Disorder Of Ca Metabolism Flash Cards

1
Q

What are the main regulators of calcium metabolism?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

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2
Q

What is the normal serum calcium range?

A

8.5-10.5 mg/dL.

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3
Q

What are the three forms of calcium in the blood?

A

Ionized calcium (active form), protein-bound calcium, and complexed calcium.

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4
Q

What is the primary function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

A

Increases serum calcium by stimulating bone resorption, increasing renal reabsorption, and enhancing intestinal absorption via vitamin D activation.

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5
Q

How does vitamin D regulate calcium?

A

Increases intestinal calcium and phosphate absorption and enhances bone mineralization.

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6
Q

What is the role of calcitonin?

A

Lowers serum calcium by inhibiting bone resorption.

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia?

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism.

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8
Q

What are the common causes of hypercalcemia?

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, granulomatous diseases, vitamin D toxicity, and thiazide diuretics.

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9
Q

What is the classic clinical presentation of hypercalcemia?

A

Stones (kidney stones), bones (bone pain), groans (abdominal pain), thrones (polyuria), and psychiatric overtones (confusion, depression).

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Parathyroid adenoma.

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11
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Chronic kidney disease leading to phosphate retention and decreased vitamin D activation.

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12
Q

What is tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Autonomous parathyroid hyperplasia following prolonged secondary hyperparathyroidism, usually in end-stage renal disease.

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13
Q

What is the treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Parathyroidectomy in symptomatic patients or those with complications (osteoporosis, kidney stones).

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14
Q

What is the mechanism of hypercalcemia in malignancy?

A

Ectopic PTH-related peptide (PTHrP) production or osteolytic bone metastases.

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15
Q

What is the most common malignancy-associated with hypercalcemia?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (lung, head and neck).

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16
Q

What is milk-alkali syndrome?

A

Hypercalcemia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure due to excessive calcium and alkali ingestion.

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17
Q

What are the ECG changes seen in hypercalcemia?

A

Shortened QT interval.

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18
Q

What is the first-line treatment for severe hypercalcemia?

A

IV fluids and bisphosphonates.

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19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates?

A

Inhibits osteoclast-mediated bone resorption.

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20
Q

What is the most common cause of hypocalcemia?

A

Hypoparathyroidism, vitamin D deficiency, chronic kidney disease.

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21
Q

What are the clinical features of hypocalcemia?

A

Tetany, perioral numbness, muscle cramps, seizures, and prolonged QT interval.

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22
Q

What is Chvostek’s sign?

A

Facial twitching when tapping the facial nerve, seen in hypocalcemia.

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23
Q

What is Trousseau’s sign?

A

Carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure, seen in hypocalcemia.

24
Q

What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?

A

Post-surgical removal or damage to the parathyroid glands (thyroidectomy, parathyroidectomy).

25
What is pseudohypoparathyroidism?
End-organ resistance to PTH despite normal or elevated PTH levels.
26
What is the biochemical profile of pseudohypoparathyroidism?
Low calcium, high phosphate, and high PTH.
27
What is Albright’s hereditary osteodystrophy?
A syndrome associated with pseudohypoparathyroidism, characterized by short stature, obesity, round face, and brachydactyly.
28
What is the treatment for hypocalcemia?
IV calcium gluconate for severe cases; oral calcium and vitamin D for chronic cases.
29
What is the role of magnesium in calcium metabolism?
Hypomagnesemia can cause hypocalcemia by impairing PTH secretion and action.
30
What is the most common cause of vitamin D deficiency?
Inadequate sun exposure, malabsorption, or chronic kidney disease.
31
What are the consequences of vitamin D deficiency?
Rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults.
32
What is the biochemical profile of vitamin D deficiency?
Low calcium, low phosphate, high PTH, and low 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels.
33
What is the recommended daily intake of vitamin D?
600-800 IU for adults; higher in elderly and deficient individuals.
34
What are the clinical features of rickets?
Bowing of the legs, rachitic rosary (costochondral swelling), frontal bossing, and delayed growth.
35
What are the features of osteomalacia?
Bone pain, muscle weakness, and pseudofractures on X-ray.
36
What is the difference between osteoporosis and osteomalacia?
Osteoporosis is decreased bone mass with normal mineralization; osteomalacia is defective mineralization of bone.
37
What is the treatment for vitamin D deficiency?
Vitamin D supplementation (cholecalciferol or ergocalciferol).
38
What is the relationship between chronic kidney disease (CKD) and secondary hyperparathyroidism?
CKD leads to phosphate retention and reduced vitamin D activation, causing hypocalcemia and increased PTH secretion.
39
What is renal osteodystrophy?
Bone disease caused by chronic kidney disease-associated secondary hyperparathyroidism.
40
What is calciphylaxis?
A rare complication of CKD with calcification of blood vessels leading to painful skin necrosis.
41
What is the function of fibroblast growth factor-23 (FGF-23)?
Regulates phosphate metabolism by reducing phosphate reabsorption and decreasing vitamin D activation.
42
What is the function of RANKL in bone metabolism?
Promotes osteoclast differentiation and bone resorption.
43
What is osteopetrosis?
A rare genetic disorder causing defective osteoclast function leading to increased bone density and fractures.
44
What is the major cause of osteoporosis?
Postmenopausal estrogen deficiency or age-related bone loss.
45
What is the first-line treatment for osteoporosis?
Bisphosphonates (alendronate, risedronate).
46
What is the T-score cutoff for osteoporosis?
≤ -2.5 on dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan.
47
What is Paget’s disease of bone?
A disorder of excessive bone turnover leading to structurally weak, deformed bones.
48
What are the clinical features of Paget’s disease?
Bone pain, skull enlargement, hearing loss, and increased alkaline phosphatase.
49
What is the first-line treatment for Paget’s disease?
Bisphosphonates (zoledronic acid, alendronate).
50
What is tumor-induced osteomalacia?
A paraneoplastic syndrome where tumors produce FGF-23, causing phosphate wasting and bone softening.
51
What is the effect of glucocorticoids on calcium metabolism?
Increases bone resorption, reduces calcium absorption, and induces osteoporosis.
52
What is the role of denosumab in osteoporosis treatment?
A monoclonal antibody that inhibits RANKL to reduce bone resorption.
53
What is the effect of chronic acidosis on bone?
Increases bone resorption and calcium release to buffer acidemia.
54
What dietary measures help maintain bone health?
Adequate calcium, vitamin D, protein intake, and weight-bearing exercises.
55
What is the main complication of untreated severe hypercalcemia?
Cardiac arrhythmias and acute kidney injury.