Dion Training CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Practice Exam - Results

Question 1

Sarah is connecting a new wireless mouse to a client’s laptop. Which of the following technologies is MOST likely being used to connect the mouse to the laptop?

Answer 1

Explanation
OBJ 1.3 - Bluetooth is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices.

Question 2

Infrared (IR)

Answer 2

was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop.

Question 3

Near field communication (NFC)

Answer 3

is a standard for peer-to-peer (2-way) radio communications over very short (around 4”) distances that facilitates contactless payment and similar technologies.

Question 4

Universal serial bus (USB)

Answer 4

is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

Question 5

Jason is teaching a CompTIA course at a large company, but they do not allow non-employees to connect to their network. Since Jason needs the Internet for an in-class demonstration, he connects his laptop to his iPhone using a USB cable. He essentially connects to the Internet using the smartphone as a modem. Which of the following terms best describes this configuration?

Answer 5

Explanation
OBJ 1.4 - Tethering is the use of a mobile device’s cellular data plan to provide Internet access to a laptop or PC. The PC can be tethered to the mobile by USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi. One method of doing this is to connect the laptop to the device using a USB cable, and then it can be used as a wired network connection.

Question 6

A portable hotspot

Answer 6

is a dedicated mobile device that connects to a cellular network and provides a wireless (Wi-Fi) network for a small number of users.

Question 7

A tunneling (or encapsulation) protocol

Answer 7

wraps up data from one protocol for transfer over a different type of network. For example, PPP can carry TCP/IP data over a dial-up line, enabling a remote computer to communicate with the LAN. A baseband update is the modification of the firmware of a cellular modem.

Question 8

Which of the following types of data should you transmit over UDP?

Answer 8

Explanation
OBJ 2.1 - UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless, non-guaranteed method of data communication. It does not provide any sequencing or flow control. Data sent over UDP could be lost and never resent. For this reason, UDP is not used for general web browsing or activity over HTTP/HTTPS (Ports 80 and 443). UDP is very good at delivering streaming media, though, since UDP is faster than TCP. Streaming videos or making Voice over IP (VoIP) calls are examples of use cases that rely upon UDP for their transmission.

Question 9

Which of the following ports should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring?

Answer 9

Explanation
OBJ 2.1 - Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication.

Question 10

The file transfer protocol (FTP)

Answer 10

is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21.

Question 11

The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP)

Answer 11

is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80.

Question 12

The internet message access protocol (IMAP)

Answer 12

is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.

Question 13

You are trying to select the best device to install to proactively stop outside attackers from reaching your internal network. Which of the following devices would be the BEST for you to select?

Answer 13

Explanation
OBJ 2.4 - An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a form of network security that detects and prevents identified threats. Intrusion prevention systems continuously monitor your network, looking for possible malicious incidents, and capturing information about them. An IPS can block malicious network traffic, unlike an IDS, which can only log them.

Question 14

A proxy server

Answer 14

is a server application that acts as an intermediary between a client requesting a resource and the server providing that resource.

Question 15

System Logging Protocol (Syslog)

Answer 15

uses port 514 and is a way network devices can use a standard message format to communicate with a logging server. It was designed specifically to make it easy to monitor network devices. Devices can use a Syslog agent to send out notification messages under a wide range of specific conditions.

Question 16

Which of the following statements about the 5.0 GHz wireless frequency used by Wi-Fi is correct?

Answer 16

Explanation
OBJ 2.3 - The 5.0 GHz frequency has more individual channels giving it less congestion and interference than the 2.4 GHz frequency. The 5.0 GHz frequency supports higher data rates than the 2.4 GHz frequency due to lower levels of congestion and interference.

Question 17

The longer wavelength of 2.4 GHz

Answer 17

1. makes it better at propagating through solid surfaces than the 5.0 GHz frequency.
2. The 2.4 GHz frequency has a longer wavelength than the 5.0 GHz frequency. This longer wavelength gives the 2.4 GHz frequency the ability to cover a longer range using the same power output levels.

Question 18

A cybersecurity analyst wants to install a network appliance to conduct packet capturing of the network traffic between the router and the firewall on the network. The device should not be installed in line with the network, so it must receive a copy of all traffic flowing to or from the firewall. Which of the following tools is required to meet these requirements?

Answer 18

Explanation
OBJ 2.8 - A network tap is used to create a physical connection to the network that sends a copy of every packet received to a monitoring device for capture and analysis.

Question 19

A WiFi analyzer

Answer 19

can determine the wireless network’s signal strength, the frequencies in use, and any possible radio frequency interference.

Question 20

A tone generator

Answer 20

is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively.

Question 21

A cable tester

Answer 21

is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics.

Question 22

You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the areas and see they are using Channel 1 and Channel 6. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, what channel should the third access point utilize?

Answer 22

Explanation
OBJ 2.3 - With wireless access points that run 2.4 GHz frequencies, you can only select channels between 1 and 11 in the United States. This includes 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ax networks. To prevent overlapping of the channels, you should select channels 1, 6, and 11. By doing so, you can increase the reliability and throughput of your wireless network.

Question 23

You have just finished building a Windows server, installing its operating system, updating its security patches, formatting a dedicated data partition, and creating accounts for all of the company’s employees. What is the next thing that must be configured to provide users with the ability to access the data contained on the server’s data partition?

Answer 23

OBJ 2.4 - Most of the options provided are reasonable next steps, but the question specifically states that you want to allow the users to access the server’s data. Therefore, **file sharing **is the next step to providing access to the data and folders for employees on the network. After configuring file sharing, it would be good to configure audit logging and possibly a print server. RAID storage should have been configured before installing the operating system or creating the data partition. A file server is used to host and control access to shared files and folders for the organization.

Question 24

Which port is used to connect to a POP3 server?

Answer 24

Explanation
OBJ 2.1 - The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them.

Question 25

he internet message access protocol (IMAP)

Answer 25

is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.

Question 26

The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP)

Answer 26

is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25.

Question 27

The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS)

Answer 27

is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

Question 28

Dion Training has just installed a brand new email server. Which of the following DNS records would need to be created to allow the new server to receive email on behalf of diontraining.com?

Answer 28

Explanation
OBJ 2.6 - An MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic.

Question 29

An A record

Answer 29

ssociates your domain name with an IPv4 address.

Question 30

An AAAA record

Answer 30

associates your domain name with an IPv6 address.

Question 31

A CNAME record is

Answer 31

a canonical name or alias name, which associates one domain name as an alias of another (like beta.diontraining.com and www.diontraining.com could refer to the same website using a CNAME).

Question 32

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 6.9 Gbps?

Answer 32

Explanation
1. OBJ 2.3 - The 802.11ac (Wireless AC or Wi-Fi 5) standard utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 6.9 Gbps. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds.
2. Wireless AC uses channel bonding to create a single channel of up to 160 MHz to provide additional bandwidth. Wireless AC uses multi-user multiple-input-multiple-output (MU-MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless AC also has a version called Wi-Fi 6E that supports the 6 GHz frequency instead of the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies used in Wi-Fi 6.

Question 33

The 802.11ax (Wireless AX or Wi-Fi 6) standard

Answer 33

utilizes 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies to provide wireless networking at theoretical speeds up to 9.6 Gbps. Wireless AX uses orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA) to conduct multiplexing of the frequencies transmitted and received to each client to provide additional bandwidth.

Question 34

The 802.11a (Wireless A) standard

Answer 34

utilizes a 5 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps.

Question 35

The 802.11b (Wireless B) standard

Answer 35

utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 11 Mbps.

Question 36

The 802.11g (Wireless G) standard

Answer 36

utilizes a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 54 Mbps.

Question 37

The 802.11n (Wireless N) standard utilizes

Answer 37

a 2.4 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 108 Mbps or a 5.0 GHz frequency to provide wireless networking at speeds up to 600 Mbps. Wireless N supports the use of multiple-input-multiple-output (MIMO) technology to use multiple antennas to transmit and receive data at higher speeds. Wireless N supports channel bonding by combining two 20 MHz channels into a single 40 MHz channel to provide additional bandwidth.

Question 38

Dion Training has a single switch that services every room within its offices. The switch contains 48 ports, but Jason wants to divide the ports based on functional areas, such as web development, instruction support, and administration. Which technology should Jason utilize to divide the physical switch into three logically divided areas?

Answer 38

Explanation
OBJ 2.6 - A VLAN (virtual LAN) allows a single physical switch to be divided into logical networks. VLANs are only supported on managed switches, but they allow for a different logical subnetwork address to be assigned to various ports on the switch. This requires that communications between different VLANs must go through a router, just as if you had multiple switches. A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network.

Question 39

A digital subscriber line (DSL) modem

Answer 39

is a device used to connect a computer or router to a telephone line which provides the digital subscriber line service for connection to the Internet.

Question 40

Dynamic NAT

Answer 40

is a many-to-one mapping of a private IP address or subnets inside a local area network to a public IP address or subnet outside the local area network. The traffic from different zones and subnets over trusted (inside) IP addresses in the LAN segment is sent over a single public (outside) IP address.

Question 41

You are configuring a print server on the network. Which type of IP address should you configure it with?

Answer 41

Explanation
OBJ 2.5 - A static IP address should be used for servers to ensure they are easy to find, access, and manage on the network. When configuring a static IP address, you need to include the IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server’s IP address. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly.

Question 42

A dynamic IP address is

Answer 42

configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network.

Question 43

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)

Answer 43

1. is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function.
2. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. An APIPA address is also known as a link-local address.

Question 44

Which of the following devices is installed in a communication closet to connect network wall jacks to a network switch using pre-wired RJ-45 ports?

Answer 44

Explanation
OBJ 2.2 - A patch panel is used in a structured cabling system. A computer is connected to a wall jack in this cable system and then connected to a patch panel by cabling running through the walls. A pre-wired RJ-45 port on the patch panel is then connected to a port on the switch using a straight-through or patch cable.

Question 45

A router

Answer 45

is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets.

Question 46

A wireless access point (WAP), or access point,

Answer 46

connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection.

Question 47

A hub

Answer 47

provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which can slow down the entire network.

Question 48

Which of the following is NOT categorized as wearable technology?

Answer 48

Explanation
OBJ 1.3 - Phablets are essentially large smartphones. Their size is smaller than a tablet but larger than a smartphone. Generally, smartphones that have screen sizes between 5.5” and 7” are considered phablets by manufacturers. Many phablets also come with a stylus for note-taking on the larger screen size instead of using your finger.

Question 49

Smartwatches, fitness monitors, and VR headsets

Answer 49

are all considered wearable technology or wearables. Fitness monitors are wearable mobile devices that focus on tracking the health and exercise habits of their users. A high-end smartwatch (for example, an Apple Watch) will allow the user to see their notifications, chat activity, and even make phone calls. A mid-range or low-end smartwatch can still have the ability to read your chat and notifications, but you may be unable to make phone calls from it. A virtual reality headset (VR) is a headset worn like goggles to interact with images displayed in the headset. Virtual reality is a computer-generated, simulated environment experienced via a headset connected to a PC or powered by a smartphone.

Question 50

Which of the following types of authentication devices is being used in this picture? Fingerprint?

Answer 50

In this picture, the user is being authenticated using their fingerprint, which is considered something you are or a biometric factor of authentication. Something you are refers to biometric authentication and includes fingerprints, retina scans, and facial scans.

Question 51

Something you know

Answer 51

is a knowledge factor that includes usernames, passwords, and other non-tangible facts.

Question 52

Something you have

Answer 52

is a possession factor that includes a physical token, key fob, or smart card. Somewhere you are is a location factor that includes your GPS coordinates or the location of your IP address.

Question 53

Something you do

Answer 53

is an action factor that includes the way you sign your name, the way you say a passphrase, and other actionable items.

Question 54

Jason’s cellphone company advertises that they offer unlimited data. The internet at Jason’s studio was not working today, so he turned on his mobile hotspot to upload the videos recorded today. Initially, the data transfer was occurring without any issues and Jason observed that his data was uploading at 25 Mbps. After 20-30 minutes, though, the speed of the connection dropped to only 0.125 Mbps. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this drop in speed during the upload process?

Answer 54

Explanation
OBJ 1.4 - A data cap or bandwidth cap is a service-provider imposed limitation on the amount of data transferred by a user’s account or device over the cellular network. Many smartphone plans that advertise unlimited data still have a transfer limit. Once the limit is reached, these plans will either prevent all data transfer from occurring or slow down the speeds of data transfer. For example, T-Mobile offers unlimited data in the United States, but if a user transfers over 50GB of data then their data is deprioritized and transmitted at slower speeds. Other carriers will use a data throttling method, instead, which slows down all data sent for the remainder of the customer’s billing cycle.

Question 55

A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack

Answer 55

is a denial of service attack that uses multiple compromised computers, called zombies, to launch the attack against a target. Based on the scenario, there is no evidence that the smartphone’s battery is depleted since the phone is still online and transmitting data. The smartphone is not using Wifi to transmit the data and there is no evidence that the 802.11 (Wi-Fi) radio is broken.

Question 56

Dion Training wants to replace any remaining old CRT displays used in the company with a type of screen that produces less voltage and is more energy-efficient. Additionally, the new screen type selected should not contain a backlight. What type of display technology should they select?

Answer 56

Explanation
OBJ 1.2 - An organic light-emitting diode (OLED) display is a type of LED flat panel display device that uses organic compounds that emit light when subjected to an electric current. An OLED display works without a backlight because it emits visible light. Thus, it can display deep black levels and be thinner and lighter than a liquid crystal display (LCD). In low ambient light conditions (such as a darker room), an OLED screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD, regardless of whether the LCD uses cold cathode fluorescent lamps or an LED backlight. An OLED will consume around 40% of an LCD’s power, displaying a primarily black image. For most images, it will consume 60–80% of the power of an LCD.

Question 57

A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel

Answer 57

s a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. The LCD panel is backlight by a cold cathode fluorescent (CCFL) bulb. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well.

Question 58

A light-emitting diode (LED) display

Answer 58

is an LCD panel that uses a LED backlight instead of a CCFL backlight to provide its light source.

Question 59

A plasma display

Answer 59

is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.

Question 60

Which of the following settings must be enabled on a mobile device to embed the GPS position into a photograph when using your device’s camera?

Answer 60

Explanation
OBJ 1.4 - Location services enable the device to know its position using its internal GPS receiver or its approximate location using its cellular radio. To embed the GPS position into a photograph, location services must be enabled.

Question 61

Mobile device management (MDM) software suites

Answer 61

are designed to manage the use of smartphones and tablets within an enterprise.

Question 62

Full device encryption (FDE)

Answer 62

is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device’s internal storage. The encryption key is stored in a protected portion of the device and can be used to remotely wipe the device if it is lost or stolen.

Question 63

A security profile

Answer 63

is used to apply different permissions and functionality to an employee’s mobile device and is usually configured by an MDM.

Question 64

ou have been asked to set up the corporate email on several mobile devices for Dion Training’s employees. The employees will use their mobile devices to check their email when out of the office, but they will also need to check their email from their desktop computers. Which of the following email protocols should you configure to allow the employees to receive their mail and maintain the read/unread status across all of their devices?

Answer 64

Explanation
OBJ 1.4 - You should configure IMAP because it will leave the email on the server and allow for synchronizing the mail to all devices, including each email’s read state.
2. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.

Question 65

If you configure POP3,

Answer 65

1. the mail is downloaded to the device and removed the mail from the server’s mailbox by default.
2. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them.

Question 66

SMTP

Answer 66

is used to send emails, not receive them.
2. is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25.

Question 67

HTTPS

Answer 67

is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails.
2. is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

Question 68

Dion Training wants to order some new laptops for their video editors. The video editors want to ensure the display has the best color accuracy when using a 60 Hz refresh rate. Which of the following types of displays should the company purchase to meet this requirement?

Answer 68

Explanation
OBJ 1.2 - An in-plane switching (IPS) LCD panel uses technology designed to resolve the quality issues inherent in TN panel technology, including strong viewing angle dependence and low-quality color reproduction. IPS displays have great color accuracy, but they do not support higher refresh rates sought after by gamers.

Question 69

A twisted nematic (TN) LCD panel

Answer 69

uses technology where the panel is black when no electric current is running through the liquid crystal cells because the cells align themselves in a twisted state. When an electric current is applied, the liquid crystal cells untwist, allowing light to pass through, resulting in a white display screen. TN displays can be made with high refresh rates of 120 Hz or 144 Hz which makes them popular with gamers.

Question 70

A vertical alignment (VA) LCD panel

Answer 70

uses technology designed to have liquid crystals lay perpendicular to the glass substrate when power is removed and in a vertical position when voltage is applied. This allows light to move through the liquid pixels when voltage is applied and the image is then produced. VA displays are a good middle-ground between IPS and TN panel displays.

Question 71

A plasma display

Answer 71

s a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.

Question 72

Which of the following form factors provides a mini card interface used to connect a laptop’s SSD at higher bus speeds than SATA?

Answer 72

Explanation
OBJ 1.1 - M.2 s a new set of form factors for mini card interfaces. An M.2 SSD provides a direct interface with the PCI Express bus to provide higher bus speeds than a SATA connection. M.2 adapters come in four different sizes based on their length. The one chosen depends on your model of laptop and the space available within the case. The 80mm variety is the most common one used in modern laptops.

Question 73

A traditional laptop hard drive usually comes in

Answer 73

either the 2.5” form factor or the 1.8” form factor. When a 1.8” form factor is used, the drive is connected to the laptop using a Micro SATA connector since a regular SATA connector will not fit due to the connector’s larger size. A 3.5” drive is only used in desktops and some networked file servers.

Question 74

You are working on a customer’s laptop. The image on the display suddenly becomes very dark and hard to see. You attempt to adjust the brightness and contrast of the laptop’s display using the special function keys, but this doesn’t brighten the display much. You pull out a bright flashlight and can see the image displayed a little better when using it. Which of the following components is MOST likely faulty and needs to be replaced?

Answer 74

Explanation
OBJ 1.2 - The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop’s display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight.

Question 75

The digitizer

Answer 75

is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touch screen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input.

Question 76

A liquid crystal display (LCD) panel

Answer 76

is a type of display technology where the image is made up of liquid crystal cells controlled using electrical charges. LCD panels are used on laptops and have replaced CRT monitors as the main type of computer display screen for desktops, as well.

Question 77

A graphics processing unit (GPU)

Answer 77

is a microprocessor used on dedicated video adapter cards or within a CPU with integrated graphics capability to handle the mathematical calculations required to create immersive and 3D graphics.

Question 78

You are at the grocery store. At the checkout, you slide your credit card through the payment terminal and then sign your name to authorize the charge. Which of the following did you MOST likely use to make this purchase?

Answer 78

Explanation
OBJ 1.3 - Many stores use a signature pad to digitally capture your handwritten signature when using a credit card to pay for your purchase. A signature capture pad is a device that electronically captures a person’s handwritten signature on an LCD touchpad using a pen-type stylus. Once captured, digital signatures can be imported into and used with most ID software and security programs. Signatures can also be digitally stored for future use.

Question 79

Near-field communication (NFC)

Answer 79

is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another.

Question 80

Bluetooth

Answer 80

is a wireless technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific, and medical radio bands from 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz and building a personal area network (PAN). Bluetooth is commonly used when connecting wireless devices like mice, trackpads, headphones, and other devices.

Question 81

A touchpad

Answer 81

is an input device used on most laptops to replace a mouse. The touchpad allows the user to control the cursor by moving a finger over the pad’s surface.

Question 82

Which of the following accounts should you set up to use Apple’s online cloud storage and file synchronization service for macOS and iOS devices?

Answer 82

Explanation
OBJ 1.4 - Apple’s online cloud storage and file synchronization service for macOS and iOS devices is called iCloud. The service provides a centralized location for mail, contacts, calendar, photos, notes, reminders, and files online.

Question 83

Apple’s iTunes

Answer 83

is a media player, media library, Internet radio broadcaster, mobile device management utility, and the client app for the iTunes Store. It is not a cloud-based solution for synchronization.

Question 84

Google Workspace

Answer 84

is a collection of cloud computing, productivity and collaboration tools, software, and products developed and marketed by Google.

Question 85

Microsoft 365, formerly Office 365,

Answer 85

is a line of subscription services offered by Microsoft which adds to and includes the Microsoft Office product line.

Question 86

Which of the following laptop displays requires an inverter?

Answer 86

Explanation
OBJ 1.2 - An inverter supplies the correct AC voltage to the LCD’s fluorescent backlight from the laptop’s DC power circuits. An LCD (TFT) with fluorescent backlight has been the standard display technology for the last few years. The backlight is a fluorescent bulb that illuminates the image, making it bright and clear.

Question 87

A light-emitting diode (LED) display

Answer 87

is an LCD panel that uses a LED backlight instead of a CCFL backlight to provide its light source.

Question 88

An organic light-emitting diode (OLED) display

Answer 88

is a type of LED flat panel display device that uses organic compounds that emit light when subjected to an electric current. An OLED display works without a backlight because it emits visible light. Thus, it can display deep black levels and be thinner and lighter than a liquid crystal display (LCD). In low ambient light conditions (such as in a dark room), an OLED screen can achieve a higher contrast ratio than an LCD, regardless of whether the LCD uses cold cathode fluorescent lamps or an LED backlight.

Question 89

A plasma display

Answer 89

is a type of flat panel display that uses small cells containing plasma with ionized gas that responds to electric fields. Plasma displays create excessive heat and are not as energy efficient as an LCD, LED, or OLED display.

Question 90

Your office is located in a small office park, and you are installing a new wireless network access point for your employees. The companies in the adjacent offices are using Wireless B/G/N routers in the 2.4 GHz spectrum. Your security system uses the 5 GHz spectrum, so you have purchased a 2.4 GHz wireless access point to ensure you don’t cause interference with the security system. To maximize the distance between channels, which set of channels should you configure for use on your access points?

Answer 90

Explanation
OBJ 2.5 - Wireless access points should always be configured with channels 1, 6, or 11 to maximize the distance between channels and prevent overlaps. Each channel on the 2.4 GHz spectrum is 20 MHz wide. The channel centers are separated by 5 MHz, and the entire spectrum is only 100 MHz wide. This means the 11 channels have to squeeze into the 100 MHz available, and in the end, overlap. Channels 1, 6, and 11, however, are far enough from each other on the 2.4GHz band that they have sufficient space between their channel centers and do not overlap.

Question 91

You just configured your iPhone to connect to your car’s stereo over Bluetooth to play your favorite podcasts while driving to work. What type of network did you create between your iPhone and your car?

Answer 91

Explanation
OBJ 2.7 - A personal area network (PAN) is a close-range network that is usually based on Bluetooth or NFC for communications between personal devices, such as smartphones, laptops, printers, and other peripheral devices.

Question 92

A local area network (LAN)

Answer 92

is a network where all the nodes or hosts participating in the network are directly connected with cables or short-range wireless media.

Question 93

A wide area network (WAN)

Answer 93

is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits.

Question 94

A storage area network (SAN)

Answer 94

is a dedicated, independent high-speed network that interconnects and delivers shared pools of storage devices to multiple servers. A storage area network often uses Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE), Fibre Channel, or Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) connections to achieve the speeds necessary to support SAN operations.

Question 95

Which of the following network types would be used to create a dedicated, independent high-speed network to interconnect and share pools of storage devices to multiple servers?

Answer 95

Explanation
OBJ 2.7 - A storage area network (SAN) is a dedicated, independent high-speed network that interconnects and delivers shared pools of storage devices to multiple servers. A storage area network often uses Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE), Fibre Channel, or Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) connections to achieve the speeds necessary to support SAN operations.

Question 96

A wireless LAN (WLAN)

Answer 96

onnects computers within a small and specific geographical area using the 802.11 protocols for their wireless connections.

Question 97

A metropolitan area network (MAN)

Answer 97

is a computer network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic region of the size of a metropolitan or city area.

Question 98

A wide area network (WAN)

Answer 98

is a network that spans multiple geographic locations such as the internet. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits.

Question 99

What is the term for a system that is no longer directly supported by its vendor?

Answer 99

Explanation
OBJ 2.4 - A legacy system is no longer directly supported by its vendor. Networks often need to retain hosts running DOS or legacy versions of Windows (8.1 and earlier) or old-style mainframe computers to run services that are too complex or expensive to migrate to a more modern platform. Legacy systems usually work well for what they do (which is why they don’t get prioritized for replacement), but they represent very severe risks in terms of security vulnerabilities.

Question 100

Unified threat management (UTM) devices

Answer 100

are network appliances that provide all the security functions of a firewall, malware scanner, intrusion detection, vulnerability scanner, data loss prevention, content filtering, and other security devices into a single device or appliance.

Question 101

Patch systems are

Answer 101

used to conduct patch management across your organization’s network.

Question 102

An embedded system

Answer 102

is a computer system that is designed to perform a specific, dedicated function, such as a microcontroller in a medical drip or components in a control system managing a water treatment plant.

Question 103

Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device?

Answer 103

Explanation
OBJ 2.2 - Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets.

Question 104

The 802.3at (PoE+)

Answer 104

standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers.

Question 105

The 802.11ac standard

Answer 105

defines a 5 GHz wireless networking standard.

Question 106

The 802.11s standard

Answer 106

defines the usage of wireless mesh technology.

Question 107

Which of the following type of hard disk drives would be installed in a low-end office desktop?

Answer 107

Explanation
OBJ 3.3 - Hard drive performance is limited based on the number of revolutions per minute (RPM) the disk can spin. If a disk can spin faster, it can retrieve or store data on the disk quicker. For low-end office desktops, using a 5,400 rpm hard disk drive to save money is acceptable. For a high-performance gaming computer, a 15,000 rpm hard disk drive or an SSD should be used instead.

Question 108

You are setting up a cable television in a customer’s home. Which connector type should be used to connect the TV tuner to the wall jack when using a coaxial cable?

Answer 108

Explanation
OBJ 3.1 - The F type connector is used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals.

Question 109

An RJ-45 connector

Answer 109

is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable.

Question 110

A DB-9 connector

Answer 110

is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable.

Question 111

A ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector

Answer 111

is used to terminate a fiber optic cable.

Question 112

You have been asked to recommend a RAID for use in a video editing workstation. The workstation must be configured to allow the highest speed operation and use 100% of the available drive free space. The workstation has no requirement for redundancy within this configuration. Which configuration do you recommend?

Answer 112

Explanation
OBJ 3.3 - RAID 0 (disk striping) is the process of dividing a body of data into blocks and spreading the data blocks across multiple storage devices, such as hard disks or solid-state drives (SSDs), in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) group. Unlike other RAID levels, RAID 0 does not have parity or redundancy. It will provide faster performance and speed, as well as use 100% of the available drive space. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks.

Question 113

A RAID 1 provides

Answer 113

mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks.

Question 114

A RAID 5 provides

Answer 114

block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Question 115

A RAID 10 combines

Answer 115

disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks.

Question 116

A customer wants to build a home server that would allow their family to stream locally stored video files on a home network. The home server should also have fault tolerance to ensure the server’s data is not inadvertently lost in the event of a hard disk drive failure. Which of the following configurations would BEST meet these requirements? (Select TWO)

Answer 116

Explanation
OBJ 3.3 - In this scenario, **a gigabit NIC **will help handle the heavy network load created by sharing large files over the network. Data protection needs to use a RAID 1, RAID 5, or RAID 10 configuration to protect against any potential data loss caused by a single hard disk drive failure. RAID 5 is the most commonly used RAID for servers. A RAID 5 requires a minimum of 3 hard disk drives and can continue to operate as long as 2 of the 3 drives are functional.

Question 117

Which of the following is used to connect Cat 5e or above networks in an MDF or IDF?

Answer 117

Explanation
OBJ 3.1 - A 110 punchdown block is a type of punch block used to terminate runs of on-premises wiring in a structured cabling system. The designation 110 is also used to describe a type of insulation displacement contact (IDC) connector used to terminate twisted pair cables when using a punch-down tool similar to the older 66 punch down block. A 110 punchdown block provides more spacing between the terminals and is designed for Cat 5 networks to eliminate crosstalk between the cables.

Question 118

F type connectors

Answer 118

are used for coaxial cables, not Cat 5e network cables.

Question 119

RJ-11

Answer 119

is used to terminate telephone lines, not Cat 5e network cables.

Question 120

Which of the following modes of operation will allow a motherboard to create two independent 64-bit pathways to achieve 128-bits of data transfer per transaction from the memory to the CPU?

Answer 120

Explanation
OBJ 3.2 - Dual-channel memory is a memory controller with two primary pathways through the bus to the CPU to transfer 128-bits of data in each transaction. Single-channel memory is any memory using one 64-bit bus between the CPU and the RAM. Triple-channel memory is any memory using three 64-bit buses between the CPU and the RAM. Quad-channel memory is any memory using four 64-bit buses between the CPU and the RAM.

Question 121

Dion Training is installing a new CAT 6 network for their office building. The technician ran out of connectors for the cables and sent their assistant to the store to buy more. Which of the following types of connectors should they purchase to terminate the CAT 6 cables?

Answer 121

Explanation
OBJ 3.1 - A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector.

Question 122

An RJ-11 connector

Answer 122

is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.

Question 123

A fiber optic cable normally uses

Answer 123

an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector.

Question 124

The F-type connector

Answer 124

is used with coaxial cables.

Question 125

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

Answer 125

Explanation
OBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the audio connector on this motherboard. This is used to connect the CD/DVD audio cable from the drive to the motherboard for digital audio. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Question 126

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

Answer 126

Explanation
OBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the PCIe x4 slot on this motherboard. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Question 127

Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network?

Answer 127

Explanation
OBJ 3.6 - The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers. Networks do not have USB connections, so you need to select a network connection type like RJ-45 to use instead.

Question 128

What type of connector is used to terminate a coaxial cable?

Answer 128

Explanation
OBJ 3.1 - The F type connector is used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. An RJ-45 connector is used to terminate a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable. A DB-9 connector is used to terminate an RS-232 serial cable. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.

Question 129

Jennifer just moved from France to the United States. She unpacks her computer and plugs it into the wall using a power adapter to ensure the plug connects properly. When she tries to power on the computer, the screen remains blank, she doesn’t hear the fans spinning, and nothing appears to be happening. What is MOST likely the problem?

Answer 129

Explanation
OBJ 3.5 - It is always important to ensure the correct power supply input setting is used for your computer based on the location in which you are using it. In Europe, the nominal voltage of a power outlet is 220V. Therefore, Jennifer’s computer is probably still selected for a power supply input setting of 220V. In the United States, the nominal voltage is 115V. Therefore, Jennifer needs to flip the power configuration switch on the power supply’s input selector from 220V to 115V to operate properly. If the computer was incorrectly set to 115V and plugged into a 220V outlet, the power supply could be destroyed or catch fire.

Question 130

When using a laser printer, what is used to transfer the image to a piece of paper?

Answer 130

Explanation
OBJ 3.7 - Toner is used by a laser printer to transfer the image to a piece of paper.

Question 131

Ink

Answer 131

is used by an inkjet printer.

Question 132

Filament

Answer 132

is used by a 3-D printer to create its final design.

Question 133

Ribbon

Answer 133

is used by an impact printer.

Question 134

Which type of RAID should be used for a virtualization server that must have the fastest speed and highest redundancy level?

Answer 134

Explanation
OBJ 3.3 - RAID 10 offers the fastest speed, best reliability, and highest redundancy but is more costly as the overall disk storage will be greatly reduced. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks.

Question 135

A RAID 0 provides

Answer 135

disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks.

Question 136

A RAID 1

Answer 136

provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks.

Question 137

A RAID 5 provides

Answer 137

block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Question 138

What printer concept is a page description language that produces faster outputs at the expense of quality?

Answer 138

Explanation
OBJ 3.6 - Both the printer control language (PCL) and PostScript (PS) are page description languages, but PCL produces faster outputs that are of lower quality. The printer control language (PCL) is a page description language used to tell printers how to properly layout and print the contents of a document on a page. PCL is a common printing language that is supported by many different printer manufacturers.

Question 139

PostScript

Answer 139

(PS) is a page description language used in the electronic publishing and desktop publishing business. PCL is faster to print than PS. PS is slower but produces higher quality outputs.

Question 140

The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP)

Answer 140

is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport.

Question 141

The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol

Answer 141

is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP.

Question 142

A network technician needs to connect two switches. The technician needs a link between them that is capable of handling 10 Gbps of throughput. Which of the following media would BEST meet this requirement?

Answer 142

Explanation
OBJ 3.1 - To achieve 10 Gbps, you should use Cat 6a, Cat 7, Cat 8, or a fiber optic cable. Since fiber optic was the only option listed here, it is the best answer.

Question 143

A Cat 5e

Answer 143

can only operate up to 100 meters at 1 Gbps.

Question 144

A Cat 3 cable

Answer 144

can only operate at 100 meters at 10 Mbps.

Question 145

A traditional ethernet coaxial cable network can only operate at

Answer 145

10 Mbps, but newer MoCA coaxial ethernet connections can reach speeds of up to 2.5 Gbps.

Question 146

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

Answer 146

Explanation
OBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the PCIe x1 slots. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. PCIe x1 slots are usually used for external input/output devices such as network interface cards. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Question 147

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area?

Answer 147

Explanation
OBJ 3.4 - The area circled indicates the reset jumper on this motherboard. A reset jumper is a small plastic block with a metal connection inside. To reset the motherboard’s BIOS, you would connect the jumper over this area to make an electrical connection between the two pins. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Question 148

What type of connector is most often used to connect to an older smartphone?

Answer 148

Explanation
OBJ 3.1 - micro USB is a miniaturized version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) interface developed for connecting compact and mobile devices such as smartphones, MP3 players, GPS devices, photo printers, and digital cameras. Micro USB connectors exist or have existed in three forms: micro A, micro B, and micro USB 3.

Question 149

Mini USB

Answer 149

was introduced with USB 2.0 and was used with digital cameras and early tablets. Mini USB is not commonly used in modern devices.

Question 150

Recently, though, the industry moved to the USB Type C (USB-C) connector

Answer 150

for smartphones and many other devices as it is faster and easier to connect. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction.

Question 151

USB Type B

Answer 151

is a large form factor USB connector usually reserved for connecting to older printers and scanners.

Question 152

Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as K?

Answer 152

Explanation
OBJ 3.1 - This port is the audio cluster on the rear of this motherboard. This contains the audio inputs and outputs in mini-jack format. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard’s rear port cluster by sight.

Question 153

Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a CAT 5e network cable?

Answer 153

Explanation
OBJ 3.1 - RJ-45 refers to a cable termination specification that specifies physical male and female connectors and the pin assignments of data jacks that can be used for networks and VOIP telephone cables. RJ-45 is an 8-pin/8-position plug or jack commonly used to connect computers onto Ethernet-based local area networks (LAN) and consists of two wiring schemes: T568A and T568B.

Question 154

A Molex connector

Answer 154

is used to provide power to internal components of a computer from the power supply.

Question 155

Which of the following types of connectors are used to terminate a coaxial cable for your cable modem?

Answer 155

Explanation
OBJ 3.1 - F type is the connector used with coaxial cables. Both RG-6 and RG-59 are cable types used for coaxial cable connections. RG-6 cabling is recommended for your Cable TV, satellite, TV antennas, or broadband internet. RG-59 cabling is generally better for most CCTV systems and other analog video signals. A copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable is usually terminated with an RJ-45 connector. An RS-232 serial cable is normally terminated with a DB-9 connector. A fiber optic cable normally uses an ST, SC, LC, or MTRJ connector.

Question 156

During a disaster recovery, which of the following statements is true?

Answer 156

Explanation
OBJ 4.1 - A virtual machine can usually be restored much faster than a physical server. Physical servers must be modified to fit the right drivers for the disk drives, NIC, and other necessary components whenever they must be rebuilt after a crash. Often, a new physical server will also be required to replace a faulty one, and then the right drivers are needed to ensure a smooth transition. Conversely, a virtual machine can be recreated using another instance, clone, or restoration from a backup in much less time. Therefore, the downtime associated with virtual machines and their restoral is much lower.

Question 157

Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a backup solution that can backup non-sensitive data in the most cost-efficient way. The company already has an Office 365 subscription for each employee. The employees should be able to backup and access their data from anywhere using their laptops, smartphones, or tablets. Which of the following solutions should you recommend?

Answer 157

Explanation
OBJ 4.1 - OneDrive is a Microsoft product that comes as part of the Office 365 subscription package. The other options can also provide the capabilities requested, but there would be a separate cost to utilize them. Therefore, you should recommend OneDrive in this scenario. OneDrive can utilize the storage that is easy to access from a laptop, smartphone, or tablet while the employees are away from their offices.

Question 158

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Answer 158

is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions.

Question 159

You are installing Windows 2019 on a rack-mounted server and hosting multiple virtual machines within the physical server. You just finished the installation and now want to begin creating and provisioning the virtual machines. Which of the following should you utilize to allow you to create and provision virtual machines?

Answer 159

OBJ 4.2 - A hypervisor, also known as a virtual machine monitor, is a process that creates and runs virtual machines (VMs). A hypervisor allows one host computer to support multiple guest VMs by virtually sharing its resources, like memory and processing. To create and provision virtual machines within the Windows 2019 operating system, you can use a Type II hypervisor like VMWare or VirtualBox.

Question 160

Disk Management

Answer 160

is a system utility in Windows that enables you to perform advanced storage tasks. Device Manager is a component of the Microsoft Windows operating system that allows users to view and control the hardware attached to the computer.

Question 161

Remote Desktop Services, known as Terminal Services in Windows Server 2008 and earlier,

Answer 161

is one of the components of Microsoft Windows that allow a user to take control of a remote computer or virtual machine over a network connection.

Question 162

You have been asked by Dion Training to build a specialized computer that will be used exclusively for running numerous virtual machines simultaneously for their lab environment. Which of the following should you install to BEST meet the company’s needs? (Select TWO)

Answer 162

Explanation
OBJ 4.2 - According to CompTIA, the two main things you need to include for a dedicated virtualization workstation are (1) maximum RAM and (2) multiple CPU cores. Based on the options provided, you should pick the 64 GB of DDR4 (maximum RAM) and the Intel i9 with 8-cores (multiple processor cores) for this workstation’s configuration. The CPU should support virtualization and be a multicore processor. The memory should be fast and contain at least 16 GB of RAM to host numerous VMs effectively.

Question 163

What type of cloud service provides instant access to servers and switches, quickly provisioned, and available for management over the internet?

Answer 163

Explanation
OBJ 4.1 - Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is an instant computing infrastructure, provisioned, and managed over the internet. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. IaaS quickly scales up and down with demand, letting you pay only for what you use. It helps you avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing your physical servers and other data center infrastructure. Each resource is offered as a separate service component, and you only need to rent a particular one for as long as you need it. A cloud computing service provider manages the infrastructure while you purchase, install, configure, and manage your software.

Question 164

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

Answer 164

is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes.

Question 165

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Answer 165

is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions.

Question 166

Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides

Answer 166

a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Question 167

Which of the following is a security concern when dealing with virtual machines?

Answer 167

Explanation
OBJ 4.2 - The process of developing, testing, and deploying images brings about the first major security concern with the virtual platform itself. This is the problem of rogue VMs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization.

Question 168

VM sprawl

Answer 168

The uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs. After all, it is a lot easier to add a guest image to a server than it is to plug a new hardware server into the network.

Question 169

Resource pooling

Answer 169

refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use.

Question 170

Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP)

Answer 170

is the processing of programs by multiple processors that share a common operating system and memory.

Question 171

A virtual network interface card (vNIC)

Answer 171

represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs.

Question 172

You are building a virtualization environment to practice your penetration testing skills. This will require that you install several vulnerable Linux distributions as VMs. The VMs need to have access to a virtualized network but should not communicate with the host operating system or the internet. Which of the following types of network connections should you configure for each VM?

Answer 172

Explanation
OBJ 4.2 - The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host.

Question 173

If you select internal,

Answer 173

it can communicate between the host and the VMs.

Question 174

If you select external,

Answer 174

the VMs would have internet access.

Question 175

If you select localhost,

Answer 175

each VM could only communicate with itself.

Question 176

Which of the following cloud services should an organization choose in order to deliver virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet on a per-user license basis?

Answer 176

Explanation
OBJ 4.1 - Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud computing offering where a service provider delivers virtual desktops to end-users over the Internet, licensed with a per-user subscription. DaaS is often combined with Virtual Desktop Infrastructure.

Question 177

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

Answer 177

is a complete development and deployment environment in the cloud, with resources that enable you to deliver everything from simple cloud-based apps to sophisticated, cloud-enabled enterprise applications.

Question 178

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Answer 178

is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage, and networking resources on-demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis.

Question 179

Software as a Service (SaaS) allows

Answer 179

users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring, and office tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS provides a complete software solution that you purchase on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider.

Question 180

Which type of cloud service provides users with an end-to-end application solution for a recurring monthly or yearly fee?

Answer 180

Explanation
OBJ 4.1 - Software as a service (or SaaS) is a way of delivering applications over the Internet as a service. Instead of installing and maintaining software, you access it via the Internet, freeing yourself from complex software and hardware management. It allows a company to pay a monthly or yearly fee to receive access to the software without managing the software locally within their own network. For example, many small businesses use Shopify to create an online ecommerce store that is classified as a SaaS product. Other examples include G Suite, Office 365, or Adobe Creative Cloud.

Question 181

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

Answer 181

is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes.

Question 182

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Answer 182

is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center.

Question 183

Desktop as a Service (DaaS)

Answer 183

provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

Question 184

Which of the following resources is used by virtual machines to communicate with other virtual machines on the same network but prevents them from communicating with resources on the internet?

Answer 184

Explanation
OBJ 4.2 - Most virtual machines running on a workstation will have their own virtual internal network to communicate within the virtual environment while preventing them from communicating with the outside world. You may also configure a shared network address for the virtual machine to have the same IP address as the physical host that it is running on. This usually relies on network address translation to communicate from the virtual environment (inside) to the physical world (outside/internet). If you are communicating internally in the virtual network, there is no need for DNS or an external network.

Question 185

Jonni’s laptop works perfectly when sitting at his desk. Whenever Jonni moves his laptop from his desk to the conference room, though, the laptop unexpectedly powers off. A technician examines the laptop and does not smell any unusual odors coming from it. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the laptop to lose power when moved?

Answer 185

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - If the laptop loses power when moved, this is most likely a loose battery connection. Since the laptop operates without any issues when on the user’s desk, it indicates that the connection comes loose during movement.

Question 186

If the laptop had inadequate airflow,

Answer 186

it intermittently shuts down at random times and not only when moved.

Question 187

If the laptop had a swollen capacitor,

Answer 187

he technician would smell a foul odor coming from the motherboard.

Question 188

If the CMOS battery has failed,

Answer 188

then it would cause the laptop to lose its date/time settings but the laptop would not shut down intermittently.

Question 189

You just replaced a failed motherboard in a corporate workstation and returned it to service. About an hour later, the customer complained that the workstation is randomly shutting down and rebooting itself. You suspect the memory module may be corrupt, and you perform a memory test, but the memory passes all of your tests. Which of the following should you attempt NEXT in troubleshooting this problem?

Answer 189

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - If a workstation overheats, it will shut down or reboot itself to protect the processor. This can occur if the case fans are clogged with dust or become unplugged. By checking and reconnecting the case fans, the technician can rule out an overheating issue causing this problem. Since the memory was already tested successfully, it does not need to be removed and reseated, or replaced with ECC modules. The BIOS is not the issue since the computer booted up into Windows successfully before rebooting.

Question 190

A technician is building a new computer for Dion Training. The technician installs the motherboard, processor, memory, hard drives, and case fans, and then they attempt to connect the cables to the appropriate connections. When the technician attempts to power on the system, the fans do not spin, the hard drive doesn’t spin, and the motherboard’s LEDs lights remain unlit. Which of the following did the technician likely forget to connect?

Answer 190

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - Based on the scenario, it is most likely that the technician forgot to connect the motherboard’s 24-pin power cable. If the motherboard power cable was not connected, then the motherboard’s LED would not be lit. The case fans will not spin either since they receive their power through the motherboard, as well. Without the connection to the power, the computer couldn’t complete its POST. The hard drive will not spin since it receives the wake-up command from the motherboard through a SATA data cable. If the motherboard’s 24-pin power cable were connected, but the SATA 15-pin power cable hadn’t been connected, the LED would have lit up, but the SATA would not have connected. If the motherboard’s 24-pin power cable were connected, but the case fan’s 4-pin power cable hadn’t been connected, the fan wouldn’t have spun, but the motherboard’s LED would have lit up.

Question 191

Brenda’s workstation continually fails to keep accurate time. She manually sets the date and time within Windows, but the next day the time is inaccurate again. When she leaves work at the end of the day, Brenda shuts down her workstation per company policy. The next morning when she boots up the computer, she must reset the time again. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the inaccurate time on the workstation?

Answer 191

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - If the CMOS battery has failed, then it would cause the workstation to lose its date/time settings. When a system is powered down, the internal CMOS battery on the motherboard is used to maintain the date/time.

Question 192

If the desktop had inadequate airflow,

Answer 192

it intermittently shut down at random times.

Question 193

If a desktop has a swollen capacitor,

Answer 193

then a technician will smell a foul odor coming from the motherboard.

Question 194

A swollen capacitor indicates

Answer 194

a motherboard failure that can lead to strange issues occurring on the desktop.

Question 195

If the desktop loses power when moved,

Answer 195

this is most likely a loose power cable.

Question 196

Natalie’s computer is having difficulty accessing websites. She reports that she started receiving pop-ups on her screen before this connectivity problem began. You search the computer and find a piece of malware installed, so you remove it. You also do a full virus scan of the computer, ensure her computer has the most up-to-date virus definitions and is set the anti-virus software to automatically scan the computer every night at 2 am. As you return the computer to Natalie, you verify that she can now successfully access the websites again. What is the NEXT step you should perform according to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Answer 196

Explanation
OBJ 5.1 - There are 6 steps in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology: (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution, (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures, (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes. Based on the question, you just finished performing step 5, so the NEXT step to perform is step 6.

Question 197

Susan is troubleshooting a workstation that has multiple S.M.A.R.T. errors. When the system is booted up, she hears a loud clicking noise and the operating system fails to load. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem with this workstation?

Answer 197

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - Loud clicking noises are usually indicative of a hard drive failing or a dirty cooling fan. Since the S.M.A.R.T. errors were also present, this indicates a hard drive failure. Additionally, the operating system failing to load is another indication that there is a hard drive issue.

Question 198

If the case fans or CPU fan were failing or causing an issue,

Answer 198

the system would overheat and intermittently reboot.

Question 199

If the installed memory modules were mismatched,

Answer 199

a BIOS error or POST error would be generated.

Question 200

A client is attempting to power on their computer, but it keeps booting to the incorrect hard drive. Which of the following actions should you perform to attempt to fix this problem?

Answer 200

Explanation
OBJ 5.3 - If the system still fails to boot up from the correct drive, then go into the BIOS/UEFI setup program and check the existing boot order settings. If they are in the wrong order, reconfigure them to ensure the usual boot device is listed first in the list and then restart the computer. There is no need to unplug the external hard disks since you can simply change the boot order in the BIOS.

Question 201

The F8 key will

Answer 201

allow the user to choose to boot into Windows in regular or safe mode. This worked by default in Windows 7, 8, and 8.1, but need to be enabled before it will work in Windows 10. The technician cannot configure the boot order in Windows without first booting into Windows from the hard drive, so the technician would still need to reconfigure the boot order in the BIOS/UEFI first.

Question 202

A user is complaining that they are hearing a grinding noise coming from their workstation. You begin to troubleshoot the issue and determine that it is not an issue with the hard drive but is instead caused by the power supply’s fan. Which of the following actions would BEST solve this issue?

Answer 202

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - If the fan in the power supply is faulty, replace the entire power supply. You should never attempt to repair or fix a broken power supply or broken power supply cooling fan due to the power supply’s high voltage electrical components. When a fan creates a grinding sounds, this is evidence of an impending failure and the device needs to be replaced. Technicians should never open a power supply or replace any of its internal components, therefore the entire power supply should be replaced in this scenario.

Question 203

A client reports that their workstation is continually crashing when using certain applications on their Windows system. The system will stop working and display a BSOD error on the screen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this BSOD error?

Answer 203

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - The Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) is a “stop screen” that appears when the Windows operating system detects a critical error and literally stops the system so that the error doesn’t cause any loss of data. All operating systems have some form of “stop screen,” but the Windows version got the name BSOD since it was a screen with a full blue background and white text containing troubleshooting information and error codes. On a Mac (OS X) system, the BSOD is replaced by the “Pinwheel of Death,” which is an endlessly spinning mouse pointer displayed on the screen. This usually occurs due to a memory failure or memory corruption in the system.

Question 204

A workstation is having intermittent issues and continues to receive system errors or freeze. You believe that the problem is being caused by the workstation’s motherboard, not getting the proper amount of power to it, and you want to perform a test to confirm your theory. Which of the following tools should you use to determine if the proper amount of power is being supplied to the motherboard?

Answer 204

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - A multimeter can measure the voltage, amperage, and resistance of a circuit. A multimeter can be a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument that can measure electricity with a high degree of accuracy. Using a multimeter, you can determine the exact voltage being supplied to the motherboard from the workstation’s power supply.

Question 205

A POST card

Answer 205

is a plug-in diagnostic interface card that displays progress and error codes generated during the power-on self-test of a computer.

Question 206

A loopback plug

Answer 206

is used to test a port. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software.

Question 207

A cable tester

Answer 207

is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics.

Question 208

Which of the following is NOT an example of another name for a Crash Screen?

Answer 208

Explanation
OBJ 5.3 - DoS stands for Denial of Service. It is a form of cyber attack, not a name for a crash screen. Crash screens are referred to by different names based on the operating system. BSOD (Blue Screen of Death) is used for Windows. The Pinwheel of Death is used for MacOS. Kernel Panic is used for Linux.

Question 209

You are troubleshooting a Dell laptop for a customer, and you see a blank screen during boot up. You decide to plug in an external monitor to the laptop and reboot it again, but the blank screen persists. What should you attempt next?

Answer 209

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - Many laptops have a series of keystrokes such as FN + F8 to switch from the internal display to an externally connected screen. Since the internal display is not working, rebooting again or trying to navigate the BIOS without seeing the screen would be ineffective. Instead, trying the function key toggle that switches to an external monitor may resolve the issue temporarily while you begin to look for a long-term solution. Different manufacturers use different keystrokes, but FN + F8 is an example of the keystroke used in Dell laptops.

Question 210

What is the sixth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Answer 210

Explanation
OBJ 5.1 - For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Question 211

A customer is complaining that their workstation is beginning to run slowly when many applications are opened simultaneously. Which of the following upgrades would you recommend to solve this problem?

Answer 211

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - In this scenario, we want to add more RAM. RAM is the temporary storage used for running applications. By adding more RAM, you can speed up the system when running applications simultaneously and prevent reading to the slower disk drives (SSD or HDD).

Question 212

Replacing an SSD with an HDD

Answer 212

would slow down the system.

Question 213

Replacing the 802.11g card with an 802.11ac card

Answer 213

would help if the customer complained of slow network connectivity, but that is not the case in this scenario.

Question 214

There is no need to perform a chkdsk on their SSD unless

Answer 214

there is an error stating that there are errors in the file system.

Question 215

You have been dispatched to a customer’s office to help them fix their printer. You have asked the customer what the issue is, and the customer states, “The printer will not work.” You ask a few follow-up questions to understand the situation better and ask if any error messages were displayed. Which of the following steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology best describes the actions you are currently taking?

Answer 215

Explanation
OBJ 5.1 - Based on the description in the question, it appears you are trying to gather more information about the problem and its symptoms for you to identify the problem. For the exam, you must be able to list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Question 216

A customer’s computer has a noisy, whining sound coming from it when in use. You opened the case and did not see any dust on the fans. What should you attempt next to eliminate the noise?

Answer 216

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - The best step would be to apply a small amount of oil to each of the fan’s bearings, as this will eliminate the noise.

Question 217

If the fans had been dusty,

Answer 217

you would instead apply compressed air or clean the fan blades using a damp cloth. Since there was no dust noticed, this cannot be the whining source, and instead, you should apply oil to the bearings.

Question 218

Over time, dust can get into the fan bearings, causing increased friction when spinning and creating a whining sound. If this doesn’t solve the noise, (cloth, compressed air, oil)

Answer 218

then you would replace the case fans.

Question 219

A client claims that their computer keeps rebooting itself without warning. Which of the following is the BEST action you should take to investigate and troubleshoot this issue?

Answer 219

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - A computer that keeps rebooting itself is a symptom of a faulty power supply or a computer that is overheating. If the power supply is faulty, the computer will reboot itself. If the issue is caused by an overheating issue (such as a cooling fan failure), the computer will usually reboot itself after running for 15-20 minutes (once enough heat is built-up). Therefore, you should test the power supply first to determine if that is the root cause of the issue, and then replace the power supply, if required.

Question 220

You are working as part of a PC refresh team installing 150 desktop computers in Dion Training’s new offices. When you boot up the 72nd desktop you installed, you smell a foul-smelling chemical odor. You sniff the air again and confirm the smell isn’t a burning smell. Upon opening the case, which component should you inspect for damage and expect to replace?

Answer 220

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - A foul smell is usually indicative of a distended capacitor. Capacitors are small electrical components on the motherboard. Therefore you should inspect the motherboard for replacement.

Question 221

If there was a burning smell,

Answer 221

then the power supply should be the first component inspected.

Question 222

What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?

Answer 222

Explanation
OBJ 5.1 - For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Question 223

You are troubleshooting a video editing workstation for Dion Training that will not boot. After running diagnostic tests on the system, you determine that one of the four hard disks in the workstation’s RAID 0 array has failed. To prevent this from occurring in the future, which type of RAID should you configure that would provide the best performance and redundancy for this video editing workstation?

Answer 223

Explanation
OBJ 5.3 - A RAID 10 creates a mirrored array of striped arrays. This will provide the fastest performance and the best redundancy of any option listed in this question.

Question 224

A RAID 0 provides

Answer 224

disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks.

Question 225

A RAID 1 provides

Answer 225

mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks.

Question 226

A RAID 5 provides

Answer 226

block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Question 227

A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the motherboard needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?

Answer 227

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor.

Question 228

The incorrect date/time on the workstation

Answer 228

is indicative of a dead CMOS battery.

Question 229

A burning smell

Answer 229

is indicative of a bad power supply.

Question 230

Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot,

Answer 230

the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.

Question 231

A technician at Dion Training is troubleshooting an issue with a workstation. The technician believes that the CMOS battery needs to be replaced based on the symptoms they observed. Which of the following symptoms did the technician likely observe to lead them to this conclusion?

Answer 231

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - The incorrect date/time on the workstation is indicative of a dead CMOS battery. A foul odor is indicative of a distended capacitor. A burning smell is indicative of a bad power supply. Hardware failure or system instability can cause the computer to reboot continuously. The problem could be the RAM, hard drive, power supply, graphics card, or external devices. Based on the symptoms of a continuous reboot, the supervisor likely suspected the RAM as the cause of the issue.

Question 232

You are troubleshooting a customer’s PC. You realize there is a problem with the RAM and decided to replace the faulty module. You turn on the PC, and after a few seconds, you hear a single beep. What does hearing a single beep indicate?

Answer 232

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - During the bootup process, a power-on self-test (POST) is performed. A single beep is commonly used to indicate the successful completion of the POST. Based on the POST results, different series of beeps may be played to indicate the status of the system. For example, if a single beep was heard, this could indicate a successful POST after a new hardware installation has been completed. Each manufacturer uses different POST codes, so it is important to consult the manual for the motherboard or BIOS in use by the system.

Question 233

Users are complaining that they are unable to connect to the wireless network when seated in the breakroom. You are troubleshooting the issue and have questioned the employees in the area about the issue. You have determined that it was working properly yesterday, but this morning it stopped working. You also determined that there was a power outage earlier this morning for about 10 minutes. After gathering this information and identifying the symptoms of the problem, what should you do NEXT according to the network troubleshooting methodology?

Answer 233

Explanation
OBJ 5.1 - The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (6) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned. Based on the scenario presented, you have already gathered information, questioned users, identified symptoms, and determined if anything changed, so you have completed the first step: identify the problem. Now, you should begin to establish a theory of probable cause by questioning the obvious and using a top-to-bottom, bottom-to-top, or divide and conquer approach to troubleshooting.

Question 234

A customer is complaining that they smell a foul odor coming from their computer. If you open up the PC’s case and look inside, which of the following would you expect to see?

Answer 234

Explanation
OBJ 5.2 - A distended capacitor on a motherboard is an indication of a fault on the motherboard. Capacitors can bulge and release a substance that has a foul smell when they fail. Capacitors are tiny electrical components that are soldered onto the motherboard and aid in the storage and use of DC voltage. An unplugged Molex connection, broken LED light, or unseated RAM module would not produce any kind of odor or smell.

Question 235

A repeat customer is back with their laptop again. This is the third time they have dropped their laptop and caused their hard disk’s internal platter to fail. Which of the following devices should you replace their internal hard drive with to prevent this issue from occurring again?

Answer 235

Explanation
OBJ 5.3 - Since this customer is accident-prone, you should recommend they install an NVMe or SSD device. These solid-state devices are more resistant to drops since they have no moving parts or platters in them. A hybrid or HDD solution would not be effective as they both have moving platters in them that can be destroyed by a drop.