranoid
  • schizoid
  • schizotypal
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22
Q

Cluster B DSM V categories?

A
  • antisocial
  • bordeerline
  • historonic
  • narcissistic
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23
Q

Cluster C DSM V categories?

A
  • avoidant
  • dependent
  • obsessive - compulsive
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24
Q

What is present in the DSM V but not in the ICD 10

A
  • Schizotypal
  • narcissistic
  • avoidant
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25
Q

Cluster A PD are generally defined as?

A
  • odd and eccentric
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26
Q

Explain paranoid PD

A
  • Extreme sensitivity
  • suspicion
  • self-importance
  • tendency to bear grudges
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27
Q

Explain schizoid PD

A
  • Emotional coldness and detachment
  • limited capacity to express emotions
  • lack of close friendships
  • insensitivity to social norms
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28
Q

Schizotypal PD

A
  • pattern of extreme difficulty interacting socially
  • inappropriate behaviour and strange speech
  • odd beliefs or magical thinking
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29
Q

Antisocial PD

A
  • Callous unconcern for the feelings of others
  • tendency to blame others
  • failure to obey laws
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30
Q

Borderline PD - aka. emotionally unstable

A
  • Pattern of abrupt mood swings
  • impulsive
  • inability to control temper
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31
Q

Histrionic PD

A
  • Attention seeking
  • sexually inappropriate
  • shallow
  • relationships considered more intimate than they are
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32
Q

Narcissistic PD

A
  • Pattern of grandiosity
  • lack of empathy
  • sense of entitlement
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33
Q

Avoidant pd

A
  • Strong feelings of inadequacy and fear of social situations
  • self-impose isolation
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34
Q

Dependant PD

A
  • Intense psychological need to be cared for by other

- lack initiative and need others to make decisions

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35
Q

Anakastic PD?

A
  • Preoccupied by rules
  • perfectionist
  • activities are pleasurable and desirable
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36
Q

Anxious PD

A
  • tension/apprehension
  • preoccupation
  • restrictions in lifestyle for security
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37
Q

Treatment of disorders with impulse control?

A
  • SSRI
  • olanzapine
  • sodium valporate
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38
Q

Treatment of affective dysregulation?

A
  • SSRI

- Mirtazepine

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39
Q

Explain the pillars of dialectical behavioural therapy?

A
  • mindfulness
  • regulate emoptions
  • distress tolerance
  • interpersonal effectiveness
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40
Q

Treatment of emotionally unstable PD

A
  • Dialectical behavioural therapy

- STEPPS - Systems training

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41
Q

Anorexia nervosa classified in children as?

A
  • weight less than 85% expected for age and height
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42
Q

Anorexia nervosa classified as what in adults?

A
  • BMI <17.5
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43
Q

2 Types of anorexia?

A
  • restricting

- binge-purge

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44
Q

Signs of an eating disorder

A
  • Difficulties eating in front of others
  • Preoccupation with food
  • Low confidence
  • Negative body image
  • Tiredness and difficulty concentrating
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45
Q

Physical examination in anorexia nervosa?

A
  • BMI
  • Physical examination
  • Bloods
  • ECG / BP
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46
Q

Why is a physical examination conducted in a patient with a suspected eating disorder?

A
  • to assess risk
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47
Q

What guideline is used in the diagnoses of anorexia?

A
  • MARSIPAN
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48
Q

What does the SCOFF questionnaire include

A
  • Sick
  • Control
  • One stone loss
  • Fat feeling
  • Food dominates life
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49
Q

Define psychosis

A
  • mental disorder

- interferes with thoughts, affective response of ability to recognise reality

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50
Q

Characteristics of psychosis (3 examples)

A
  • hallucinations
  • delusions
  • disorder of form of thought
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51
Q

Define delusion

A
  • Fixed, strange or irrational belief
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52
Q

Define hallucination

A 
-	A sensory perception without a stimulus
o	Auditory
o	Visual
o	Touch
o	Smell
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53
Q

Types of delusions?

A
  • Delusions of grandeur (exaggerated ideas of importance)
  • Paranoia (belied in a plot against them)
  • Somatic (belied they have a terrible incurable illness)
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54
Q

What causes hallucinations?

A
  • aberrant brain processing
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55
Q

Difference between hallucinations and illusions?

A
  • illusions can be “switched off”

- hallucinations are not under conscious controls

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56
Q

What is ideas of reference?

A
  • Innocuous or coincidental events will be ascribed significant meaning by the person
  • Thinking there is a message in the newspaper about them, seeing meaning in other’s gestures
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57
Q

A fixed, falsely held belief is known as?

A
  • a delusion
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58
Q

List some thought disorders?

A
  • clanging
  • loosening of associations
  • neologism
  • word salad
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59
Q

Examples of thought intereference

A
  • Thought insertion
  • Thought withdrawal
  • Thought broadcasting
  • Thought blocking
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60
Q

What is loss of insight

A
  • Reality testing is lost

- To you everything seems as real as they always did

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61
Q

Passivity of volition

A
  • made actions
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62
Q

Passivity of affect?

A
  • made feeling
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63
Q

Passivity of impulse?

A
  • made urges
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64
Q

Causes of primary psychosis?

A
  • schizophrenia
  • schizophreniform
  • schizoaffective disorder
  • delusional disorder
  • substance induced
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65
Q

Causes of secondary psychosis?

A
  • thyroid
  • adrenal
  • Wilson’s
  • huntington’s
  • stroke
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66
Q

What is delirium?

A
  • acute transient disturbance from the persons’ normal cognitive function
  • due to insult to the brain
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67
Q

Symptoms of delirium

A
  • acute symptoms, previously normal
  • clouding of consciousness (worse at night)
  • impaired concentration and memory
  • visual hallucinations
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68
Q

Drug induced psychosis?

A

not the same as intoxication

tends to improve with removal of substance

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69
Q

Symptoms of depressive psychosis

A
  • depressive symptoms
  • delusions of worthlessness
  • hallucinations
  • threatening voices (usually 2nd person)
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70
Q

What is Cottard’s syndrome

A
  • believe they have already died
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71
Q

Symptoms of mania with psychosis?

A
  • mood congruent
  • hallucinations tend to be 2nd person
  • flight of ideas
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72
Q

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  • psychotic symptoms
  • acute onset
  • delusions
  • hallucinations
  • thought disorder
  • disorganised speech and behaviour
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73
Q

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  • insidious, slow onset
  • weight change
  • sleep problems
  • social withdrawl
  • reduced speech
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74
Q

For a diagnosis of schizophrenia at least 2 of 5 symptoms need to be present. What are these 5?

A
  • delusions
  • hallucinations
  • disorganised speech
  • disorganised behaviour
  • negative symptoms
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75
Q

What is schizotypal?

A
  • magical thinking

- eccentric behaviour

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76
Q

schizoaffective disorder differs from schizophrenia how?

A
  • more effect on mood
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77
Q

Schizophrenia treatment?

A
  • anti-psychotic

- psychological

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78
Q

name some first generation of antipsychotics?

A
  • chlorpromazine
  • halopreidol
  • zuclopenthixol
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79
Q

what is the target of 1sr generation anti-psychotics

A
  • D2 receptor blockers
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80
Q

What is the mode of action of anti-psychotics?

A
  • dopamine therapy (block D2 receptor) within the mesolimbic pathway
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81
Q

name some 2nd generation anti-psychotics and what they target?

A
  • clozapine
  • olanzapine
  • risperidone
  • d2 and 5ht receptor blocker
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82
Q

dopaminergic side effects?

A
  • extrapyramidal (acute dystonic reaction, parkinsons, tardive dyskinesia)
  • neuroleptic malignant syndrome
  • hyperprolactinema
  • akathisia
83
Q

treatment of the extra-pyramidal side effects associated with anti-psychotics?

A
  • anticholinergics

- change anti-psychiotic

84
Q

Explain acute dystonic reactions

A
  • extrapyramidal side effect of dopaminergics

- increased muscle tone, energetic

85
Q

What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A
  • fatal if untreated (rhabdomylsis)
  • side effect of anti-psychiotics
  • slowly increased dystonia, increased tone, fluctuation pulse
  • CK >1,000
86
Q

Treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A
  • stop anti-psychotic
  • rapid cooling
  • renal support
  • skeletal muscle relaxants (dantrolene)
87
Q

Another name for akathisia?

A
  • restless legs
88
Q

treatment of akathisia?

A
  • b blockers (propanolol)

- benzodiazepine (clonazepam)

89
Q

What is clozapine used for?

A
  • 2nd gen anti-psychiotic
  • good for non-respodant anti-psychiotic treatment
  • good for negative psychotic symptoms
90
Q

Side effects of clozapine

A
  • agranulocytosis (neutropenic sepsis)
  • myocarditis
  • weight gain
91
Q

Monitoring of clozapine?

A
  • weekly WCC for first 6months
  • fortnightly for 6-12months
  • then monthly
  • due to risk of agranulocytosis
92
Q

First line anti-psychotics?

A
  • 2nd generation
  • then 1st or 2nd
  • consider depot
  • consider clozapine
93
Q

what are the 4 dopamine pathways in schizophrenia?

A
  • increased mesolimbic (hallucinations)
  • decreased mesocortical (social withdrawal)
  • nigrostriatal
  • tuberoinfundibular (hyperprolactinaemia)
94
Q

Anti-psychotics aim to target which dopamine pathway in schizophrenia?

A
  • mesolimbic pathway increased

- aim to reduce by binding of dopamine blockers to d2 receptors

95
Q

What is puerperium psychosis?

A
  • psychiatry emergency (due to safe guarding of child)
  • 1 in 1,000 births
  • 2-4wks post delivery
96
Q

What is post-natal depression?

A
  • 1 in 10 women

- 1 - 4 weeks post delivery

97
Q

Personality disorders are diagnosed after what age?

A
  • after the age of 18

- first present to services around 14yrs

98
Q

Conduct disorder is diagnosed over what age?

A
  • over the age of 12
99
Q

Oppositional defiant disorder is diagnosed at what age?

A
  • under 12
100
Q

What is pseudo-dementia?

A
  • remains good insight
  • fluctuating symptoms
  • not progressive
  • good drug and ect response
101
Q

Late onset depression is more likely to present with __expressive/somatic__ symptoms

A
  • late onset = somatic

- early onset = expressive

102
Q

Treatment of anxiety disorder in young?

A
  • CBT
  • SSRI
  • Benzodiazepines
103
Q

Treatment of depression in young?

A
  • CBT
  • Group IP
  • First line = fluoxetine
  • sertraline
104
Q

Management of self-harm in adolescents?

A
  • suicidal vs non-suicidal
  • education
  • specialist referral
105
Q

Licensed drug treatment for depression in those aged under 18?

A
  • fluoxetine
106
Q

Heretability of schizophrenia

A
  • 78% heritability

- if 2 parents have, 45% risk to child

107
Q

Pathology of schizophrenia on the brain?

A
  • enlarged ventricles
  • reduced frontal lobe volume
  • reduced grey matter
108
Q

Risk factors for developing schizophrenia?

A
  • 2nd trimester viral illness
  • pre-eclampsia
  • fetal hypoxia
  • childhood CNS infection
109
Q

3 modified genes associated with schizophrenia?

A
  • neuregulin
  • dysbindin
  • DISC-1
110
Q

What hypothesis is suggested for the development of schizophrenia?

A
  • dopamine hypothesis

- excess dopamine

111
Q

First rank symptoms with schizophrenia?

A
  • auditory hallucinations
  • disorders of thoughts
  • delusional perception
  • passivity phenomena
112
Q

Definition of a learning disability

A
  • reduced intellectual ability and difficulty with everyday activities
113
Q

What IQ defines intellectual disability?

A
  • iq <70
114
Q

What is the average IQ in the general population?

A
  • IQ = 100
115
Q

Name learning disability assessments?

A
  • wechsler adult intelligence scale

- wechsler scale for children

116
Q

What is the Flynn effect?

A
  • increase in IQ over generations

- slowing down, especially in developed countries

117
Q

Diagnosing an adult with a learning disability?

A
  • must be acquired in childhood
  • although a new diagnosis can be made in adulthood, it will have been present since childhood
  • wechsler adult intelligence scale
118
Q

Learning difficulty and disability are the same?

A

False

- they are different

119
Q

What is a borderline ID?

A
  • IQ 70-84

- mental age 12-15

120
Q

Mild ID?

A
  • IQ range 50-69

- mental age 9-12

121
Q

Moderate ID?

A
  • IQ 35-49

- Mental age 6-9

122
Q

Severe ID?

A
  • IQ range 20-34

- mental age 3-6yrs

123
Q

Profound ID?

A
  • IQ <20

- Mental age < 3yrs

124
Q

Co-morbidities in ID?

A
  • Epilepsy
  • mental illness
  • dementia
  • hypothyroidism
  • diabetes
  • obesity
125
Q

What is type 1 trauma?

A
  • sudden incident
  • sudden
  • unexpected
126
Q

What is type 2 trauma and its risks?

A
  • repetitive trauma
  • ongoing abuse
  • 3 x more likely to get PTSD compared to type 1
127
Q

What percentage of people with bipolar have a childhood history of abuse or neglect?

A
  • 50%
128
Q

Where does the emotions associated with anxiety arise?

A
  • Periaqueductal grey (PAG)

- Ventral tegmental area

129
Q

Explain tonic immobility?

A
  • freeze response in response to inescapable danger

- involuntary

130
Q

Distant dread is processed where in the brain and where does it move?

A
  • distant = frontal cortex

- close threat = midbrain and PAG

131
Q

What neuroanatomy changes are seen in PTSD?

A
  • Hippocampal atrophy
  • hyperactivity of the amygdala
  • deactivation of broca’s area
  • adult = right side of brain
  • children = left side of brain
132
Q

What is neuroception?

A
  • safe, dangerous or life-threatening processing
  • primitive regions of the brain
  • without conscious awareness
133
Q

Periacedutal grey is associated with what in PTSD?

A
  • Emotional response

- close threat

134
Q

Symptom criteria for PTSD?

A
  • Minimum of 4 weeks
  • intrusive phenomena (>1)
  • avoidance (>1)
  • negative alterations (>1)
  • increased arousal and reactivity (>2)
135
Q

Explain intrusive phenomena?

A
  • recurrent distressing recollections
  • nightmares
  • flashbacks
  • distress accompanying reminders
  • physiological reactions
136
Q

Explain avoidance in PTSD?

A
  • avoidance of thoughts or feelings of the event

- avoidance of external reminders

137
Q

Negative alterations in PTSD?

A
  • amnesia
  • loss of interest
  • Negative affect
  • negative thoughts
  • exaggerated blame
  • feeling isolated
  • difficulty experiencing positive emotion
138
Q

1st line treatment in PTSD?

A
  • CBT

- EMDR

139
Q

Increased arousal and reactivity in PTSD?

A
  • Sleep disturbances
  • irritability
  • concentration difficulties
  • hypervigilance
  • exaggerated startle response
  • risky and destructive behaviour
140
Q

What drug can be given for sleep associated symptoms in PTSD?

A
  • Prazosin
141
Q

What region of the brain acts as the emotional filter?

A
  • amygdala
142
Q

During acute stress what is released?

A
  • cortisol

- catecholamines

143
Q

Explain generalised anxiety disorder

A
  • free floating
  • generalised and persistent
  • physical symptoms
144
Q

Treatment of GAD

A
  • CBT
  • SSRI
  • SNRI
  • benzodiazepines (short term)
145
Q

Explain panic disorders?

A
  • recurrent
  • severe
  • anxiety attacks
146
Q

Symptoms of an panic disorder?

A
  • palpitations
  • chest pain
  • fear of dying
147
Q

What do 50% of panic disorder suffered also suffer from?

A
  • agoraphobia
148
Q

What are the 3 terms of phobia?

A
  • agoraphobia (big busy spaces)
  • specific
  • social
149
Q

What is obsessive compulsive disorder?

A
  • recurrent obsessional thoughts or acts
  • ego-dystic (causes distress to the person) - they don’t enjoy doing
  • present most days for at least 2 weeks
150
Q

How do benzodiazepines work in anxiety?

A
  • gaba A receptor
  • modulate gaba affect (allosteric effect)
  • membrane hyperpolarisation (Cl- enters)
  • less likely for an action potential
151
Q

Chronic use of benzodiazepines may cause?

A
  • sedation and psychomotor impairment
  • withdrawal problems
  • dependency and abuse
152
Q

What is a functional disorder?

A
  • cannot easily associate the symptoms with a classically identifiable organic disease
  • soft ware problem rather than hardware
153
Q

Define dissociation

A
  • detachment from reality
154
Q

Define depersonalisation

A
  • a feeling your body doesn’t quite belong
155
Q

Define derealisation

A

A feeling that you are disconnected from the world around you

156
Q

What is hazardous drinking?

A
  • pattern of alcohol consumption that increases someones risk of harm
  • anyone drinking more than 14 units per week
157
Q

What screening questionnaire can be done for alcohol consumption?

A
  • Alcohol screening questionnaire (AUDIT)
158
Q

What screening tool for alcohol dependence?

A
  • CAGE
  • tried to Cut down
  • people Annoyed at your drinking
  • feel Guilty
  • need an Eye opener (drinking first thing)
159
Q

What score on the alcohol screening questionnaire leads to brief intervention?

A
  • score = 6-20

- brief intervention

160
Q

Brief intervention for alcohol consumption, FRAMES mnemonic

A 
Feedback
Responsibility
Advice
Menu
Empathy
Self-efficacy
161
Q

3 or more criteria for alcohol dependance

A

o Strong desire or sense of compulsion to take drug
o Difficulty in controlling use of substance
o Physiological withdrawal state
o Evidence of tolerance
o Progressive neglect of other pleasures
o Persistence with use despite clear evidence of harmful consequences

162
Q

Pathology of alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • alcohol is a CNS depressant
  • up regulation of glutamate for excitation
  • sudden withdrawal leads to unapossed excitation
  • toxic to nerve cells
163
Q

Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

A
  • restlessness
  • tremor
  • sweating
  • tachycardia
  • quick onset
  • peak 24-48hrs
  • resolved in 5-7days
164
Q

Treatment of alcohol withdrawal

A
  • General support
  • Benzodiazepines (diazepam)
  • Vitamin supplementation (Pabrinex)
  • Thiamine as prophylaxis for Wernicke’s encephalopathy
164
Q

Relapse prevention in alcohol dependence - psychosocial

A

Psychosocial interventions

  • CBT
  • Motivational enhancement
  • 12 steps (AA)
165
Q

Pharmacological management of relapse prevention in alcohol dependence?

A
  • 1st line = Naltrexone (opioid antagonist)
  • disulfiram (antabuse)
  • acamprosate
166
Q

What is Korsakoff’s and wernickes?

A
  • result of excessive alcohol and dependance
  • thiamine (vitamin b1) deficiency
  • memory problems and damage to brain
  • prophylaxis - thiamine
  • wernickes = acute
  • korsakoffs= chronic
167
Q

What is the CAGE screening tool?

A
  • cut down
  • annoyed
  • guilty
  • eye opener
168
Q

Initial stages of an addictive substance can be described as?

A
  • positive reinforcement

- substance taken for the pleasure

169
Q

Later, chronic stages of a substance addiction can be described as?

A
  • negative reinforcement

- substance taken to remove the negative symptoms

170
Q

What pathway in the brain is involved in the “wanting”

A
  • mesolimbic

- dopamine neurotransmitter

171
Q

Explain tolerance to reward?

A
  • repeated dopamine release
  • down regulation of dopamine receptors
  • more substance required for same effect
172
Q

What is the role of the pre-frontal cortex in addicition

A
  • responsible for the intention of guided behaviours
  • can suppress mesolimbic pathway
  • addicts have reduced pre frontal cortex usage
173
Q

What is the role of the hippocampus and amygdala in addiction?

A
  • involved in learned drug associations

- cue craving

174
Q

What is the role of the orbit-frontal cortex?

A
  • motivation to act

- addicts have increased activation of ofc

175
Q

Explain the effect of stress on addiction?

A
  • acute stress triggers dopamine in neural pathways
  • chronic stress = downregulation of dopamine receptors
  • encouragement to be exposed to highly rewarding behaviours
176
Q

What is a safety bundle?

A
  • needed for treatment of opioid misuse

- includes: drug diaries, drug screens, opioid withdrawal scale, recovery care plan, risk assessment

177
Q

What is a treatment for opioid misuse?

A
  • ORT

- opioid replacement therapy

178
Q

What is ORT and what are the phases?

A
  • opioid replacement therapy
  • induction
  • optimisation
  • maintenance
  • reduction
179
Q

What is methadone?

A
  • Mu receptor agonist
  • long half life
  • peak plasma conc 4hrs
180
Q

Where is methadone metabolised

A
  • Hepatic (liver)
181
Q

A substitute of methadone?

A
  • buprenorphine
182
Q

Explain buprenorphine?

A
  • ORT
  • Mu receptor partial agonist
  • low intrinsic activity
  • high affinity
  • sublingual tablets
183
Q

Side effects of methadone

A
  • long QT
  • sedation
  • drug interaction
184
Q

Life saving opioid antagonist?

A
  • naloxone
185
Q

What is delirium?

A
  • impaired consciousness with intrusive abnormalities of perception and affect
186
Q

How is the diagnosis of delirium made?

A
  • impaired consciousness
  • disturbance of cognition
  • psychomotor distrubances
  • disruption of sleep wake cycle
  • emotional disturbance
187
Q

General features of delirium (3)

A
  • rapid onset
  • transient and fluctuating
  • lasts days to months
188
Q

Causes of delirium?

A

PINCH ME

  • Pain
  • Infection
  • Nutrition
  • Constipation
  • hydration
  • medications
  • electrolytes
189
Q

Risk factors for delirium?

A
  • elderly
  • cognitive deficit
  • long stay in hospital
  • emergency surgery
  • stress
190
Q

What cognitive assessment is conducted for delirium?

A
  • 4AT
  • alertness
  • AMT 4 ( Age, place, year, DOB)
  • Attention
  • acute and fluctuating
191
Q

Management of delirium?

A
  • identify underlying cause and treat
  • manage environment
  • ? haloperidol
  • if alcohol withdrawal? benzodiazepines
192
Q

Subtypes of delirium?

A
  • hyperactive
  • hypoactive
  • mixed
193
Q

Symptoms of hyperactive delirium?

A
  • confusion, agitation, restlessness
  • fine during day, overactive at night
  • disruptive
  • delusions
194
Q

Symptoms of hypoactive delirium?

A
  • unmotivated
  • suddenly quiet, withdrawn sleepy
  • often misdiagnosed as depression
195
Q

Symptoms of mixed delirium?

A
  • sleep all day awake all night
196
Q

What is the cause of limbic encephalitis?

A
  • potassium channel antibody
197
Q

Symptoms of limbic encephalitis?

A
  • middle aged
  • subacute memory loss
  • panic attacks
  • partial seizures
198
Q

What is delirium tremens?

A
  • delirium after acute withdrawal of alcohol
  • confusion, hallucinations, sweating, hypertension

Tx = chlordiazeproxide (benzodiazepine), fluids, parbrinex

199
Q

Triad of wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
  • ophthalmoplegia
  • ataxia
  • confusion
200
Q

Lesions in Korsakoff syndrome are located where?

A
  • mammillary bodies
201
Q

5Ps of the formulation model?

A
  • predisposing
  • precipitating
  • presenting problem
  • protective factors
  • perpetuating factors
202
Q

3 types of frontotemporal dementia?

A
  • behaviour
  • primary progressive aphasia
  • semantic

Psychiatry (6 decks)

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