Diseases Flashcards

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1
Q
  • autosomal recessive disorder
  • mutation in both alleles of PAH gene on chromosome 12 leading to deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)
  • Symptoms: mental retardation, organ damage, unusual posture, microcephaly, seizures, hyperactivity, musky diaper smell
  • Milder form: hyperphenylalanemia
  • Can also be caused by mutation in genes involved in production or recycling of tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4)
  • Accumulation of phenylalanine (normal is
A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

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2
Q
  • converts phenylalanine to tyrosine by hydroxylating the phenolic ring
  • deficiency causes accumulation of phenylalanine leading to PKU
A

Phenylalanine Hydroxylase (PAH)

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3
Q
  • a cofactor of PAH
A

Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4)

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4
Q
  • autosomal recessive
  • Caused by frameshift mutation of TATC insertion in exon 11 of HEXA gene on chromosome 15 leading to deficient Hexosaminidase A enzyme
  • accumulation of GM2 ganglioside in the brain
  • Common in Ashkenazi Jews
  • Symptoms: progressive neurological deterioration until death at 2-4 yrs if affected as infant, cherry-red spot in retina,
  • In later onset: vision and intelligence remains normal, spinocerebellar degeneration (lower motor neuron dysfunction and ataxia), psychosis
A

Tay-Sachs Disease

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5
Q
  • cleaves the terminal N-acetyl-B-galactosamine residue from the ganglioside
  • composed of alpha subunit (HEXA) and beta subunit (HEXB)
  • requires an activator protein
A

Hexosaminidase A

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6
Q
  • autosomal recessive
  • mannose-6-phosphate defect
  • defect in Golgi-specific N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphotransferase by mutation in GNPTAB on chromosome 12q23.2 which leads to a defect in protein trafficking
  • abnormal lysosomes (inclusion bodies)
  • Symptoms: unusual facial features, skeletal changes, severe growth retardation, mental retardation, increased acid hydrolases levels in body fluids
A

I-Cell Disease

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7
Q
  • autosomal recessive
  • deficiency in cystathionine B-synthase, methionine synthase, Vit B6 deficiency, Folate, or B12
  • Symptoms: dislocation of the lens, mental retardation, osteoporosis, long bones, thromboembolism of the veins and arteries
A

Homocystinuria

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8
Q
  • autosomal recessive
  • associated with chronic obstructive lung disease (emphysema) and liver cirrhosis
  • inherited conformational disease - changes the shape or size of a protein
  • mutation in Z allele (Glu342Lys) leading to formation of long bead-like necklaces of mutant a1AT polymers
  • Symptoms: SOB, cough or wheeze, rhonchi, can develop emphysema, cirrhosis
A

a1-Antitrypsin Deficiency

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9
Q
  • a serine protease inhibitor (serpin)
  • binds to and inhibits activity of elastase
  • methionine 358 oxidized by cigarette smoke and inflammatory cells reducing affinity for elastase
A

a1-Antitrypsin

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10
Q
  • autosomal dominant
  • caused by mutation in gene encoding for porphobilinogen (PBG) deaminase (PBGD) on chromosome 11
  • occurs in response to events that decrease concentration of heme in liver cell [barbiturates, drugs, steroid hormones, surgery]
  • Symptoms: GI and neuropathic episodes, abdominal pain, vomiting, confusion, emotional, hallucinations, psychosis
A

Acute Intermittent Porphyria

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11
Q
  • autosomal dominant
  • elevated plasma cholesterol carried by LDL
  • mutation in LDL receptor (chr 19), ApoB-100 (chr 2), PCSK9 protease (chr 1), or ARH adaptor protein (chr1)
  • symptoms: premature heart disease, xanthomas, arcus corneae
A

Familial Hypercholesterolemia

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12
Q
  • autosomal recessive
  • Caucasian children (1/2000; 1/25 carriers)
  • Mutation of CFTR gene at deltaF508, C to T, Phe to Ile
  • Chromosome 7q31
  • Symptoms: recurrent lung infections, positive salt sweat test, large greasy stools light in color with foul odor, congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens, infertile
  • Diagnostic feature: increased concentrations of sweat Na+Cl-
A

Cystic Fibrosis

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13
Q
  • X-linked
  • age of onset about 3-5 years
  • progressive muscle weakness, awkward gait, pseudohypertrophy of calves, Gower maneuver, lordosis, death by 18 due to cardiorespiratory failure
  • elevated serum level of creatine kinase (CK)
  • absence of dystrophin
  • most often a frameshift mutation deletion of the dystrophin gene (60%)
  • considered a “genetic lethal” condition
A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

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14
Q
  • X-linked
  • age of onset about 11 years
  • progressive muscle weakness, awkward gait, pseudohypertrophy of calves, but ambulant into adult life, decreased life span
  • truncated dystrophin
  • inframe deletion mutation of dystrophin gene (60%)
A

Becker Muscular Dystrophy

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15
Q
  • joint hypermobility, cutaneous fragility, cigarette paper skin, hyperextensibility
  • genetic defect in collagen structure, synthesis, secretion, or degradation
A

Ehlers-Danlos Syndromes (EDS)

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16
Q
  • mutations in loci containing COL5A1 or COL5A2 genes encoding the alpha-chains of Type V collagen
  • autosomal dominant
  • skin and joint hypermobility, atrophic scars, easy bruising
A

Classical EDS (Type I and II)

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17
Q
  • Autosomal Dominant

- joint hypermobility, pain, dislocations

A

EDS Type III

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18
Q
  • decreased amount of Type III collagen (reticulin)
  • mutation in COL3A1
  • Thin skin, arterial or uterine rupture, bruising, small joint hyperextensibility
  • autosomal dominant
A

EDS Type IV

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19
Q
  • autosomal recessive
  • deficiency in lysyl hydroxylase
  • hypotonia, joint laxity, congenital scoliosis, ocular fragility
A

EDS Type VI

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20
Q
  • severe skin fragility, cutis laxa, bruising

- procollagen N-peptidase

A

EDS Type VIIc

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21
Q
  • autosomal dominant
  • severe joint hypermobility, mild skin changes, scoliosis, bruising
  • defect in COL1A1, COL1A2
A

EDS Type VIIa,b

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22
Q
  • autosomal recessive
  • extreme sensitivity to UV radiation and multiple skin cancers
  • marked freckling of face, xerosis, poikiloderma, corneal opacification
  • result from lack of nucleotide-excision repair
A

Xeroderma Pigmentosa

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23
Q
  • drug that inhibits the calcium pump in the rough ER
  • used to prevent calcium-dependent chaperone that traps mutant CFTR protein and impairs its binding in ER for degradation
A

Curcumin

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24
Q

drug that allows the ribosome to bypass a premature stop codon at relatively low frequency and enables increased expression of full length protein

A

Gentamycin

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25
Q
  • autosomal dominant
  • mutation in gene for APC, tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 5q21-q22
  • thousands of polyps on the colon which have potential to form a malignant tumor
A

Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)

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26
Q
  • protein misfolding of Amyloid Precursor Protein (APP) creating neurotoxic peptide (AB-42)
  • B-amyloid neuritic plaques
  • neurofibrillary tangles
  • abnormal cleavage of amyloid precursor protein by alpha, beta, gamma secretases
  • Tau protein normally organizes microtubules but abnormal post-translation hyperphosphorylation causes tangles
  • Mutation in PSEN1&2 (cofactor of gamma secretase)
  • e4 of APOE mutation also causes build of up APOE plaques
  • progressive deterioration of memory and higher cognitive functions, agitation, social withdrawal, hallucinations, seizures, rigidity, mutism, eventually bed ridden and will die from malnutrition, infection or heart disease
A

Alzheimer’s Disease

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27
Q
  • mitochondrial disorder
  • mutation in tRNA for Lysine
  • A->G transition @8344
  • myopathy, sensineural deafness, dementia, epilepsy, ataxia
  • dx made from: myoclonus, generalized epilepsy, ataxia, ragged red fibers
  • Structurally and biochemically abnormal mitochondria appear red in muscle tissue
A

MERFF (myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers)

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28
Q
  • mitochondrial disorder
  • point mutation in tRNA for leucine, translation of codons for leucine
  • A->G transition @3242
  • affects many of the body’s systems (brain, nervous system, muscles)
  • muscle weakness, vomiting, seizures, diabetes, vision loss, dementia, deafness, lactic acidosis, stroke like episodes at age 40
A

MELAS (Mitochondrial Encephalopathy, Lactic Acidosis and Stroke)

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29
Q
  • mutation of Abelson (ABL) proto-oncogene by translocation 9 (ABEL) and 22 (BCR)
  • symptoms: enlarged spleen, joint/hip pain, low-grade fever, anemia, thrombocytopenis
A

CML (chronic myologenous leukemia)

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30
Q

drug that that prevents fusion protein BCR-ABL from binding ATP so it can’t phosphorylate it’s substrates that are involved in enhanced growth of leukemia cells

A

Gleevec (imantinib)

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31
Q
  • autosomal dominant
  • results from mutations in genes coding for proteins involved in mismatch repair
  • most common mutations are in MLH1 and MSH2 genes for MutL and MutS
  • Microsatellite instability
A

HNPCC

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32
Q
  • caused by mutation in tumor suppressor gene
  • Rb1 gene, Rb protein - chrom 13
  • early symptom is white reflex in cornea of eye while shining a light
A

Retinoblastoma

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33
Q
  • Symptoms include mental retardation and macroorchidism and deep plantar creases
  • X-linked dominant
  • Caused by abnormal CGG repeat >200 leading to hyper-methylation of 5’ UT and decreased FMR1 expression
  • gain of function
A

Fragile X Syndrome

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34
Q
  • B cell tumor of the jaw
  • translocation between chromosomes 8 and 14
  • c-myc proto-oncogene on 8q24 translocated distal to the immunoglobin heavy chain(IGH) locus at 14q32
  • IGH enhancer upregulates c-myc and converts it to oncogene
  • common in children in equatorial Africa
  • other possible translocations: IGL 22 lambda, 2 kappa
A

Burkitt Lymphoma

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35
Q
  • use to treat sickle cell
  • cytosine analog incorporated into gamma globin gene promoter
  • causes hypomethylation of HbF, increasing adult HbF
A

Decitabine

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36
Q
  • autosomal recessive
  • deficient in ADA
  • leads to accumulation of deoxyadenosine
  • T and B cell lymphotoxicity leads to SCID
A

Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency

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37
Q

What does PAH do?

A
  • converts phenylalanine to tyrosine by hydroxylating the phenolic ring
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38
Q

Individuals with PKU are often what?

A

compound heterozygoes

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39
Q
  • autosomal recessive
  • a-L-iduronidase deficiency (chromosome 4)
  • corneal clouding, coarse facies, skeletal abnormalities, hepatosplenomegaly, hearing loss, progressive and profound mental retardation, linear growth ceases, death by cardiorespiratory failure
A

Hurler Syndrome

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40
Q

What are the 6 types of defects that can cause homocystinuria?

A
  • classic homocystinuria due to defective cystathionine synthase
  • methylene-h4-folate reductase defects (impairs methionine synthase)
  • defects in the intracellular metabolism of cobalmins which affect methionine synthase
  • direct affect on methyl-b12 formation
  • cobalmin intestinal absorption
  • abnormalities in the major extracellular transport protein, transcobalamin II
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41
Q

How are all defects in cobalamin metabolism inherited?

A

autosomal recessively

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42
Q

anemia that results from inhibition of DNA synthesis in red blood cell production

  • due to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and/or folic acid
  • characterized by many large immature and dysfunctional red blood cells (megaloblasts) in the bone marrow
A

Megaloblastic anemia

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43
Q

What are the 4 proteins associated with familial hypercholesterolemia?

A
  • LDL receptor (chr 19) binding ApoB-100
  • mutation in the LDL receptor binding domain of ApoB-100 (chr 2)
  • PCSK9 protease (chr 1) activity leading to degradation of the LDL receptor
  • mutation in the ARH adaptor protein (chr1) which impairs LDL clearance
44
Q
  • autosomal recessive
  • predisposed to easy fracturing of bones
  • mutation in the genes COL1A1 and/or COL1A2
A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

45
Q

-phenotype: mild; blue sclerae, brittle bones but no bony deformity, often presenile deafness
-biochemical defect: collagen made is normal, but quantity is reduced by half
-gene defect: null alleles impair the production of pro α1
chains, such as defects that interfere with mRNA synthesis

A

Type 1 OI

46
Q
  • phenotype: perinatal lethal: severe abnormalities (fractures, deformities), dark sclerae
  • biochemical defect: production of abnormal collagen molecules due to substitution of the gly in Gly-X-Y of the triple helical domain, with some bias toward the COOH-terminal half of the protein
  • gene defect: Missense skeletal mutations in the glycine codons of the genes for the α1 and α2 chains
A

Type 2 OI

47
Q
  • phenotype: progressive deforming; fractures, progressive bone deformity, limited growth, blue sclerae, dentinogenesis imperfects, hearing loss
  • biochemical defect: Abnormal collagen molecules: gly substitutions of many types in the triple helix; located throughout the protein
  • gene defect: Missense mutations in the glycine codons of the genes for the α1 and α2 chains
A

Type 3 OI

48
Q
  • phenotype: Deforming; normal sclerae, short stature, mild/moderate bony deformity, hearing loss, fractures, dentinogenesis imperfects
  • biochemical defect: Abnormal collagen molecules: gly substitutions of many types in the triple helix; located throughout the protein
  • gene defect: Missense mutations in the glycine codons of the genes for the α1 and α2 chains
A

Type 4 OI

49
Q

What are the 4 genes/proteins associated with Alzheimer’s Disease?

A
  • APP
  • PSEN1
  • PSEN2
  • APOE
50
Q

Is MELAS heteroplasmic or homoplasmic?

A

heteroplasmic

51
Q

Is MERRF heteroplasmic or homoplasmic?

A

heterolplasmic

52
Q

Is Leber heriditary optic neuropathy heteroplasmic or homoplasmic?

A

homoplasmic

53
Q
  • mitochondrial disease
  • Rapid, painless bilateral loss of central vision due to optic nerve atrophy in young adults
  • high penetrance in males
A

Leber Hereditary Optic Neuropathy

54
Q

What is trinucleotide the expansion repeat in Huntington disease?

A

CAG

55
Q

What is the trinucleotide expansion repeat in Fragile X Syndorme?

A

CGG

56
Q

What is the trinucleotide expansion repeat in Friedreich ataxia?

A

AAG

57
Q

What is the trinucleotide expansion repeat in Myotonic Dystrophy?

A

CTG

58
Q

What is the expansion repeat in Spinocerebellar atrophy?

A

ATTCT

59
Q
  • late onset, progressive cerebellar ataxia and intention tremor due to the formation of intranuclear neuronal inclusions
  • GOF
  • caused by CGG repeats between 60-200
  • mental retardation, learning abnormalities
A

Fragile X-associated tremor/ataxia Syndrome (FXTAS)

60
Q
  • autosomal dominant
  • most pleiotropic phenotype of all unstable repeat expansion disorders
  • mutated gene: DMPH on chromosome 19
  • CTG repeats in the 3’ UTR
  • quenhes RNA binding proteins
  • clincial features: prolonged contraction, cardiac conduction defects, testicular atrophy, insulin resistance, cataracts
A

Myotonic Dystrophy 1

61
Q

-expansion of the tetranucleotide CCTG int he first intron of the zinc finger protein 9 gene

A

Myotonic Dystrophy 2

62
Q
  • autosomal recessive
  • defect in expression of the gene due to expansion of GAA in intron 1 resulting in transcriptional elongation
  • loss of activity results in increased levels of mitochondrial iron, impaired heme synthesis, adn reduced activity of Fe-S containing proteins
A

Freidreich Ataxia

63
Q
  • autosomal dominant neuodegenerative disorder
  • polyglutamine expansion CAG repeats
  • insoluble aggregates of the mutant protein in nuclear inclusions
A

Huntington Disease

64
Q

IND designed to enable the formation of a functioning protein in patients with genetic disorders due to a nonsense mutation such as in DMD and CF

A

Ataluren

65
Q

What are 2 forms of treatment for Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency ?

A

bone marrow transplant and enzyme replacement therapy

66
Q
  • autosomal recessive
  • lysosomal storage disease
  • deficiency of glucocerebrosidase; chromosome 1
  • accumulateion of lipid glucocerebroside in lysosomes
  • anemia, thrombocytopenia, crumpled tissue paper appearance
A

Gaucher Disease

67
Q
  • white matter degenerative disorder due to beta galactocerbrosidase deficiency
  • inhibits formation of myelin sheath
  • early onset and late onset
A

Krabbe disease/Globoid Cell Leukodystrophy

68
Q
  • autosomal dominant mutation in TBX5 on chr 12q2

- results in atrial septal defect and a thumb anomaly

A

Holt-Oram Syndrome

69
Q

DCC gene (18q) sproadic mutation leads to what?

A

colorectal cancer

70
Q

Wt1 gene (11p) sporadic mutation leads to what?

A

Kidney cancer

71
Q

Wt1 gene (11p) familial mutation leads to what?

A

Wilm’s tumor

72
Q

Rb1 gene (13q) sporadic mutation leads to what?

A

Eye cancer

73
Q

Rb1 gene (13q) familial mutation leads to what?

A

Retinbolastoma

74
Q

Tp53 gene (17q) sporadic mutation leads to what?

A

Breast, colorectal, and lung cancer

75
Q

Tp53 gene (17q) familial mutation leads to what?

A

Li Fraumeni syndrome

76
Q
  • autosomal dominant mutation produces an activated oncogene
  • high incidence of medullary carcinoma of the thyroid sometimes associated with pheochromocytoma
  • responsible mutation is in the RET gene encoding a receptor tyrosine kinase
A

Multiple Endocrine Adenomatosis, Type 2 (MEN2)

77
Q

autosomal dominant
chrom 17
tp53 gene mutated

A

Li-Fraumeni Syndrome

78
Q

BRCA1

A

breast and ovarian cancers

79
Q

BRCA2

A

breast, gallbladder, pancreatic, and male breast cancer

80
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Hurler’s Syndrome?

A

AR

81
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Tay Sachs?

A

AR

82
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for I-cell

A

AR

83
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Homocystinuria

A

AR

84
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

A

AR

85
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for cystic fibrosis

A

AR

86
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for AIP?

A

AD

87
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for DMD?

A

x-linked recessive

88
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for BMD

A

x-linked recessive

89
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Ehlers-Danlos

A

AD

90
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for familial hypercholesterolemia

A

AD

91
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for OI?

A

AD

92
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for huntington disease

A

AD

93
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for fragile x

A

x-linked dominant

94
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for freidrich ataxia

A

AR

95
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for myotonic dystrophy

A

AD

96
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for adenosine deaminase deficiency

A

AR

97
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Gaucher Disease

A

AR

98
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for MEN-2?

A

AD

99
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Li-Fraumeni?

A

AD

100
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

A

AD

101
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for HNPCC

A

AD

102
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for XP

A

AR

103
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Bloom sydrome

A

AR

104
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Ataxia Telangiectasia

A

AR

105
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for PKU

A

AR