Diseases of infancy and childhood Flashcards

1
Q

what are the four time spans in the development of the infant

A

neonatal period–> first 4 weeks of life

infancy–> first year of life

age 1-4 years

age 5-14 years

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2
Q

what is the most common cause of mortality in the first year of life

A

birth defects

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3
Q

what are malformations

A

primary errors of morphogenesis

intrinsically abnormal development process

multiple genetic loci

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4
Q

what is a disruption

A

secondary destruction of an organ or body region that was previously normal in development

extrinsic disturbance

amniotic bands - classic example
can be caused by environmental agents

not heritable

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5
Q

what is a deformation

A

extrinsic disturbance of development

fundamental to this is localized or generalized compression of the growing fetus by abnormal biomechanical forces

commonly caused by uterine constraint

factors leading to this include:
first pregnancy
small uterus
malformed uterus
leiomyomas

oligohydramnios
multiple fetuses
abnormal fetal presentation

example is clubfeet

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6
Q

what is a sequence

A

cascade of anomalies triggered by one initiating aberration

Potter sequence:
oligohydramnios caused by leakage of amniotic fluid, uteroplacental insufficiency (caused by maternal HTN or toxemia) and renal agenesis in the fetus (b/c fetal urine is a major constituent of amniotic fluid)

oligohydramniosis causes compression of the newborn infant which causes:

  • flattened facies
  • positional abnormalities of the hands and feet
  • dislocated hips
  • poor growth of chest wall and lungs
  • nodules in the amnion (amnion nodosum)
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7
Q

what is a syndrome

A

constellation of congenital anomalies that are pathologically related and cannot be explained on the basis of a single, localized, initiating defect

most often caused by a single etiologic agent, such as a viral infection or chromosomal abnormality

which then affects Several tissues

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8
Q

agenesis

A

complete lack of an organ

and its primmordium

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9
Q

aplasia

A

absence of an organ but one due to failure of development of the primordium

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10
Q

atresia

A

absence of an opening

usually of a hollow visceral organ such as the trachea and intestine

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11
Q

hypoplasia

A

incomplete development of decreased size of an organ with decreased number of cells

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12
Q

hyperplasia

A

enlargement of an organ due to increased numbers of cells

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13
Q

what are the three major categories of causes of congenital abnormalities

A

genetic
environmental
multifactorial
unknown

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14
Q

what is holoprosencephaly

A

the most common developmental defect of the forebrain and midface in humans

the hedgehog signaling pathway plays a critical role in the morphogenesis of these structures and there is loss of function of these components in patients with a family history of holoprosencephaly

single gene mutation

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15
Q

what is achondroplasia
what is the cause
mechanism

A

the mot common form of short limb dwarfism

caused by gain of function mutations in fibroblast growth factor (FGFR3)

FGFR3 protein is a negative regulator of bone growth and the activating FGFR3 mutations in achondroplasia are thought to exaggerate this physiologic inhibition, resulting in dwarfism

single - gene mutation

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16
Q

what viruses are associated with anomalies

A
rubella
cytomegalic inclusion disease
herpes simplex
varicella-zoster
influenza
mumps
HIV
enterovirus

***age at which the infection occurs in the mother is critically important

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17
Q

what is the at risk age for rubella infection?

what are the fetal defects associated with this infection

A

extends from shortly before conception to the sixteenth week of gestation

defects:
cataracts
heart defects (persistent ductus arteriosus, pulmonary artery hypoplasia or stenosis
ventricular septal defect, tetralogy of fallot)
deafness
metal retardation

***congenital rubella syndrome

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18
Q

intrauterine infection with cytomegalovirus ….

when is the fetus most at risk for this….

what are the outcomes

A

most common fetal viral infection

the highest at-risk period is the second trimester of pregnancy

b/c organogenesis is completlet by the end of the first trimester, congenital malformations occur less frequently than in rubella

involvement of the CNS is a major feature

mental retardation
microcephaly
deafness
hepatosplenomegaly

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19
Q

what are some drugs/chemicals that are teratogenic

A
thalidomide
folate antagonists
androgenic hormones
alcohol
anticonvulsants
warfarin 
13-cis retinoic acid (acne)
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20
Q

thalidomide causes what to occur

what is the mechanism

A

limb abnormalities

downregulation of the developmentally important wingless (WNT) signaling pathway through upregulation of endogenous WNT repressors

these drugs are used to treat neoplasms

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21
Q

what are the effects alcohol has on development

A

fetal alcohol spectrum disorders

growth retardation
microcephaly
atrial septal defect
short palpebral fissures
maxillary hypoplasia

mechanism:
affects the developmental signaling pathways –> retinoic acid and hedghog

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22
Q

what are the effects of radiation exposure during organogenesis

A

microcephaly
blindness
skull defects
spina bifida

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23
Q

what are the effects of maternal diabetes

A

results in:
increased body fat, muscle mass, and organomegaly (fetal macrosomia)
cardiac anomalies
neural tube defects and other CNS malformations

this is called diabetic embryopathy

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24
Q

multifactorial causes of abnoramlities

A

arise as a result of inheritance of multiple genetic polymorphisms that confer a susceptibility phenotype
the interaction of this phenotype and the environment is then required before the disorder manifests

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25
Q

what is the embryonic period

A

first 9 weeks of pregnancy

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26
Q

what is the fetal period

A

after 9 weeks and terminating at birth

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27
Q

in the early embryonic period (first 3 weeks after fertilization) what can occur

A

an injurious agent damages either enough cells to cause death and abortion or only a few cells –> allowing the embryo to recover without developing defects

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28
Q

what is significant about the time b/w the third and 9th weeks in the embryo’s development
when is the peak sensitivity during this period

A

the embryo is EXTREMELY susceptible to teratogenesis

peak sensitivity–> b/w the 4th and 5th weeks during which time the organs are being crafted out of the germ cell layers

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29
Q

what occurs during the fetal period

A

further growth and maturation of the organs

reduced susceptibbility to teratogenic agents

fetus is susceptible to growth retardation or injury to already formed organs

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30
Q

what does cyclopamine cause

what is the mechanism

A

derived from “California lily”

craniofacial abnormalities including holoprosencephaly and cyclopia (single fused eye)

inhibitor of hedgehog signaling in the embryo

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31
Q

what is valproic acid normally used for

what is the mechanism for its teratogenic actions

A

anti-epileptic

disrupts expression of HOX (transcription factors) (homeobox)

the genes encoding HOX proteins have a 190 nucleotide motif, dubbed the homeobox, which binds DNA in a sequence-specific fashion

HOX proteins in humans have been implicated in the patterning of limbs, vertebrae, and craniofacial structures

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32
Q

what is all-trans-retinoic acid essential for

what happens in its absence during embryogenesis (vitamin A deficiency)

what occurs with excessive retinoic acid

A

vitamin A (retinol) is essential for normal development and differentiation

its absence during embryogenesis resultis in multiple organ systems affected –> eyes, GU, CV, diaphragm, lungs… etc.

in excess–> CNS, cardiac and craniofacial defects (cleft lip, cleft palate)

Cleft palate is caused by retinoic-acid mediated deregulation of components of the TGF-beta signaling pathway (involved in palatogenesis)

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33
Q

critical period of development for CNS
heart
eyes
ears

A

CNS- 3-5 weeks
heart 3.5-6.5
eyes- 4.5-8.5
ears- 4.5- 9.5

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34
Q
critical period of development for 
arms
legs
teeth/palate
external genitalia
A

arms/legs –> 4.5-8 weeks
teeth/palate–> 6.75-9
external genitalia–> 7.5-9.75

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35
Q

above or below what percentile for a given gestational age are children considered SGA or LGA

A

below 10th percentile or above 90th percentile

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36
Q

what is premature

A

less than 37 weeks

second most common cause of neonatal mortality

rate of premature babies is actually increasing and is around 12 percent

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37
Q

what are the major risk factors for prematurity

A

preterm premature rupture of placental membranes (before 37 weeks)

intrauterine infection

  • seen with inflammation of placental membranes and fetal umbilical cord
  • common organisms include ureaplasma urealyticum, mycoplasma hominis, gardnerella vaginalis, treichomonas, gonorrhea, chlamydia
  • HIV and malaria
  • TLR-4 activation by bacterial lipopolysaccharide is one of the initiating events in inflammation-induced preterm labor (TLR-4 deregulates prostaglandin expression which in turn induces uterine smooth muscle contractions)

uterine, cervical and placental structural abnormalities

multiple gestations (twins)

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38
Q

what are the hazards of prematurity

A

hyaline membrane disease (neonatal resp distress syndrome)

necrotizing enterocolitis

sepsis

intraventricular hemorrhage

developmental delay

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39
Q

what are the fetal influences resulting in FGR (fetal growth restriction)

A

despite an adequate supply of nutrients

chromosomal disorders
-triploidy
-trisomy 18
-trisomy 21
trisomy 13
-deletions and translocations

congenital anomalies

congenital infections
TORCH group of infections 
-toxolasmosis
-rubella
-cytomegalovirus
-herpesvirus
-syphyilis 

typically these infants are SGA and symmetric - all organ systems are similarly affected

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40
Q

what are the placental influences that occur with FGR

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

causes:
umbilical-placental vascular anomalies (single umbilical artery)
placental abruption
placenta previa
placental thrombosis and infarction
placental infection
multiple gestations 

tend to be ASYMMETRIC growth retardation of the fetus and viewed as a downregulation of growth in the latter half of gestation b/c of limited availability of nutrients or oxygen

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41
Q

what is genetic mosicism confined to the placenta…

A

cause of FGR

usually mosaicism is caused by genetic mutations after the zygote has formed

occurs later and within the dividing trophoblast or extraembryonic progenitor cells of the inner cell mass

common to see trisomy 7

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42
Q

what are the maternal influences in FGR

A

decreased placental blood flow is the most common

  • preclampsia
  • chronic HTN
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43
Q

what are some causes of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome ?

A
excessive sedation of the mother 
fetal head injury during delivery
aspiration of blood or amniotic fluid
intrauterine hypoxia brought about by coiling of the umbilical cord about the neck
hyaline membrane disease
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44
Q

hyaline membrane disease

A

deposition of a layer of hyaline proteinaceious material in the peripheral airspaces of infants who succumb to this condition

presentation:
preterm and AGA
male gender
maternal diabetes 
c- section

usually a steady breathing rhythm occurs, but then within 30 minutes breathing becomes difficult and cyanosis may occur
fine rales
ground-glass picture on chest X-ray

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45
Q

etiology and pathogenesis of RDS (neonatal respiratory distress syndrome)

A

immaturity of the lungs

deficiency in pulmonary surfactant

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46
Q

SP-A and SP-D in surfactant

A

role in pulmonary host defense and innate immunity

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47
Q

SP-B and SP-C

A

reduction of surface tension –> less pressure is then required to keep the lungs patent and hence aerated

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48
Q

what produces surfactant

A

type II alveolar cells

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49
Q

what hormones modulate surfactant synthesis

A

growth factors–> cortisol, insulin, prolactin, thyroxine and TGF-Beta

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50
Q

intrauterine stress and FGR increase corticosteroid release… what is the signficance of this

A

this lowers the risk of developing RDS

surfactant synthesis is supressed by the compensatory high blood levels of insulin in infants of diabetic mothers, which counteracts the effects of steroids. this may be why infants with diabetic mothers have higher risk of developing RDS

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51
Q

why does C-section cause increased risk for RDS

A

b/c labor is known to increase surfactant synthesis

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52
Q

what is the path that leads to formation of hyaline membranes i nthe lungs in RDS

A

prematurity–> reduced surfactant synthesis, storage and release–> decreased alveolar surfactant

increased alveolar surface tesnion–> atelectasis –> uneven perfusion and hypoventilation

hypoxemia and CO2 retention–> acidosis –> pulmonary vasoconstriction–> pulmonary hypoperfusion –> endothelial and epithelial damage —>

plasma leak into alveoli–> fibrin and necrotic cells (hyaline membrane)

this leads to a increased diffusion gradient

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53
Q

oxygen toxicity causes what two common things

A

high concentrations of oxygen administered for prolonged periods cause 3 complications

retrolental fibroplasia: eyes
-due to changes in VEGF expression which is induced by hypoxia

bronchopulmonary dysplasia:
associated with disregulation of cytokines causing arrested pulmonary development
-infants with BPD have dysmorphic capillaries and reduced levels of VEGF

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54
Q

necrotizing enterocolitis

A

PAF- platelet activating factor : causes increasing mucosal permeability by promoting enterocyte apoptosis and compromising intercellular tight junctions

there is a breakdown of mucosal barrier functions and transluminal migration of bacteria occurs

clinical course:
bloody stools
abdominal distention
circulatory collapse
gas in the intestinal wall on radiographs
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55
Q

transcervical infections

A

most bacterial, some viral infection acquired this way

caught by either inhaling infected amniotic fluid in to the lungs shortly before birth or by passing through an infected birth canal

pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis are the most common sequelae in a fetus infected via this route

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56
Q

transplacental infection (hematologic)

A

most parasitic, and viral infections and some bacterial gain access to the fetal bloodstream transplacentally via the chorionic villi

parovirus B19- high affinity for erarly erythroid progenitor cells

TORCH group of infections causing:
fever,
encephalitis
choriorteinitis 
hepatosplenomegaly
pneumonitis
myocarditis
hemolytic anemia
vesicular or hemorrhagic skin lesions
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57
Q

early onset sepsis

A

within the first 7 days of life

result in clincial signs and symtpoms of pneumonia, sepsis, meningitis

Group B streptococcus is the most common organism isolated in early-onset sepsis and is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis

58
Q

late-onset sepsis

A

from 7 days to 3 months

listeria and candida

59
Q

what is fetal hydrops

A

accumulation of edema fluid in the fetus during intrauterine growth

commonly caused by rh fetal incompatibility

60
Q

immune hydrops

A

hemolytic disease caused by blood group incompatibilty b/w mother and fetus

caused when the mother is exposed to fetal red cells and the mother thus becomes sensitized to the foreign antigen

the D antigen is a major cause of Rh incompatibility

the initial exposure to Rh antigen evokes the formation of IgM antibodies, so Rh disease is uncommon with the first pregnancy
exposure during a second pregnancy generally leads to braisk IgG antibody response and the risk of immune hydrops

61
Q

what are the consequences of excessive destruction of red cells in the neonate ?

A

anemia:
can result in hypoxic injury to the heart and liver
if there is liver damage–> there is decreased plasma protein synthesis
cardiac hypoxia may lead to cardiac decompensation and failure

*** the combination of reduced plasma oncotic pressure and increased hydrostatic pressure in the circulation secondary to cardiac failure results in edema and anasarca–> hydrops fetalis

jaundice:
hemolysis produces unconjugated bilirubin
can result in kernicterus b/c bilirubin can cross the BBB and bind to lipids in the brain

62
Q

what are the 3 main causes of nonimmune hydrops

A

cardiovascular defects

chromosomal anomalies

  • -45,X (turner) –> abnormalities of lymphatic drainage from the neck may lead to postnuchal fluid accumulation (**Cystic hygroma)
  • -trisomy 21 and 18

fetal anemia:
-alpha-thalassemia

63
Q

how does the parvovirus B19 cause nonimmune hydrops

A

it enters into erythroid precursors

leads to apoptosis of red cells progenitors and isolated red cells aplasia

64
Q

what is the clinical presentation of hydrops fetalis

treatment?

A

minor cases:
pallor
hepatosplenomegaly

grave cases:
intense jaundice
generalized edema
neurological involvement

treatment:
phototherapy (toxic unconjugated bilirubin converted to readily excreted water soluble dipyrroles)
exchange transfusion

65
Q

PKU (phenyketonuria)

A

abnormalities in pheylalanine metabolism

autosomal recessive

mutation in the gene encoding the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)

inability to convert phenylalanine into tyrosine

without PAH there is excess metabolites (pheylpyruvic acid) these are excreted in the urine and have a “mousy” odor

66
Q

what is the clinical presentation of PKU

A

at birth they are normal but after a few weeks they develop a rising plasma phenylalanine level . this can affect brain development

by 6 months severe mental retardation can become apparent

seizures
decreased pigment of hair and skin
eczema

67
Q

Galactosemia mechanism

A

autosomal recessive

normally lactose is split into glucose and galactose in the intestine by lactase

galactose is then converted to glucose in 3 steps

Mechanism:

1) total lack of galactose 1 phosphate uridy trasnferase (GALT) involved in rxn 2
2) the other variant (less common) arises from deficiency of galactokinase, involved in reaction 1

Galactose1phosphate accumulates in the liver, spleen, lens of the eye, kidneys, heart, cerebral cortex, erythrocytes

68
Q

what is the clinical presentation of galactosemia

A

Hepatomegaly–> due to fatty chagne, cirrhosis may develop later

Opacification of the lens (cataracts)

Nonspecific alterations appear in the CNS- loss of nerve cells, gliosis, edema

Failure to thrive
Vomiting and diarrhea appear within a few days of milk ingestion
jaundice and hepatomegaly
aminoaciduria

increased e.coli b/c of depressed neutrophil bactericidal activity
Hemolysis and coagulopathy occur too

69
Q

how can you diagnose galactosemia

A

presence of a reducing sugar other than glucose in the urine

Assay of GALT activity in cultured amniotic cells

Mutations in GALT:
glutamine to arginine substitution at codon 188 in non-hispanic whites
serine-to-leucine substitution at codon 135 is most common in African americans

70
Q

how can galactosemia be treated

A

removal of galactose from the diet in the first 2 years of life especially

71
Q

cystic fibrosis

what is it

A

disorder of ion transport in epithelial cells that affects fluid secretion in exocrine glands and the epithelial lining of the respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive tracts

abnormal function of an epithelial chloride channel protein encoded by the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene on chromosome 7q

viscous secretions

autosomal recessive

72
Q

what are the clincal features of cystic fibrosis

A
chronic lung disease secondary to recurrent infections
pancreatic insufficiency
steatorrhea
malnutrition
hepatic cirrhosis
intestinal obstruction
male infertility
73
Q

what is the relationship of CFTR and the ENaC

A

CFTR regulates this epithelial sodium channel

the ENaC is on the apical surface of exocrine epithelial cells and is respsonsible for sodium uptake from luminal fluid, rendering the luminal fluid hypotonic

the ENaC is normally inhibited by CFTR, thus is cystic fibrosis ENaC activity increases and sodium uptake increases across the apical membrane

EXCEPTION–> in sweat ducts ENaC activity is decreased by CFTR mutation and therefor a hypertonic luminal fluid containing both high sweat chloride and high sodium cotnent is formed “Salty sweat” in infants

74
Q

what is the major function of CFTR in the sweat glands

A

reabsorb luminal chloride ions and augment sodium reabsorption via the ENaC

loss of CFTR leads to decreased reabsorption of sodium chloride and production of hypertonic sweat

75
Q

what happens with CFTR defect in the respiraotyr and intestinal epithelium

A

CFTR is normally important for the active luminal secretion of chloride

at these sites, a loss of CFTR results in reduction of chloride secretion in the lumen
this causes increased passive water reabsorption from the lumen, lowering the water content of the surface fluid layer coating mucosal cells
-create an isotonic but low-volume surface fluid layer
leads to defective ciliary action and the accumulation of hyperconcentrated viscid secretions that obstruct the air passages

76
Q

CFTR and bicarbonate ions?

A

SLC26 are anion exchangers co-expressed on the apical surface with CFTR

mutants of CFTR have decreased bicarb secretion –> leading to acidic secretions

increased acidity –> increased mucine precipitation and plugging of the ducts and increased binding of bacteria to plugged mucins

77
Q

class I CFTR gene defect

A

defective protein synthesis

lack of CFTR on the surface

78
Q

Class II CFTR mutant

A

abnormal protein folding, procesing and trafficking

lack of CFTR on surface

79
Q

class III CFTR mutant

A

defective regulation

present on the surface but nonfunctional

80
Q

Class IV CFTR

A

decreased conductance
normal CFTR amount but reduced in function

mild

81
Q

class V CFTR

A

reduced abundance

mild

82
Q

class VI CFTR mutations

A

altered regulation of separate ion channels

83
Q

alginate?

A

a mucoid polysachardie capsule

this is produced when there is static mucus that creates a hypoxic environment in the airway surface fluid

this permits the formation of a biofilm that protects bacteria from antibodies and antibiotics -> chronic obstructive lung disease

84
Q

classic fibrosis morphology

A

atrophy of the exocrine glands and fibrosis of pancreas

meconium ileus- small bowel obstruction

steatosis of liver

focal biliary cirrhosis

bronchioles show hyperplasia and hypertrophy of mucus secreting cells

staphylococcus aureus, hemophilus influenza and pseudomonas aeruginosa are the three most common organisms

azoospermia and infertility

congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens

85
Q

what are the clinical features of cystic fibrosis

A

exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

  • protein and fat malabsorption
  • avitaminosis
  • hypoproteinemia may cause edema

Cardiorespiratory complications:

  • harbor P.aeruginosa
  • nasal polyps
  • clubbing
  • chronic cough and sputum production

GI and nutritional abnormalities:
Intestine–> meconium ileus,obstruction
hepatic–> chronic hepatic disease with cirrhosis, prolonged neonatal juandice
nutritional- failure to thrive

Salt-loss syndromes:
-chronic metabolic alkalosis

Mal urogenital abnormalities:
congenital bilateral absence of vas deferens

86
Q

what are the criteria for diagnosis of cystic fibrosis

A

one or more characteristic phenotype features
OR a history of cystic fibrosis in a sibling
OR a positive newborn screening test result

AND
An increased sweat chloride concentration on two or more occasions
OR identification of two cystic fibrosis mutations
OR demonstration of abnormal epithelial nasal ion transport

87
Q

how is cystic fibrosis managed

A

antimicrobial therapies
pancreatic enzyme replacement
bilateral lung tranpslantation

gene therapy

88
Q

what is sudden infant death syndrome

A

it is sudden death due to something unknown! even after autopsy

see the other flashcard set (CIS) for the rest of SIDS info)

89
Q

what are the environmental risk factors associated with SIDS

A

prone or side sleep position

sleeping on a soft surface

hyperthermia

co-sleeping in first 3 months of life

90
Q

what are postmortem abnormalities detected in cased of sudden unexpected infant death?

A

infections

  • viral myocarditis
  • bronchopneumonia

unsuspected congenital anomaly

  • congenital aortic stenosis
  • anomalous origin of the left coronary artery from the pulmonary artery

traumatic child abuse
-intentional suffocation

genetic and metabolic defects
-long QT syndrome 
fatty acid oxidation disorders
histiocytoid cardiomyopathy
abnormal inflammatory responsiveness
91
Q

what is an ALTE

A

apparent life threatening event

characterized by some combination of apnea, marked change of color or muscle tone, choking or gagging

it has differnet risk factors and age of onset compared to infants with SIDS

often premature

92
Q

what is the morphology of SIDS

A

multiple petechiae are the most common findings
-on the thymus, visceral and parietal pleura, epicardium

Lungs are congested and vascular engorgement with or without pulmonary edema is demonstratable

CNS:
astrogliosis of the brainstem and cerebellum
-hypoplasia of the arcuate nucleus

hepatic extramedullary hematopoiesis and periadrenal brown fat

93
Q

what is the delayed development of arousal and cardiorespiratory control

A

the infant who dies of SIDS may have problems with arousal response to environmental stressors

94
Q

in what position should a baby sleep

A

supine

95
Q

heterotopia (or choristoma)

A

microscopically normal cells or tissues that are present in abnormal locations 1

96
Q

hamartoma

A

excessive, focal overgrowth of cells and tissues native to the organ in which it occurs

the cellular elements are mature and identical to those found in the reaminder of the organ, they do not reproduced the normal architecture of the surroundingtissue

97
Q

what are the most common neoplasms of childhood

A

soft-tissue tumors of mesenchymal derivation

in adults the most common tumors are of epithelial origin

98
Q

hemangioma

A

most common tumor of infancy **

both cavernous and capillary hemangiomas may be encountered

most are located on the skin (face and scalp) where they produce flat to elevated, irregular, red-blue masses
port-wine stains–> large lesions

usually they spontaneously regress

can represent one facet of the Von Hippel Lindau disease

99
Q

lymphatic tumors

A

lymphangiomas-> cystic and cavernous space
may occur in the skin but are more often encountered in the deeper regions of the neck, axilla, mediastinum, retroperitoneal tissue and elsewhere.
increase in size after birth

lymphangiectasis–> diffuse swelling of part or all of an extremity; considerable distortion and deformation may occur as a consequence of the spongy, dilated subcutaneous and deeper lymphatics l

lesion is not progressive

100
Q

fibromatosis

A

sparsely cellular proliferations of spindle-shaped cells

101
Q

congenital-infantile fibrosarcomas

A

richly cellular lesions indistinguishable from fibrosarcomas occurring in adults

chromosomal translocation: t(12;15) –> results in generation of ETV6-NTRK3 fusion transcript (NTRK3 is also known as TRKC) and is a tyrosine kinase which is constitutively active in this disease –> stimulates signaling through RAS and PI-3K/AKT pathways

102
Q

what is the ETV6-NTRK3 fusion transcript a marker for?

A

the soft-tissue tumor unique to fibrosarcomas and is useful as a diagnostic marker

103
Q

mature teratoma

A

benign well differentiated

104
Q

immature teratoma

A

indeterminate potential

105
Q

teratomas

peaks of incidence (2)

A

first peak of incidence–> 2 year of age
-typically congenital neoplasms

2nd –> late adolescence or early adulthood
-prenantal origin

106
Q

what are the most common teratomas of childhood?

A

sacrococcygeal teratoma

four times more common in girls
associated with congenital anomalies

most of these are mature

NOTE: most benign teratomas are encountered in younger infants (<4 months) whereas children with malignant lesions tend to be somewhat older

107
Q

what are the 8 common malignant neoplasms of infancy and childhood from 0-4 years

A
leukemia
retinoblastoma
neuroblastoma
Wilms tumor
hepatoblastoma
soft-tissue sarcoma (especially rhabdomyosarcoma)
teratomas
CNS tumors
108
Q

what are the common malignant neoplasms from 5-9 yeras

A
leukemia
retinoblastoma
neuroblastoma
hepatocellular carcinoma
soft-tissue sarcoma
central nervous system tumors
ewing sarcoma
lymphoma
109
Q

what are the common malignant neoplasms from 10-14 years of age …

A
hepatocellular carcinoma
soft-tissue sarcoma
osteogenic sarcoma
thyroid carcinoma
hodgkin disease
110
Q

compare the most common sites of tumor development in infants and adults

A

children:
hematopoietic system
nervous tissue

111
Q

what are neuroblastic tumors

A

tumors of sympathetic ganglia and adrenal medulla that are derived from primordial neural crest cells

characteristics:
spontaneous or therapy-induced differentiation of primitive neuroblasts into mature elements, spontaneous tumor regression, and a wide range of clinical behavior and prognosis

112
Q

neuroblastoma

A

most common extracranial solid tumor and the most frequently diagnosed tumor of infancy

median age at diagnosis is 18 months

germline mutations in ALK gene are a cause of familial predisposition to neuroblastoma

children under 18 months of age tend to have a signifiacntly better prognosis than older individuals

113
Q

what is the morphology of neuroblastoma?

A

Childhood:
40 % arise in the adrenal medulla
Paravertebral region of the abdomen (25%)
Posterior mediastinum (15%)

114
Q

stage 1 of neuroblastoma

A

localized tumor with complete gross excision with or without microscopic residual disease

representative ipsilateral nonadherent lymph nodes negative for tumor

115
Q

stage 2A

A

localized tumor with incomplete gross resection

representative ipsilateral nonadherent lymph nodes negative for tumor microscopically

116
Q

stage 2B

A

localized tumor with or without complete gross excision
ipsilateral nonadherenet lymph nodes positive for tumor
enlarged contralateral lymph nodes which are negative for tumor

117
Q

stage 3

A

unresectable unilteral tumor infiltrating across the midline with or without regional lymph node involvment or localized unilateral tumor with contralateral regional lymph node involvement

118
Q

stage 4

A

any primary tumor with dissemination to distant lymph nodes, bone, bone marrow, liver, skin, and/or other organs

119
Q

stage 4S

A

S = special

localized primary tumor with dissemination limited to skin, liver, bone marrow

LIMITED TO infants younger than 1 year of age!!

120
Q

what stages of neuroblastoma are favorable/unfavorable

A

favor–> 1, 2A, 2B, 4S

unfavor–> 3, 4

NOTE most children present with stage 3 or 4 (60-80%)

121
Q

age favorable in neuroblastoma

A

less than 18 months is FAVORABLE

age > 18 months is not favorable

122
Q

N-myc status in prognosis of neuroblastomas

A

favorable –> not amplified

not favorable–> amplified

if there is N-Myc amplification, it bumps the tumor into a high risk category irrespective of age, stage or histology

123
Q

is TRKA expression favorable or not?

A

FAVORABLE if it is present

124
Q

TRKB expression in neuroblastoma?

A

not favorable

125
Q

chromosome 17q gain
chromosome 1 p loss
chromosome 11q loss

A

all absent in favorable prognosis of neuroblastoma

126
Q

telomerase expression in neuroblastoma prognosis?

A

low or absent is FAVORABLE

highly expressed is NOT favorable

127
Q

is evidence of schwannian stroma and gangliocytic differenation favorable or not in neuroblastomas?

A

favorable !

128
Q

what is the presentation of neuroblastoma ?

A

in young children under 2 presents with large abdominal masses, fever, weight loss

older children- may not present until they have metastasized –> bone pain, respiratory symptoms, GI complaints

Proptosis

blueberry muffin baby - deep blue discoloration of the skin with cutaneous metastases

90% of neuroblastomas produce catecholamines –> can have elevated levels of VMA and HVA

129
Q

age and stage are the most important determinants of outcome ….

A

stages 1,2A or 2B are excellent prognosis

130
Q

ploidy in neuroblastoma diagnosis/prognosis?

A

correlates with outcome in children less than 2 years of age but loses its independent prognostic significance in older children

near-diploid–>

hyper-diploid–> better prognosis
have defect in the underlying mitotic machinery leading to chromosomal nondisjunction and near-triploidy

131
Q

Wilms tumor

A

most common primary renal tumor of childhood

the risk of wilms tumor is increased in association with at least four recognizable groups of congenital malformations associated with distinct chromosomal loci.

132
Q

WAGR syndrome

A

aniridia
genital anomalies
mental retardation
and 33% chance of developing wilms tumor

carry deletions of 11p13

These patients have:
WT1 - wilms tumor associated gene
PAX6- deleted autosomal dominant gene for aniridia

typically the first hit is a deletion of 1 WT1 allele
the second hit is the deletion of the 2nd WT1 allele and the subsequent development of Wilms tumor

133
Q

what is the phenotype of a patient with a deletion restricted to PAX6 with normal WT1 function?

A

develop sporadic aniridia but they are NOT at increased risk for Wilms tumors

134
Q

Denys-Drash syndrome

A

gonadal dysgenesis (male pseudohermaphorditism) and early onset nephropathy leading to renal failure

the characteristic glomerular lesion in these patients is a diffuse mesangial sclerosis

These patients have abnormalities in WT1
HOWEVER, it is different than WAGR in that it is a dominant-NEGATIVE- missense mutation in the zinc-finger region of WT1 that affects its DNA-binding properties

the mutation interferes with the function of the remaining wild-type allele, and is sufficient in only causing genitourinary abnormalities but NOT tumorigenesis

wilms tumors in denys drash syndrome demonstrate bi-allelic inactivation of WT1

also at increased risk for developing gonadoblastomas

135
Q

What does WT1 encode for

A

a DNA binding transcription factor that is expressed in several tissues including the kidney and gonads

the WT1 protein is critical for normal renal and gonadal development

136
Q

Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome (BWS)

role of IGF2?
role of CDKN1C

A

these children have increased risk of developing WIlm’s tumor

this disease is characterized by enlargement of body organs
macroglossia
hemihypertrophy
omphalocele
abnormal large cells in the adrenal cortex

Patients with BWS are also at increased risk for hepatoblastoma, pancreatoblastoma, adrenocrotical tumors, rhabdomyosarcomas

BWS is a case of genomic imprinting

the chromosomal region implicated in this disease is WT2- this region contains multiple genes that are normally expressed from only one of the two parental alleles, with transcriptional silencing (imprinting) of the other

IGF2 (insuline like growth factor 2) is expressed in this region, solely from the PATERNAL allele –> in some Wilm’s tumors loss of imprinting (expression of the maternal IGF2) leads to overexpression of IGF2 protein

Sometimes there is selective deletion of the maternal allele, combined with duplication of the transcriptionally activie paternal allele (uniparental paternal disomy) –> overexpression of IGF2

IGF2 overexpression can lead to overgrowth and imprinting abnoramlities in IGF2 have the strongest releationship to tumor predisoposition in BWS

Mutations of the CDKN1C (cell cycle regulator) in BWS (aka p57 or KIP2)–> lower risk for developing Wilms tumor

137
Q

what is the role of B-catenin in WIlms tumors

A

B-catenin belongs to the developmentally important WNT signaling pathway

Gain-of-function mutations of the gene encoding Bcatenin are elucidated in 10% of sporadic Wilms tumors

138
Q

what are nephrogenic rests

A

putative precrusor lesions of WIlms tumors and are seen in the renal parenchyma adjacent to approximately 25% to 40% of unilateral tumors and neearly 100% in bilateral WIlms tumors

appearance:
varies from an expansile mass that resembles Wilms tumors to sclerotic rests consisting of predominantly fibrous tissue and occasional admixed immature tubules or glomeruli

if a person has a resected kidney with nephrogenic rests then they are at increased risk of devloping wilms tumors in the contralteral kidney

139
Q

what is the morphology of Wilms tumor

A

large, solitary, well circumscribed mass

soft, homogenous, tan to gray with occassional foci of hemorhage, cyst formation, and necrosis

blastemal component:
sheets of small blue cells with few distinctive features

5% of tumors reveal anaplasia –> correlates with p53 mutations (loss of p53 means there is loss of a pro-apoptotic signal)

140
Q

what are the clinical feature of wilms tumor?

A

large abdominal mass unilateral or very large and extending across midline or down into the pelvis

hematuria, pain in the abdomen, intestinal obstruction and appearance of HTN

pulmonary metastases

Although there is increased survival of individuals with Wilms tumor, there is increased risk of developing secondary tumors–> breast, leukemia, lymphoma.