Diseases of the Globe Flashcards

1
Q

The overall visual field of the horse is:

A

350 degrees

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2
Q

The horse can see ______ degrees with monocular vision, and _____ degrees with binocular vision

A

145 degrees
65 degrees

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3
Q

Before any sedation is induced, you should evaluate:

A

Cranial nerves

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4
Q

Which cranial nerve reflexes are commonly assessed in horses?

A

Menace response
Dazzle reflex
Palpebral reflex
PLRs

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5
Q

Which ocular muscle is very strong in horses, often requiring orbital nerve blocks for a proper ophthalmic exam?

A

Orbicularis oculi

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6
Q

Which ocular nerve blocks in horses block the motor and sensory function of the eye?

A

Auriculopalpebral (motor)
Supraorbital or frontal (sensory)

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7
Q

For ocular nerve blocks, what size needle is used and what volume/choice of anesthetic?

A

25 gauge needle
1-2 mL
Lidocaine, bupivacaine, or mepivacaine

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8
Q

What are the landmarks for an auriculopalpebral nerve block?

A

On the zygomatic arch, caudal to the bony process of the frontal bone

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9
Q

What are the landmarks for an supraorbital nerve block?

A

Palpation of the supraorbital foramen
*Thumb: below dorsal orbital rim
*Middle finger: supraorbital fossa
*Index finger: straight down midway between other two fingers

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10
Q

Supraorbital nerve block desensitizes:

A

Sensation to central upper eyelid
Blocks the ophthalmic branch of Trigeminal nerve

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11
Q

Auriculopalpebral nerve block stops motor output from:

A

Orbicularis oculi muscle, mostly upper eyelid
Blocks palpebral branch of auriculopalpebral nerve (Facial nerve)

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12
Q

Tear production in horses should be:

A

> 20mm/min

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13
Q

IOP in horses should be:

A

15-30mmHg

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14
Q

What would give indication for irrigation of nasolacrimal duct?

A

Epiphora, mucoid ocular discharge, nasal puncta diacharge

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15
Q

Describe the process of flushing the NLD retrograde:

A
  1. Start at distal nares opening
  2. 5 or 6 polyethylene urinary catheter
  3. 12 to 20 mL syringe with sterile eyewash +/- fluoroscein stain
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16
Q

Describe the process of flushing the NLD normograde:

A
  1. Start at proximal eyelid puncta (lower eyelid puncta usually larger)
  2. 8 to 20g IV Cannula
  3. Excessive force can damage NLD
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17
Q

What drug is commonly used to dilate the pupil of horses for a complete ophthalmic exam?

A

1% Tropicamide
(done ~20 minutes prior to exam)
*lasts 4-6 hours

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18
Q

The optic disc should appear:

A

Oval, salmon-pink, in the non-tapetal fundus

19
Q

The equine fundus is unique because:

A

Tapetum is fibrous (Stars of Winslow)

20
Q

Indirect fundoscopy produces:

A

Inverted and reversed image

21
Q

A sunken appearance to the globe has 3 likely etiologies, including:

A

Enophthalmos
Microphthalmos
Phthisis bulbi

22
Q

Enophthalmos is defined as:

A

Recession of the globe; usually secondary to loss of orbital contents

23
Q

Causes of enophthalmos (4)?

A
  1. Orbital fractures
  2. Resorption of orbital fat
  3. Dehydration in foals (entropion)
  4. Sympathetic denervation (Horner’s Syndrome)
24
Q

Microphthalmia is defined as:

A

Congenital anomaly resulting in a small globe

25
Phthisis bulbi is defined as:
Gradual shrinkage of the globe due to chronic inflammation and low IOP *Non-visual *Should be enucleated if painful
26
What causes phthisis bulbi?
Damage to the ciliary body causing decreased aqueous humor production
27
A "bulging" appearance to the globe has two etiologies, which are:
Bupthalmos Exophthalmos
28
Buphthalmos is defined as:
Enlarged globe associated with chronically increased IOP secondary to glaucoma
29
In addition to Bupthalmos, what other signs might be present indicative of glaucoma?
1. Diffuse corneal edema 2. Haab's striae
30
Prognosis for Bupthalmos?
Doesn't usually respond well to meds, prognosis for vision not good
31
Exophthalmos is defined as:
Anterior displacement of a normal sized globe, usually due to a space occupying lesion posterior to the globe
32
Causes of exophthalmos?
1. Retrobulbar mass 2. Orbital cellulitis/abscess 3. Trauma (reduced orbital space)
33
On digital retropulsion of the globe, pain indicates _______ and no pain indicates _______
1. Pain: inflammatory process 2. Nonpainful: neoplasia/cystic mass(es)
34
Which portion of the orbit are at greatest risk of orbital fractures?
Dorsal orbital rim & zygomatic arch
35
What would be the clinical appearance of a horse with an orbital fracture?
Facial asymmetry Blepharedema Periocular lacerations Conjunctival hyperemia Chemosis SQ emphysema
36
What are the causes of orbital fractures?
Rearing in a confined space Kick to the face Colliding with a stationary object
37
How does orbital fat prolapse occur?
Orbital fat herniates through weakened episcleral fascia or as a result from trauma
38
What is the clinical appearance of orbital cellulitis?
Exophthalmos Blepharedema or blepharitis Severe conjunctival swelling Elevated third eyelid Mucoid ocular discharge IOP: normal or elevated
39
How do we diagnose orbital cellulitis?
Palpation Sinus percussion Imaging Teeth evaluation
40
Treatment for orbital cellulitis?
Systemic antimicrobial agents Aggressive NSAIDs Topical lubricants Drainage of abscess (+/-) Removal of FB (+/-) Enucleation
41
What are the most common orbital neoplasias?
1. Neuroendocrine tumors 2. Extra-adrenal paranglioma 3. Nasal and orbital adenocarcinoma 4. Sarcoma, lymphoma, SCC
42
Diagnosis of orbital neoplasia?
1. Imaging 2. Biopsy 3. FNA
43
Treatment of orbital neoplasia?
1. Exenteration 2. Radiation/Chemo 3. Euthanasia