Dion Training CompTIA A+ Core 1 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

Personal Computers

Workstation

Answer

A

Computer desk

Question 2

Q

Personal Computers

Server

Answer

A

Used to host a file and print sharing server

Question 3

Q

Personal Computers

Laptop

Answer

A

Mobile version of a workstation

Question 4

Q

Tablet

Answer

A

Portable computer that consists of a touchscreen and computing
hardware

Question 5

Q

Smartphone

Answer

A

Smaller version of tablets

Question 6

Q

Smart Device

Answer

A

Device that can compute

Question 7

Q

Internet Of Things (IOT) Devices

Answer

A

Devices that connect to a network

Question 8

Q

Hardware

Answer

A

Parts of the computer that can be picked up, moved around, opened, and
closed

Question 9

Q

Storage

Answer

A

Saving the data for future use

Question 10

Q

Software

Answer

A

Provides the instructions for the hardware

Question 11

Q

Operating System

Answer

A

Provides a method for saving, retrieving, changing, printing, and
transmitting information

Question 12

Q

Application System

Answer

A

Used to create, store, modify, and view information or data

Question 13

Q

Driver

Answer

A

Used to translate commands from the operating system to hardware

Question 14

Q

Firmware

Answer

A

Specialized type of software on a chip

Question 15

Q

o Personal Safety

Answer

A

▪ Trip hazard avoidance
▪ Proper lifting techniques
▪ Safety gear usage
● Trip hazard occurs when there is an object where people walk

Question 16

Q

Component Safety

Answer

A

▪ Actions taken to prevent damage to components
● Electrostatic discharge (ESD) occurs when electrons rush from the
body to a component
o Antistatic bag
o ESD wrist strap
o ESD mat

Question 17

Q

Chemical Safety

Answer

A

Chemical safety includes proper handling and disposal of hazardous
materials and chemicals

Question 18

Q

Use these six steps to answer the questions on test day

Answer

A

▪ Identify the problem
▪ Establish a theory of probable cause
▪ Test the theory to determine the cause
● If the theory is not confirmed, re-establish a new theory
▪ Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the
solution
▪ Verify full system functionality
▪ Document the findings, actions, and outcomes

Question 19

Q

Cable Types

Common measurements

Answer

A

▪ A single “bit” can store one of two values: 1 or 0
▪ “Nibble” is 4 bits
▪ “Byte” is 8 bits
▪ 1000 bits
● 1Kilobit (1Kb)
▪ 1Kbps
● (8bits per byte)
● 125KB
▪ b = bits
▪ B = bytes
▪ 1,000,000 bits = 1 Megabit (Mb)
▪ 1,000,000 bytes = 1 Megabyte (MB)
▪ 1,000,000,000 bits = 1 Gigabit (Gb)
▪ 1,000,000,000 bytes = 1 Gigabyte (GB)
▪ 1,000,000,000,000 bits = 1 Terabit (Tb)
▪ 1,000,000,000,000 bytes = 1 Terabyte (TB)

Question 20

Q

o CD Drive

Answer

A

The ability to read and write information to the system using an optical
device

Question 21

Q

Power Button

Answer

A

A physical button, that when pushed, sends an electrical signal from a
cable directly to the motherboard that tells the computer to turn on

Question 22

Q

Audio Jack

Answer

A

Used to connect headphones and microphones to the computer using a
1/8th inch Mini-Jack

Question 23

Q

SuperSpeed USB Connectors

Answer

A

Used to connect other peripherals, like a mouse, a keyboard, a webcam,
a printer, or other devices to a computer

Question 24

Q

o Cooling Fan

Answer

A

Blows hot air out of the CPU, the motherboard, and the case which
expels the extra heat out of the system to keep the component insides
cool

Question 25

Q

HDMI Connector

Answer

A

Used to connect a monitor, TV, or another device for a video output
display

Question 26

Q

RJ 45 Connector

Answer

A

Provides net access to local area networks over a wired connection

Question 27

Q

SPDIF Connector

Answer

A

▪ An optical connector that allows high quality audio to a surround sound
system
▪ USB 2.0 speeds are good for a microphone, a mouse, or a keyboard

Question 28

Q

Kensington Lock

Answer

A

▪ Allows the ability to place a metal cable from the desk to the computer
tower to ensure the computer tower is not stolen

Question 29

Q

DB 25 Connector

Answer

A

A D-shaped sub miniature pin that goes into the back of a computer and
has two thumb screws on the side

Question 30

Q

Serial Cable

Answer

A

A cable that sends data in ones and zeros in a straight line, but it can only
send one bit at a time, which is measured at the speed of cables in bits
per second

Question 31

Q

DB9 Connector

Answer

A

▪ A slow speed connection for much older mice keyboards and other
external modems
▪ A USB 1 and a USB 2 run at a much slower speed and should be split
across a hub
▪ A USB 1.0 has the slowest speed out of a USB with a maximum speed of
1.5 megabits per second

Question 32

Q

USB 1.1

Answer

A

Known as full speed and runs at 12 megabits per second

Question 33

Q

USB 2.0

Answer

A

▪ Known as high speed and runs at 480 megabits per second

Question 34

Q

USB 3.0

Answer

A

▪ Known as super speed and is at least 5 gigabits per second

Question 35

Q

USB 3.1 Gen One

Answer

A

▪ Runs at 5 gigabits per second

Question 36

Q

o USB 3.1 Gen Two

Answer

A

▪ Runs at 10 gigabits per second

Question 37

Q

USB 3.2 Gen 2x2

Answer

A

▪ Runs at 20 gigabits per second

Question 38

Q

USB 4

Answer

A

▪ The most modern version of USB and can run at 40 gigabits per second
▪ A USB 4 and a USB 3.2 gen 2x2 must have a shorter cable because that is
going to give the best performance
▪ The longer a cable, the more likelihood that the cable would not work as
efficiently, or even at all
● Type A
● Type C
● Type B
● Type B Mini
● Type B Micro

Question 39

Q

HDMI

Answer

A

Known as high-definition multimedia interface and it is the most widely
used video interface in the world
▪ Lower resolution HDMI can support HD standard, but higher resolution
HDMI can support up to 4k
● Full-Size (Type A Connector)
● Mini Connector (Type C)
● Micro Connector (Type D)
▪ Category 1
● The standard HDMI that is used for video content
▪ Category 2
● The high-speed HDMI that uses higher resolutions

Question 40

Q

HDMI Version 2

Answer

A

▪ Higher speeds that are specified for data transfer using HDMI

Question 41

Q

Display Port Interface

Answer

A

▪ Used for digital displays with a high-performance replacement
● Full-Size Display Port
● Mini Display Port
▪ Display Ports can support high speed data transfer over its cables starting
off with 2.7 gigabits per second, but can go up to 20 gigabits per second

Question 42

Q

o DVI

Answer

A

Used to support both analog and digital outputs
● DVI A
● DVI D
● DVI I
▪ DVI A only supports analog signals, DVI D only supports digital signals,
and DVI I support both signals

Question 43

Q

VGA

Answer

A

▪ The graphic standard that used a 15-pin standard analog video interface
port that would connect to the computer

Question 44

Q

Thunderbolt

Answer

A

▪ A display interface that is used for data transfer
● Thunderbolt version 1 and 2 used a physical connector that
were backwards compatible
● All thunderbolt version 3 will support USB-C, but not all USB-C
we’ll support Thunderbolt 3

Question 45

Q

o Thunderbolt

Answer

A

Supports speeds of up to 40 gigabits per second for data transfer over
cables

Question 46

Q

Lightning Cable

Answer

A

A specific proprietary connector that was created by apple their mobile
devices

Question 47

Q

SATA Cable

Answer

A

▪ The standard cables that are the main method of connecting a storage
device to a motherboard inside of a desktop computer
▪ The SATA cable has two cables, one is a seven-pin data cable, which does
not supply any power, and the other is a 15-pin SATA power connector to
provide the power to the device
▪ SATA version 1 can support speeds of up to 1.5 gigabits per second,
version 2 can support speeds of up 3 gigabits per second, and version 3
can support speeds of up to 6 gigabits per second

Question 48

Q

External SATA

Answer

A

A SATA cable on the outside of the case

Question 49

Q

o PATA

Answer

A

▪ The old IDE connectors with the exact same cables and connectors and
standards but renamed for branding
▪ Parallel devices have each cable support up to two devices and they both
can communicate at the same time

Question 50

Q

Molex Power Connector

Answer

A

A 4-pin connector that would attach from the power supply directly to a
device

Question 51

Q

SCIS

Answer

A

▪ A legacy parallel bus connector that allows multiple devices to be Daisy
chained together
▪ A narrow SCIS can support up to 7 devices, but a wide SCIS can support
up to 15 devices

Question 52

Q

o Motherboard

Answer

A

▪ Printed circuit board that contains computer components and provides
connectors

Question 53

Q

Input

Answer

A

▪ Process of accepting data in a form that the computer can use

Question 54

Q

Output

Answer

A

Process of displaying the processed data or information

Question 55

Q

o Processing

Answer

A

▪ Actions performed by the CPU when receiving information
▪ Processing is conducted by the CPU or GPU

Question 56

Q

o Storage

Answer

A

▪ Process of saving or retaining digital data, temporarily or permanently
● Temporary storage
o Non-persistent
● Permanent storage
o Persistent

▪ Data transferred across the motherboard measures the speed of data in
MHz or GHz
● Volatile storage
o Speed is fast
● Non-volatile storage
o Speed decreases rapidly

Question 57

Q

Advanced Technology eXtended (ATX)

Answer

A

Full-size motherboard and measures 12” x 9.6” in size (305mm x 244 mm)

Question 58

Q

Mini-ATX

Answer

A

▪ Smaller than ATX but contains the same features (11.2” x 8.2” / 284mm x
208 mm)

Question 59

Q

Micro-ATX (mATX)

Answer

A

▪ Measures 9.6 inches squared (244mm x 244mm)
▪ Micro-ATX is the same as ATX but only has 4 expansion card slots

Question 60

Q

o Information Technology eXtended (ITX)

Answer

A

▪ Designed as a replacement for the ATX but never produced

Question 61

Q

o Mini-ITX

Answer

A

▪ Measures 6.7” x 6.7” with only one expansion slot (170 x 170mm
squared)
● Nano-ITX
● Pico-ITX
● Mobile-ITX

Question 62

Q

Form Factor

Answer

A

▪ Shape, layout, and type of case in a power supply
● ATX
o Full-size ATX
o Mini-ATX
o Micro-ATX
● ITX
o Mini-ITX

Question 63

Q

o CPU

Answer

A

▪ The brains of the computer that execute the different programing codes
in the software and firmware
▪ The CPU is performing the basic operations for every instruction in the
computer
▪ Once the processor has done the execution of the instruction, it will send
that information back to the memory so that it can be stored and used
for later use

Question 64

Q

o X86

Answer

A

▪ Can support a maximum of 4 gigabytes of Ram

Answer 65

A

▪ An extension of the X86 instruction set to be able to support 64-bit
operations
▪ 32-bit systems can only run 32-bit programs, but 64-bit processors can
run 64-bit programs and 32-bit programs because they are fully
backwards compatible

Answer 66

A

▪ Used for low-power devices (tablets and cell phones)
● Extended battery life
● Produces less heat
▪ RISC systems use code to do tasks

Answer 67

A

▪ The ability to insert the CPU without pressing down and applying
pressure to it
▪ If you bend, snap, or break a pin from a processor, the entire processor is
no longer functional

Answer 68

A

▪ A form factor that positions all the pins to be able to connect the CPU
processor into the socket

Answer 69

A

▪ The processor has the pins and the socket have holes which allows the
holes to align when installing the processor

Answer 70

A

▪ Multiple CPU’s or processors installed on a motherboard
▪ You cannot upgrade or change out the processor on a mobile device
▪ The two main types of CPU sockets are LGA, which is made by Intel, and
we have PGA, which has made by AMD.

Answer 71

A

▪ Single stream of instructions is being sent by a software application to a
processor
▪ Manufacturers developed a way to allow software to run multiple parallel
threads at the same time

Answer 72

A

▪ Traditional workstation and servers have multiple processors

Answer 73

A

▪ Single CPU with multiple processors inside
▪ Multiple processors have multiple cores inside the CPU

Answer 74

A

▪ Two CPUs inside a single chip

Answer 75

A

Four CPUs inside a single chip

Answer 76

A

Six CPUs inside a single chip

Answer 77

A

▪ Eight CPUs inside a single chip
● Hyper-threading / SMT
● Symmetric Multiprocessing
● Multi-core Processors
● Virtualization

Answer 78

A

provide processor extensions to support virtualization

Answer 79

A

▪ Extended Page Table (EPT)
● Intel
▪ Rapid Virtualization Indexing (RVI)
● AMD

Answer 80

A

Features of software virtualization are underlying and supported by the
hardware processor

Answer 81

A

Review the motherboard’s documentation
Place the motherboard aligned at the rear of the case
Insert standoffs that match the hole in the motherboard
Install the processor and memory modules before installing the motherboard
Verify the standoffs are properly aligned prior to installing the motherboard
Secure the standoffs using the appropriate screw type
Install the power supply, disk drives, and add-on cards

Answer 82

A

▪ 32-bit expansion card
● PCI 32-bit cards support only a maximum bus speed of 33 MHz or 133 MBps

Answer 83

A

▪ 64-bit expansion card (133 MHz)

Answer 84

A

▪ 266 MHz up to 533 MHz
● PCI and PCI-X are used for networking cards and audio cards

Answer 85

A

▪ Used for video graphics cards
● AGP 1x
● AGP 2x
● AGP 4x
● AGP 8x

Answer 86

A

▪ PCIe x1
▪ PCIe x4
▪ PCIe x8
▪ PCIe x16
● PCIe x1 is used for modems, network cards, wireless cards,
input/output devices, and audio cards
● PCIe x16 is used for graphics cards

Answer 87

A

▪ Connects to the bus to get data to and from the motherboard for external devices
▪ PCIe bus is determined by the motherboard and its form factor
● 16 PCIe lanes
● 24 PCIe lanes
● 32 PCIe lanes
▪ PCIe x16 and PCIe x1 maximize the number of lanes used on a
motherboard
● PCIe 1.0
● PCIe 2.0
● PCIe 3.0
● PCIe 4.0
● PCIe 5.0
▪ All PCIe slots provide 25 watts of power
▪ PCIe x16 card slot provides up to 75 watts of power
● Up-plugging
o Putting smaller card in a larger slot
● Down-plugging
o Putting larger card in a smaller slot

Answer 88

A

▪ Standard PCIe card with smaller form factor
▪ Mini PCIe cards are used inside of laptops, specifically for wireless networking
● PCIe x1
o Modems
o Networking cards
o Wireless cards
o Audio cards
● PCIe x16
o Graphics and video cards (3D)
o Gaming systems

Answer 89

A

▪ Gives quality signal for monitors

Answer 90

A

▪ A specialized processor designed to accelerate graphics rendering

Answer 91

A

▪ Embeds the memory to give additional capability to offload from the
system

Answer 92

A

▪ Installed outside of the card (Thunderbolt, DisplayPort, and HDMI)

Answer 93

A

▪ Takes video signals and processes them inside the computer
▪ used for recording footage and for security devices

Answer 94

A

▪ Cables are plugged into a computer to get all cable TV channels

Answer 95

A

▪ Gives better output through audio
● RJ45 Port
o 1 Gbps
● Install NIC into PCIe x1 slot
o 10 Gbps
● ST / SC / MT-RJ connector
o Supports fiber card

Answer 96

A

▪ Special type of expansion card on a motherboard

Answer 97

A

▪ Heat from different components inside the computer

Answer 98

A

▪ Type of cooling that doesn’t rely on moving parts or power

Answer 99

A

▪ Finned metal device that radiates heat away from the processor

Answer 100

A

▪ Compound that ensures heat transfer by eliminating air gaps
● Passive cooling requires no power to operate and is silent when operating

Answer 101

A

▪ Uses a fan to cool down the heat from the device

Answer 102

A

o Closed Loop System
▪ Cooling of a single component
o Open Loop System
▪ Liquid cooling-based system of different components
o Liquid Cooling
▪ High performance systems

Answer 103

A

▪ Cycled between positives and negatives repeatedly

Answer 104

A

is to deliver DC to all components inside the
PC when receiving an AC power supply

Answer 105

A

▪ Allows to unhook the connectors and detach from the unit
▪ Modular power supply frees up space inside of the computer

Answer 106

A

Provides power to the motherboard
● ATX Standard
o 20-pin connector
● ATX 12V
o 24-pin connector
● 20+4 Pin
o Two connectors are coupled together before plugging into
a 24-pin connector

Answer 107

A

▪ Has a four, six, or eight-pin connector

Answer 108

A

▪ Used for IDE and PATA hard disks, CDs, and DVD drives

Answer 109

A

▪ One connector that can support multiple devices

Answer 110

A

▪ US-based power supply

Answer 111

A

▪ Europe and Asia power supply

Answer 112

A

will support multi-voltage outputs

Answer 113

A

▪ Detects the outlet and converts it into the voltage of DC

Answer 114

A

Wire that provides current at a particular voltage
● 12 VDC Rail
o Cable or wire that provides 12 VDC
o The 12 VDC rail is the most used voltage in the PC

Answer 115

A

▪ Power supply’s output capacity or capability
▪ The devices inside a computer require power from a power supply

Answer 116

A

A x V
▪ I x V

Answer 117

A

▪ Buy a power supply that is bigger than calculated

Answer 118

A

▪ A 500-watt power supply that is 70% efficient will draw 714 watts
▪ A 500-watt power supply that is 80% efficient will draw 625 watts

Answer 119

A

100% efficient

Answer 120

A

▪ Used to load applications and files into a non-persistent and fast storage area

Answer 121

A

High-speed memory

Answer 122

A

Mass storage device that holds more data but is slower than a cache

Answer 123

A

▪ Permanent storage area

Answer 124

A

▪ Temporary storage area/non-persistent storage

Answer 125

A

Pulls the files from the disc into memory and replaces the old file

Answer 126

A

Uses an electronic system that can access the RAM with instant speed

Answer 127

A

▪ Processor reaching the files inside RAM
● Single Channel Memory Controller
o 32 or 64 bits
● x86
o 32-bit
● x64
o 64-bit
▪ An x86 or 32-bit processor can address a maximum
of 4 GB of RAM
▪ An x64 or 64-bit processor can access more than 4
GB of RAM (8, 16, 32, or 64 GB)

Answer 128

A

▪ Can put any size of module in any slot
● Dual Inline Memory Module (DIMM)
o With 240 or 184-pin connector

Answer 129

A

▪ Most common type of memory
● PC133
o 133 MHz

Answer 130

A

▪ Calculated based on the bus speed and the width of the data bus

Answer 131

A

▪ Oldest type of memory that requires frequent refreshing
● DRAM storage cell is dynamic

Answer 132

A

▪ First memory module that operates at the same speed as the
motherboard bus (168-pin connector)
● PC66 (66 MHz bus)
● PC133 (133 MHz bus)
● PC266 (266 MHz bus)

Answer 133

A

▪ Doubles the transfer speed of an SRAM module (184-pin connector)

Answer 134

A

▪ Higher latency and has faster access to the external bus (240-pin
connector)
● PC2-4200
o 4200 MB/s or 4.2 GB/s

Answer 135

A

▪ Runs at a lower voltage and at a higher speed than DDR2 (240 keyed pin
connector)
● PC3-10600
o 10600 MB/s or 10.6 GB/s
▪ DDR3 throughput is 6.4 to 17 GB/s with a maximum module size of 8GB per memory module

Answer 136

A

▪ Classified as DDR3, DDR4, or DDR5

Answer 137

A

▪ Uses two different memory modules to increase the performance and
throughput
● Single-channel Memory
o 64-bit data bus
● Dual-channel Memory
o 128-bit data bus
▪ Interleaving
● Provides increased performance
● In multi-channel configurations, use the same model, speed, and throughput of memory

Answer 138

A

● Uses one memory module on one bus (64-bit data bus)

Answer 139

A

● Requires two memory modules and two memory slots on the
motherboard (128-bit data bus)

Answer 140

A

● Uses three memory modules and three memory slots (192-bit
data bus)

Answer 141

A

● Uses four memory modules and four memory slots (256-bit data
bus)

Answer 142

A

● Give faster speeds and add memory for storage

Answer 143

A

▪ Standard memory that does not check for errors and allows data to be
put in or taken out

Answer 144

A

Performs basic error checking and ensures the memory contents are
reliable
● A parity check does basic calculation
o Every bit has an associated parity bit
▪ Bits can only be a zero or one

Answer 145

A

▪ Detects and corrects an error

Answer 146

A

▪ Additional hardware (register) between memory and CPU
● The system requires buffering or registering the data to reduce the electrical load

Answer 147

A

▪ Supports ECC modules

Answer 148

A

▪ Has an internal error checking for its modules
● DDR5 modules can still be sold as ECC or non-ECC modules

Answer 149

A

▪ Space on a hard drive that is allocated by the OS and pretends to be
memory
● Check the available memory and the free memory

Answer 150

A

▪ A file that is hidden on a storage device and pretend as system memory

Answer 151

A

▪ Program that a CPU uses to start the computer system
▪ BIOS serves as a method of configuring the motherboard using a textbased interface

Answer 152

A

▪ Software on a chip and contains BIOS program code in the flash memory
of a motherboard

Answer 153

A

▪ Supports 64-bit processors and provides a GUI

Answer 154

A

▪ Program a computer’s microprocessor uses to start and boot after being
turned on
▪ BIOS is an example of firmware
● Power-on self-test
● Hardware configuration
● Boot order setup

Answer 155

A

▪ Type of chip embedded in the motherboard and can be upgraded
through flashing

Answer 156

A

internal lithium-ion battery that can last up to 10 years

Answer 157

A

▪ Diagnostic testing sequence to check the computer’s basic input/output
system

Answer 158

A

▪ Keyboard is not detected
● Two short beeps and one long beep

Answer 159

A

▪ To configure the settings inside CMOS, enter the BIOS configuration
environment
▪ BIOS relied on a text-based menu system and a keyboard as its system of
input

Answer 160

A

▪ Updated form of BIOS that allows keyboard and mouse as input and
provides a GUI
● Supports 64-bit systems
● Supports larger HDDs and SSDs (9.4 zettabytes ~ 9.4 x 10^21
bytes)
● Supports the new GUID Partition Table (GPT) format
● Faster boot-up system
● Uses a larger ROM size
▪ Disable booting from an optical drive or USB drive
▪ Configure the system to boot from the installed hard drive using the
installed OS
▪ Boot the OS using PXE as the primary option

Answer 161

A

▪ Performed during upgrades, security fixes, or feature improvements
● Back up the configuration and information
● Use a USB flash drive to flash the firmware
● The BIOS or UEFI will copy the firmware to the system and
overwrite the old code

Answer 162

A

loading and booting up the OS

Answer 163

A

use MBR to hold the boot information

Answer 164

A

use GPT to hold the boot information

Answer 165

A

▪ Used to protect access to the BIOS or UEFI configuration program and
prevents access from unauthorized users

Answer 166

A

▪ Used to lock access to the computer

Answer 167

A

▪ Password that locks access to a hard drive connected to the system and
requires the end user’s password

Answer 168

A

▪ Enabled in the UEFI interface and settings and is not supported by BIOS

Answer 169

A

▪ a special type of malware

Answer 170

A

the USB ports on the
motherboard

Answer 171

A

▪ Set passwords
▪ Enable secure boot
▪ Restrict or disable USB ports

Answer 172

A

of all secure operations of a computing system

Answer 173

A

▪ Cryptographic module embedded in a computer system that endorses
trusted execution and attests to boot settings and metrics

Answer 174

A

is used to scan the boot metrics in the OS files to
verify signatures and then use them to sign the report

Answer 175

A

▪ Specification for hardware-based storage of digital certificates, keys,
hashed passwords, and other user and platform identification
information
● TPM is a hardware RoT
● Secured boot-up
● Provides encryption
▪ A TPM can be managed in Windows via tpm.msc console
or through group policy

Answer 176

A

▪ Appliance for generating and storing cryptographic keys that
is less susceptible to tampering and insider threats

Answer 177

A

▪ Quiet mode
● Reduces the fan speed and allows higher temperatures to occur
▪ Balanced mode
● Normal setting on most computers by default
▪ Cool mode
● Able to run the fans harder and faster to create more air flow

Answer 178

A

the processor generates excess heat

Answer 179

A

▪ Temperature is rising
● Speed up
▪ Temperature is lower than set point
● Turn off or slow down

Answer 180

A

▪ Form of mass storage device

Answer 181

A

▪ Non-volatile storage device that holds the data when the system
is powered down (GB or TB)

Answer 182

A

▪ Device that is placed inside the computer case or tower

Answer 183

A

▪ Device that is placed outside the computer case or tower and connected
to an external port

Answer 184

A

▪ Uses flash memory technology to implement mass storage
▪ Faster and more durable

Answer 185

A

▪ 2.5 inch
● Used when replacing an HDD inside a laptop or a small desktop
▪ 1.8 inch
● Used inside of small laptops
▪ M2
● Like a memory chip, small, sleek, and light
● Used in a laptops

Answer 186

A

▪ Older SSDs rely on SATA connectors (7+15 pin SATA)
● Used in both 2.5- and 1.8-inch SSDs

Answer 187

A

● Allows the SSD to be used as an adapter card that can be plugged
into a combined data and power port on the motherboard
● SSDs are faster than SATA speeds

Answer 188

A

● A communication protocol used with the M2 form factor to plug
directly into the motherboard

Answer 189

A

● Use PCIe slots on the motherboard

Answer 190

A

▪ Higher speed from the SSD
▪ Larger and cheaper storage from the HDD

Answer 191

A

▪ Created as a transitional technology
▪ Less common today
▪ Looks like a hard drive (2.5-inch form factor)
▪ Has both an SSD and an HDD in it

Answer 192

A

Combination of multiple physical hard disks that is recognized by the
operating system

Answer 193

A

RAID 0 is great for speed but provides no data redundancy
o RAID 0 has no loss of space on the disks

Answer 194

A

RAID 1 provides full redundancy

Answer 195

A

Striping with parity
o One disk can be lost without losing any data

Answer 196

A

o Double striping with parity
o Two disks can be lost without losing any data

Answer 197

A

o Redundancy and performance

Answer 198

A

▪ Protection against the loss of erased data (RAID 1/RAID 5)

Answer 199

A

▪ Raid can function even when a component fails (RAID 1/RAID 5/RAID 6)

Answer 200

A

▪ RAID with two independent zones with full data access (RAID 10)
▪ RAIDs provide redundancy and high availability

Answer 201

A

▪ Capable of being removed or replaced without disruption or powering off
the device
▪ Hot-swappable drives are safe to remove without losing the data
● This feature gives the ability to add/remove additional storage

Answer 202

A

▪ Technical standard developed by Intel that allows hot-swappable
capability with SATA devices

Answer 203

A

replacement for PATA as an internal connector

Answer 204

A

of 10, 20, or 40 Gbps

Answer 205

A

▪ Takes an internal hard drive and puts it in an enclosure
● Memory Stick
o Proprietary protocol that is used on Sony devices
● The original secure digital (SD) cards had a maximum capacity of 2 GB
o Original (Up to 25 MB/s)
o UHS-1 (Up to 108 MB/s)
o UHS-2 (Up to 312 MB/s)
o UHS-3 (Up to 624 MB/s)
● A tape drive uses a magnetic tape and is placed into a reader
o Standard Tape
▪ 140 GB data
o LTO Ultrium Tape
▪ 3 TB data

Answer 206

A

is any device that can store data and can be
carried

Answer 207

A

is the same type of device that is used inside a
system

Answer 208

A

▪ Oldest form of optical drive that stores 74 to 80 minutes of music (650-
700 MB)

Answer 209

A

▪ Stores 4.7 GB or 8.4 GB (DL)

Answer 210

A

▪ Stores 25 GB or 50 GB (DL)

Answer 211

A

▪ Read-only (ROM)
▪ Write-once (R)
▪ Write-many/Erasable (RW/RAM/RE)
▪ The CD-ROM, DVD-ROM, or BD-ROM is a read-only disc
● Write-once (R)
o Writing that cannot be erased (CD-R, DVD-R, DVD+R, and BD-R)
▪ CD-RW allows to write and erase the file to create a new one
● DVD-RW versions are like the CD-RW versions
● The DVD-RAM discs are like DVD-RW but have a different type of form factor
● Blu-ray Disc (BD-RE)
o Has write-many type of disc called erasable disc
o BD-RE is like CD-RW or DVD-RW

Answer 212

A

CD (1X = 150 KB/s)
● 1X = Music
● 2X/44X/16X/24X =Data
● 52X drive is 150 KB/s multiplied by 52 (7800 KB/s or 7.6 MB/s)
▪ DVD (1X = 1.385 MB/s)
▪ Blu-ray (1X = 4.5 MB/s)

Answer 213

A

▪ Host computer installed with a hypervisor that can be used to install and
manage multiple guest operating systems or virtual machines (VMs)

Answer 214

A

o Runs directly on the host hardware and functions as the
operating system

Answer 215

A

o Runs within the normal operating system

Answer 216

A

● Server-based (Terminal services)
o Server-based solution that runs the application on servers
in a centralized location
● Client-based (Application streaming)
o Client-based solution that allows an application to be
packaged up and streamed directly to a user’s PC

Answer 217

A

▪ Type of virtualization applied by a host operating system to provision an
isolated execution environment for an application
● Docker
● Parallels Virtuozzo
● OpenVZ

Answer 218

A

all the organizations hosted on that same server
are affected

Answer 219

A

▪ Set up virtual servers in the cloud with proper failover, redundancy, and
elasticity
▪ Hosting all VMs on the same type of hypervisor can also be exploited
● Proper configurations
● Patched and up-to-date hypervisor
● Tight access control

Answer 220

A

▪ Manages the distribution of the physical resources of a server to the VMs
● Type I
o Bare metal
● Type II
o Hosted

Answer 221

A

▪ Each container relies on a common host OS as the base for each
container
▪ Container-based virtualization has less resources because it doesn’t
require its own copy of the OS for individual container

Answer 222

A

▪ Allows for the full integration of the storage, network, and servers
without hardware changes

Answer 223

A

▪ Encapsulates computer programs from the underlying OS on which they
are executed

Answer 224

A

▪ Hosts desktop OSs within a virtualized environment hosted by a
centralized server or server farm

Answer 225

A

▪ An isolated environment for analyzing pieces of malware

Answer 226

A

▪ Allows for the testing and running of software applications for different
operating systems
● Emulation
o System imitation
● Virtualization
o New “physical” machine

Answer 227

A

▪ Improves the performance of virtual memory when running multiple
virtual machines on a single physical host
● Intel
o Extended Page Table (EPT)
● AMD
o Rapid Virtualization Indexing (RVI)

Answer 228

A

● 32-bit processor
● 32-bit operating system can only access 4GB of RAM

Answer 229

A

● 16 exabytes of RAM
● 32-bit processor cannot run a 64-bit application

Answer 230

A

▪ Reduced instruction set and computer architecture in a computer
processor

Answer 231

A

▪ Amount of physical memory installed on a physical server
▪ Barebones Windows installation takes 20-50 gigabytes of space
▪ Linux installation takes 4-8 gigabytes of space
▪ Mac environment takes 20-40 gigabytes of space

Answer 232

A

▪ CPU, processor, and capabilities
▪ System memory
▪ Networking
▪ Storage

Answer 233

A

▪ Threat attempts to get out of an isolated VM and send commands to the
underlying hypervisor
▪ VM escape is easier to perform on a Type II hypervisor than a Type I
hypervisor
● Patched
● Up to date

Answer 234

A

▪ Threat attempts to move from one VM to another on the same host
● VM Hopping
o VM to VM
● VM Escape
o VM to hypervisor or host OS
▪ Up to date
▪ Patched
▪ Securely configured

Answer 235

A

▪ Separates running processes and programs to mitigate system failures or
software vulnerabilities

Answer 236

A

▪ Occurs when an attacker circumvents sandbox protections to gain access
to the protected OS or other privileged processes
o Patched
o Up to date
o Strong endpoint software protection
o Limited extensions or add-ons

Answer 237

A

▪ Migrates the virtual machine from one host to another while it is running
▪ Ensure that live migration only occurs on a trusted network or utilizes
encryption

Answer 238

A

▪ Leftover pieces of data that may exist in the hard drive which are no
longer needed
● Encrypt virtual machine storage location
● Destroy encryption key

Answer 239

A

▪ Uncontrolled deployment of virtual machines

Answer 240

A

▪ The practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the Internet

Answer 241

A

▪ Services experience very little downtime when using the cloud
▪ Availability is the percentage of uptime versus downtime

Answer 242

A

▪ Ability to increase the number of items in a system at a linear rate or less
than a linear rate

Answer 243

A

▪ Increasing the power of the existing resources in the working
environment

Answer 244

A

▪ Adding additional resources to help handle the extra load being
experienced

Answer 245

A

▪ The ability to quickly scale up or down
● Elasticity is the system’s ability to handle changes to demand in real time

Answer 246

A

▪ Being charged for a service on a pay per use basis
The benefit of using the cloud is that most things are done on a metered
basis

Answer 247

A

▪ Charging is based upon the actual usage of the service being consumed
▪ Measured services are charged based on the actual usage of the service
being consumed

Answer 248

A

▪ The ability to minimize the costs by putting VMs on other servers
▪ Shared resources is pooling together all the hardware to make a cloud
provider

Answer 249

A

▪ The ability to store data that can spread to other places depending on the
configuration

Answer 250

A

▪ Systems and users interact with devices on public networks, such as the
Internet and other clouds

Answer 251

A

▪ Systems and users that only have access with other devices inside the
same private cloud or system

Answer 252

A

▪ Combination of private and public clouds

Answer 253

A

▪ Collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared between several
organizations from a specific community with common concerns

Answer 254

A

▪ The ability for customers to share computing resources in a public or
private cloud

Answer 255

A

▪ Assigns a particular resource to a single organization

Answer 256

A

▪ The need to procure hardware, software, and personnel necessary to run
the organization’s cloud
▪ On-premise solution allows the ability to control all the physical and
logical access to servers

Answer 257

A

▪ Third-party service provider that provides all the hardware and facilities
needed to maintain a cloud solution

Answer 258

A

Hosts desktop OSs within a virtualized environment hosted by a
centralized server or server farm

Answer 259

A

▪ Performs all the application processing and data storage

Answer 260

A

▪ Hosts all the desktop instances on a single server or server farm

Answer 261

A

▪ Maintained by a service provider and provided to the end user as a
service

Answer 262

A

▪ Copies the desktop image to a local machine prior to being used by the
end user

Answer 263

A

▪ Amount of space on a cloud-based server as file storage

Answer 264

A

▪ The ability to synchronize from different devices using a single account

Answer 265

A

▪ Network of servers that locates the nearest server to minimize delay or
download time

Answer 266

A

▪ Enables the network to be intelligently and centrally controlled, or
programmed, using software applications
● Can be changed automatically by the network itself using automation and orchestration

Answer 267

A

▪ Focuses on the communication resource requests or information about
the network as a whole

Answer 268

A

▪ Uses the information from the applications and decides how to route a
data packet on the network

Answer 269

A

▪ Contains the network devices that receive information about where to
move the data

Answer 270

A

▪ Used to monitor traffic conditions and the status of the network
● Provides a layer of abstraction between the devices and the control and data flow that happen on the network

Answer 271

A

▪ Provides an ethernet connection to the network

Answer 272

A

▪ Has several different ports between 4 and 48 ports

Answer 273

A

▪ Smart hubs that remember the ports that are connected to them
● Switches can have multiple people talking at one time

Answer 274

A

▪ Performs its functions without requiring a configuration

Answer 275

A

▪ Performs its functions with configuration

Answer 276

A

▪ Device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network

Answer 277

A

▪ Used to connect different networks together

Answer 278

A

▪ Scans and blocks traffic that enters or leaves a network
● Unified threat management (UTM) contains firewall features

Answer 279

A

▪ Device that allows cable network jacks from a wall into a central area

Answer 280

A

▪ Supplies electrical power from a switch port over an ordinary data cable
to a power device

Answer 281

A

▪ Plugs into a wall outlet to get power

Answer 282

A

▪ Device that translates coaxial cable signals into radio frequency waves

Answer 283

A

▪ Device that translates coaxial cable signals into phone lines

Answer 284

A

▪ Terminates fiber connection

Answer 285

A

▪ Way of virtualizing the network hardware

Answer 286

A

▪ Smallest type of wired or wireless network and covers
the least amount of area

Answer 287

A

▪ Connects components within a limited distance
● Up to a few hundred feet

Answer 288

A

▪ Connects LANs that are building-centric across a university, industrial
park, or business park
● Up to a few miles

Answer 289

A

▪ Connects scattered locations across a city or metro area
● Up to about 25 miles

Answer 290

A

▪ Connects geographically disparate internal networks and consists of
leased lines or VPNs
● Worldwide coverage

Answer 291

A

▪ A wireless distribution method for two or more devices that creates a
local area network using wireless frequencies

Answer 292

A

▪ Provisions access to configurable pools of storage devices that can be
used by application servers

Answer 293

A

▪ Uses a centralized server or simply provides clients access to local
devices like printers, file storage, or the Internet

Answer 294

A

▪ A global network of appliances and personal devices that have been
equipped with sensors, software, and network connectivity to report
state and configuration
● Segregation of IoT devices is critically important for the business network’s security

Answer 295

A

operate about the same

Answer 296

A

from the IDF to the office

Answer 297

A

▪ Carries voice or data which specifies the standards a device needs to
meet to connect to the phone or data network

Answer 298

A

▪ The theoretical measure of how much data could be transferred from a
source to its destination

Answer 299

A

▪ The actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred from a
source to its destination

Answer 300

A

▪ A designation given to a particular category that provides the ability to
understand the bandwidth and the cable type to be used

Answer 301

A

▪ Contains the exact same pinouts on both ends of the cable

Answer 302

A

▪ The standard that’s preferred when wiring jacks inside of buildings

Answer 303

A

▪ The ability to take send and receive pins from one cable and swap those
on the other end

Answer 304

A

▪ A medium dependent interface crossover (MDIX) is an automated way to
electronically simulate using a crossover cable

Answer 305

A

▪ A cable rating that specifies that a cable has a stronger sheathing and
jacket that can withstand more extreme weather conditions
● A plenum rated cable is more fire resistant and it minimizes the amount of dangerous fumes that are released

Answer 306

A

▪ Uses light from an LED or laser to transmit information through a thin
glass fiber
● Greater usable range
● Greater data capacity

Answer 307

A

can become a limitation

Answer 308

A

▪ Used for longer distances and has smaller core size which allows for only
a single mode of travel for the light signal
● SMF’s core size is 8.3-10µ in diameter

Answer 309

A

▪ Used for shorter distances and has larger core size which allows for
multiple modes of travel for the light signal
● MMF’s core size is 50-100µ in diameter
● Up to 2 kilometers or less

Answer 310

A

▪ One of the oldest categories of copper media that is still used in
networking today

Answer 311

A

▪ Like coaxial cable but uses two inner conductors to carry the data instead
of just one

Answer 312

A

▪ Used to cut a piece of cable off a larger spool or run of cable

Answer 313

A

▪ Used to strip off the end of the cable and prepare it for attachment to a
connector

Answer 314

A

▪ Used to attach the connector to the end of the cable

Answer 315

A

▪ Works like a cable tester, but specifically for twisted pair ethernet cables

Answer 316

A

▪ Used to determine a cable’s category or data throughput

Answer 317

A

▪ Terminates the wires and strips off excess installation and extra wires
that are no longer needed

Answer 318

A

▪ Used to generate a tone on one end of the connection and use the probe
to audibly detect the wire connected on the other side

Answer 319

A

▪ Facilitates the testing of simple networking issues

Answer 320

A

▪ Connects directly to the cable infrastructure and splits or copies those
packets for analysis, security, or general network management

Answer 321

A

▪ Ensures proper coverage and prevents overlap between wireless access
point coverage zones and channels

Answer 322

A

▪ Modulates data over an entire range of frequencies using a series of
signals known as chips

Answer 323

A

▪ Allows devices to hop between predetermined frequencies

Answer 324

A

▪ Uses a slow modulation rate with simultaneous transmissions over 52
different data streams

Answer 325

A

to avoid overlapping with other
signals

Answer 326

A

▪ A virtual medium through which wireless networks can send and receive
data
● For the 2.4 GHz spectrum, there can be 11 or 14 channels
● Channels 1, 6, and 11 avoid overlapping frequencies in the 2.4
GHz band
● We can use 5.725-5.875 GHz to run our wireless networks in the 5
GHz band
● There are 24 non-overlapping channels in the 5 GHz band

Answer 327

A

▪ Allows for the creation of a wider channel by merging neighboring
channels into one
● The standard channel size for both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz networks is
20 MHz

Answer 328

A

▪ Uses multiple antennas to send and receive data than it could with a
single antenna

Answer 329

A

▪ Allows multiple users to access the wireless network and access point at
the same time

Answer 330

A

▪ Occurs when there are similar frequencies to wireless networks in the
area

Answer 331

A

the signal-to-noise ratio
worsens

Answer 332

A

▪ Both the access point and the client use the same encryption key
▪ It’s not a good idea to use pre-shared keys in large environments

Answer 333

A

▪ Original 802.11 wireless security standard which is an insecure security
protocol
▪ WEP uses 24-bit Initialization Vector (IV) sent in clear text

Answer 334

A

▪ Replaced WEP and follows the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)
▪ WPA uses 48-bit Initialization Vector (IV) instead of 24-bit
● Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4)
o For encryption
● Message Integrity Check (MIC)
o To confirm data was not modified in transit
● Enterprise Mode
o To authenticate users before exchanging keys

Answer 335

A

▪ Created as part of IEEE 802.11i standard and requires stronger encryption
and integrity checking through CCMP
● Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
o To provide additional security by using a 128-bit key or higher
● Personal Mode
o Pre-shared key
● Enterprise Mode
o Centralized authentication

Answer 336

A

▪ Configures an access point with a listing of permitted MAC addresses (like
an ACL)

Answer 337

A

Configures an access point not to broadcast the name of the wireless LAN

Answer 338

A

▪ Creates point to point connections from one building to another over a
relatively short distance

Answer 339

A

▪ Uses a larger antenna and a larger hotspot powered by a power outlet
within an office or home

Answer 340

A

▪ Creates point to point connection between two or more buildings that
have longer distances
▪ A traditional microwave link can cover about 40 miles of distance

Answer 341

A

▪ A long range and fixed wireless solution that can go for miles
● Low Earth Orbit
o Requires more satellites to cover the entire planet but gives lower latency speeds
● Geosynchronous Orbit
o One satellite can cover a large portion of the Earth
o Geosynchronous orbit gives higher latency and lower
quality

Answer 342

A

▪ Uses radio frequency to send electromagnetic charge containing the
transaction data over a short distance

Answer 343

A

▪ A form of radio frequency transmission modified for use in authentication
systems

Answer 344

A

▪ Allows two devices to communicate using line of sight communication
in the infrared spectrum

Answer 345

A

▪ Creates a personal area network over 2.4 GHz to allow for wireless connectivity
● Bluejacking
o Sending unsolicited messages to a Bluetooth device
● Bluesnarfing
o Making unauthorized access to a device via Bluetooth
connection
● BlueBorne
o Allows the attacker to gain complete control over a device without even being connected to the target device

Answer 346

A

▪ Sharing cellular data Internet connection from a smartphone to multiple other devices
▪ Only connect to trusted wireless networks

Answer 347

A

▪ Establishes high speed links between their network and clients

Answer 348

A

▪ Runs as a dial-up connection and is used on the public switched
telephone network (PSTN)
▪ Analog connections can be voice or data converted from ones and zeros
▪ Dial-up modems have a maximum bandwidth of 53.3 kb/s

Answer 349

A

▪ Old system that is still used in some critical functions

Answer 350

A

▪ Supports multiple 64 Kbps channels
▪ ISDN is an older technology designed to carry voice, video, or data over B
(bearer) channels

Answer 351

A

▪ Has different speeds of download and upload
● Maximum Download Speed
o 8 Mbps
● Maximum Upload Speed
o 1.544 Mbps
▪ ADSL maximizes the download and minimizes the uploads

Answer 352

A

▪ Has equal speeds of download and upload

Answer 353

A

▪ Has high speeds of download and upload
● Download Speed
o 50 Mbps or more
● Upload Speed
o 10 Mbps or more
▪ ADSL Maximum Distance to DSLAM
● 18,000 ft.
▪ VDSL Maximum Distance to DSLAM
● 4,000 ft.

Answer 354

A

▪ Uses a cable TV network that is made up of a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC)
distribution network

Answer 355

A

▪ Specific frequency ranges used for upstream and downstream
transmissions
● Upstream
o 5 MHz to 42 MHz
● Downstream
o 50 MHz to 860 MHz

Answer 356

A

over cable television infrastructure

Answer 357

A

▪ Runs a fiber optic cable from an internet provider access point to a curb

Answer 358

A

▪ Fiber optic that connects directly to a building and connects to an optical
network terminal (ONT)

Answer 359

A

▪ Physical devices that convert optical signals to electrical signals

Answer 360

A

▪ SMS and text messaging
▪ International roaming
▪ Conference calling
▪ Use of internet
▪ Introduction to EDGE

Answer 361

A

▪ Used by the UMTS standard and could reach data speeds of up to 2 Mbps

Answer 362

A

▪ Reaches speeds of up to 14.4 Mbps and is sometimes referred to as 3.5G

Answer 363

A

▪ Reaches speeds of up to 50 Mbps and is sometimes referred to as 3.75G

Answer 364

A

▪ 100 Mbps

Answer 365

A

▪ 1 Gbps

Answer 366

A

in the millimeter wave band

Answer 367

A

the newer standard, it has increased in speeds

Answer 368

A

▪ Uses a beam of radio waves in the microwave frequency range to
transmit information between two fixed locations
● Ultra-high frequency (UHF)
● Super high frequency (SHF)
● Extremely high frequency (EHF)
▪ Both antennas must maintain a line of sight

Answer 369

A

▪ A method of using communication satellites located in space to connect a
user to the Internet
● Slow
● Expensive
● High latency

Answer 370

A

▪ Responsible for putting frames in the physical network’s transmission
media
▪ In the link/network interface layer, the data can only travel through the
local area network

Answer 371

A

▪ Used to address packets and route them across the network

Answer 372

A

▪ Shows how to send the packets
● TCP
o Transmission Control Protocol
● UDP
o User Datagram Protocol

Answer 373

A

▪ Contains all the protocols that perform higher-level functions

Answer 374

A

▪ A logical identifier for a group of hosts in a computer network

Answer 375

A

▪ Default subnet mask for a given class of IP addresses

Answer 376

A

▪ Allows for borrowing some of the host bits and reassigning them to the
network portion

Answer 377

A

Can be accessed over the Internet and is assigned to the network by an
Internet service provider

Answer 378

A

▪ Can be used by anyone any time, but only within their own local area
network
▪ Private IP ranges include those that start with either 10, 172, or 192

Answer 379

A

allows for routing of private IPs through a
public IP

Answer 380

A

▪ Creates a loopback to the host and is often used in troubleshooting and
testing network protocols on a system

Answer 381

A

▪ Used when a device does not have a static IP address or cannot reach a
DHCP server
● 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255
D iscover
O ffer
R equest
A cknowledge

Answer 382

A

▪ Manually type the IP address for the host, its subnet mask, default
gateway, and DNS server
▪ Static assignment of IP addresses is impractical on large enterprise
networks

Answer 383

A

▪ Dynamic allocation of IP addresses

Answer 384

A

▪ Converts the domain names used by a website to the IP address of its
server
▪ DNS is the internet version of a phone book

Answer 385

A

▪ Identifies NetBIOS systems on a TCP/IP network and converts those
NetBIOS names to IP addresses

Answer 386

A

▪ Dynamically assigns IP addresses and allows a workstation to load a copy
of boot image to the network

Answer 387

A

▪ Assigns an IP based on an assignable scope or addresses and provides the
ability to configure other options
▪ 192.168.1.100 through 192.168.1.200
● Each IP is leased for a period of time and returns to the pool when the lease expires

Answer 388

A

▪ Manages the IPs being assigned and returned over time

Answer 389

A

implementation of BOOTP

Answer 390

A

▪ Used when a device does not have a static IP address or cannot reach a
DHCP server
▪ Allows for the quick configuration of a LAN without the need for a DHCP
server
▪ APIPA-assigned devices cannot communicate outside the LAN
or with non-APIPA devices

Answer 391

A

▪ New technology that provides the same features as APIPA
▪ Assign an IPv4 link-local address to a client
▪ Resolve computer names to IP addresses without the need for DNS by
using mDNS (multicast domain name service)
▪ Perform service discovery on a network
● Windows
o Link-Local Multicast Name Resolution (LLMNR)
● Linux
o SystemD

Answer 392

A

▪ Provides an IP address to every machine on the network and eliminates
configuration errors

Answer 393

A

▪ List of valid IP addresses available for assignment or lease to a client
computer or endpoint device on a given subnet
▪ 254 available Ips

Answer 394

A

▪ Excludes some IP addresses from being handed to devices unless they
meet a certain condition
Discover
Offer
Request
Acknowledge

Answer 395

A

also be statically assigned

Answer 396

A

▪ Helps network clients find a website using human-readable hostnames
instead of numeric IP addresses

Answer 397

A

▪ Domain name under a top-level provider

Answer 398

A

▪ Contains the FQDN with the method of accessing information

Answer 399

A

to point to another domain or subdomain, not
to an IP address

Answer 400

A

▪ DNS record that identifies the host authorized to send mail for the
domain

Answer 401

A

▪ provides the cryptographic authentication mechanism for mail using a
public key published as a DNS record

Answer 402

A

▪ Framework that is used for proper application of SPF and DKIM, utilizing a
policy that’s published as a DNS record

Answer 403

A

▪ Type of DNS server that stores all the DNS records for a given domain

Answer 404

A

▪ Allows cloud instances on the same network access each other using
internal DNS names

Answer 405

A

▪ Records created around the domain names from a central authority and
used on the public Internet

Answer 406

A

▪ Tells the DNS resolver how long to cache a query before requesting a new
one

Answer 407

A

▪ Makes a local copy of every DNS entry it resolves as connected to
websites

Answer 408

A

▪ DNA server communicates with several other DNS servers to hunt down
the IP address and return to the client

Answer 409

A

▪ Each DNS server responds directly to the client with an address for
another DNS server that may have the correct IP address

Answer 410

A

▪ Allows different logical networks to share the same physical hardware
and provides added security and efficiency

Answer 411

A

▪ Tag Protocol Identifier (TPI)
▪ Tag Control Identifier (TCI)

Answer 412

A

▪ Extends a private network across a public network and enables sending
and receiving data across shared or public networks

Answer 413

A

▪ Routes and encrypts all network requests through the VPN connection
back to the headquarters

Answer 414

A

▪ Routes and encrypts only the traffic bound for the headquarters over the
VPN, and sends the rest of the traffic to the regular Internet

Answer 415

A

▪ Creates a secure remote-access VPN tunnel using a web browser without
requiring a software or hardware client

Answer 416

A

▪ Provides cryptography and reliability using the upper layers of the OSI
model (Layers 5, 6, and 7)

Answer 417

A

▪ Provides secure web browsing over HTTPS

Answer 418

A

▪ 4.2 billion addresses

Answer 419

A

▪ Running out of network addresses in IPv4
● IPv4 = 2³²
o 4.2 billion addresses
● IPv6 = 2128
o 340 undecillion addresses

Answer 420

A

● Larger address space
● No broadcasts
● No fragmentation
● Can coexist with IPv4
● Simplified header

Answer 421

A

▪ Simultaneously runs both the IPv4 and IPv6 protocols on the same
network devices

Answer 422

A

▪ Allows an existing IPv4 router to carry IPv6 traffic

Answer 423

A

hexadecimal digits and allows the use of shorthand
notation

Answer 424

A

▪ Used to identify a single interface
● Globally Routed
o Like IPv4’s unicast class A, B, and C addresses
and begins with 2000-3999
● Link-Local/Local Use
o Used like a private IP in IPv4 that can only be used on the
local area network and begins with FE80

Answer 425

A

▪ Eliminates the need to obtain addresses or other configuration
information from a central server

Answer 426

A

▪ Used to identify a set of interfaces and begins with FF

Answer 427

A

▪ Used to identify a set of interfaces so that a packet can be sent to any
member of a set

Answer 428

A

▪ Allows a host to assign itself a unique 64-bit IPv6 interface identifier
called EUI-64

Answer 429

A

▪ Allows DHCP to automatically assign addresses from a DHCPv6 server

Answer 430

A

Used to determine the Layer 2 addresses that are on a given network

Answer 431

A

▪ Logical communication endpoint that exists on a computer or server

Answer 432

A

Logical communication opening on a server that is listening for a
connection from a client

Answer 433

A

▪ Logical communication opening created on a client to call out to a server
that is listening for a connection

Answer 434

A

0 and 65,535

Answer 435

A

▪ Ports 0 to 1023 are considered well-known and are assigned by the
Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

Answer 436

A

▪ Ports 1024 to 49151 are considered registered and are usually assigned
to proprietary protocols

Answer 437

A

by any application without being
registered with IANA

Answer 438

A

for gaming, instant
messaging, and chat

Answer 439

A

o Ports 20, 21
o Provides insecure file transfers

Answer 440

A

o Port 22
o Provides secure remote control of another machine using
a text-based environment

Answer 441

A

o Port 22
o Provides secure file transfers

Answer 442

A

o Port 23
o Provides insecure remote control of another machine
using a text-based environment

Answer 443

A

o Port 25
o Provides the ability to send emails over the network

Answer 444

A

o Port 53
o Converts domain names to IP addresses, and IP address
to domain names

Answer 445

A

o Ports 67, 68
o Automatically provides network parameters such as
assigned IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and
the DNS server

Answer 446

A

o Port 80
o Used for insecure web browsing

Answer 447

A

o Port 110
o Used for receiving incoming emails

Answer 448

A

o Ports 137, 139
o Used for file or printer sharing in a Windows network

Answer 449

A

o Port 143
o A newer method of retrieving incoming emails which
improves upon the older POP3

Answer 450

A

o Ports 161, 162
o Used to collect data about network devices and monitor
their status

Answer 451

A

o Port 389
o Used to provide directory services to your network

Answer 452

A

o Port 443
o Used as a secure and encrypted version of web browsing
▪ SSL (Secure Socket Layer)
▪ TLS (Transport Layer Security)

Answer 453

A

o Port 445
o Used for Windows file and printer sharing services

Answer 454

A

o Port 3389
o Provides graphical remote control of another client or
server
o RDP provides a full graphical user interface

Answer 455

A

▪ Connection-oriented protocol, which means it’s a reliable way to
transport segments across the network

Answer 456

A

▪ Unreliable and it transmits segments called data grams
● TCP (Connection-Oriented)
o SSH, HTTP or HTTPS
● UDP (Connectionless)
o Audio, video streaming, DHCP, and TFTP
▪ Dynamic Host Control Protocol (DHCP)
● Ports 67, 68
● Automatically provides network parameters
such as assigned IP address, subnet mask,
default gateway, and the DNS server
▪ Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
● Ports 69
● a connectionless protocol that uses UDP as
its transport

Answer 457

A

▪ Can be configured to allow the clients on the network to access the
network and be able to read and write to its disk (file share)

Answer 458

A

▪ Another server that could be a physical workstation or network
infrastructure that provides printing functionality

Answer 459

A

▪ Relies on the NetBIOS protocol or SMB
● Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS)
o Ports 137, 139
o Used for file or printer sharing in a Windows network
● Server Message Block (SMB)
o Port 445
o Used for Windows file and printer sharing services

Answer 460

A

▪ Provides the ability for a Linux or Unix server to be able to host files or
printers that can then be used by Windows clients running the SMB
protocol

Answer 461

A

▪ Supports windows machines known as Samba
● File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
o Ports 20, 21
▪ Provides insecure file transfers
o IP-based File and Print Server / Cloud Printing
▪ Allows for printing anywhere in the world

Answer 462

A

▪ Any server that provides access to a website
● HTTP
o Port 80
● HTTPS
o Port 443

Answer 463

A

▪ Extensible web server software, created by Microsoft (HTTP, HTTP/2, and
HTTPS)

Answer 464

A

▪ Most popular way to run a web server these days

Answer 465

A

▪ Reverse proxy, load balancer, mail proxy, and HTTP cache

Answer 466

A

▪ Combines the fully qualified domain name with a protocol at the
beginning

Answer 467

A

it will be able to see a digital
certificate to create a random code

Answer 468

A

▪ Servers that are set up to compose a message and send it to another user

Answer 469

A

o Specifies how emails should be delivered from one mail
domain to another
o Send mail transfer protocol
o SMTP operates over port 25

Answer 470

A

o Older email protocol which operates over port 110

Answer 471

A

Older email protocol which operates over port 110

Answer 472

A

o Mail retrieval protocol
o IMAP operates over port 143 and can connect to a server
and receive and read messages

Answer 473

A

o Mailbox server environment designed for Windows-based
domain environments
o Microsoft Exchange Server is widely used in many
corporate environments

Answer 474

A

▪ Standardized framework used for port-based authentication on wired
and wireless networks

Answer 475

A

▪ Occurs when a person’s identity is established with proof and is
confirmed by the system
● Something you know
● Something you are
● Something you have
● Something you do
● Somewhere you are

Answer 476

A

A database used to centralize information about clients and objects on
the network

Answer 477

A

Used to organize and manage the network, including clients, servers,
devices, users, and groups

Answer 478

A

▪ Provides centralized administration of dial-up, VPN, and wireless
authentication services for 802.1x and the EAP
● RADIUS operates at the application layer
● RADIUS utilizes UDP for making connections

Answer 479

A

▪ Proprietary version of RADIUS that can perform the role of an
authenticator in 802.1x networks

Answer 480

A

▪ Occurs when a user is given access to a certain piece of data or certain
areas of a building

Answer 481

A

▪ Authentication protocol used by Windows to provide for two-way
(mutual) authentication using a system of tickets
▪ A domain controller can be a single point of failure for Kerberos

Answer 482

A

▪ Ensures the tracking of data, computer usage, and network resources is
maintained

Answer 483

A

▪ Occurs when you have proof that someone has taken an action

Answer 484

A

▪ Sends text-based commands to remote devices and is a very old
networking protocol
▪ Telnet should never be used to connect to secure devices

Answer 485

A

▪ Encrypts everything that is being sent and received between the
client and the server

Answer 486

A

▪ Provides graphical interface to connect to another computer over a
network connection
▪ Remote desktop gateway (RDG) creates a secure connection to tunnel
into the RDP

Answer 487

A

▪ Designed for thin client architectures

Answer 488

A

▪ Any kind of software that replicates the TTY I/O functionality to remotely
connect to a device
▪ TTY is the terminal or end point of the communication between the
computer and the end-user

Answer 489

A

▪ Enables different appliances and software applications to transmit logs to
a centralized server
▪ Syslog is the de facto standard for logging events
● PRI code (Priority code)
● Header
● Message

Answer 490

A

▪ TCP/IP protocol that aids in monitoring network-attached devices and
computers

Answer 491

A

▪ Computers and other network-attached devices monitored using agents
by a network management system

Answer 492

A

▪ Software that is loaded on a managed device to redirect information to
the network management system

Answer 493

A

▪ Software running on one or more servers to control the monitoring of
network-attached devices and computers

Answer 494

A

an out-of-band network to increase
security

Answer 495

A

▪ Devices that create a network connection between an end user’s client
machine and a remote resource (web server)
● Increased network speed and efficiency
● Increased security
● Additional auditing capabilities

Answer 496

A

▪ Distributes incoming requests across several servers inside a server farm
or a cloud infrastructure
▪ A load balancer is one of the key things to help defend against a DoS
attack or a DDoS attack

Answer 497

A

o Involves a continual flooding of victim systems with
requests for services, causing the system to crash (single
attacker)

Answer 498

A

Multiple machines simultaneously launch attacks on the
server to force it offline (multiple attackers)

Answer 499

A

Identifies any attacking IP addresses and routes their
traffic through a Knoll interface

Answer 500

A

o Works for small-scale attacks against DoS

Answer 501

A

o Allows to scale up the demand as needed

Answer 502

A

▪ Rule sets placed on the firewalls, routers, and other network devices that
permit or allow traffic through a particular interface
▪ The actions are performed top-down inside of an ACL
● Top
o Specific rules
● Bottom
o Generic rules

Answer 503

A

Inspects and controls the traffic that is trying to enter or leave a
network’s boundary
● Packet-filtering
● Stateful
● Proxy
● Dynamic packet-filtering
● Kernel proxy

Answer 504

A

▪ Provides the ability to conduct security functions within a single device or
network appliance

Answer 505

A

▪ Includes computers, servers, networks, and cloud platforms

Answer 506

A

▪ Communications network designed to implement an ICS
▪ Technology that interacts with the real world

Answer 507

A

▪ Provides the mechanisms for workflow and process automation by
controlling machinery using embedded devices
▪ Multiple ICSs can create a distributed control system (DCS)

Answer 508

A

▪ Digital serial data communication protocol used in OT networks
to link different PLCs

Answer 509

A

▪ Type of digital computer used in industrial settings that enables
automation and assembly lines, autonomous field operations, robotics,
and other applications

Answer 510

A

▪ Can be a local control panel or software that runs on a computer

Answer 511

A

▪ Type of ICS used to manage large scale multi-site devices and equipment
in a geographic region from a host computer
● Cellular
● Microwave
● Satellite
● Fiber
● VPN-based LAN

Answer 512

A

▪ Computer system that is designed to perform specific and dedicated
functions
▪ These systems are considered static environments, where frequent
changes are not allowed

Answer 513

A

▪ Type of digital computer used in industrial or outdoor settings
▪ The PLC patch is every six months or two years

Answer 514

A

▪ Type of OS that prioritizes deterministic execution of operations that
ensure consistent response for time-critical tasks
▪ Embedded systems in critical applications

Answer 515

A

▪ Processor integrates the platform functionality of multiple logical
controllers onto a single chip
● Processor
● Memory
● Storage
● Graphics processor
● Peripherals

Answer 516

A

▪ Computer system that is no longer supported by its vendor and no longer
provided with security updates and patches
▪ Identify legacy systems and put mitigations in place to keep operating
such systems

Answer 517

A

▪ System that is owned by its developer or vendor

Answer 518

A

▪ Any device that makes it portable and easy to use

Answer 519

A

Any touchscreen that works by seeing the distortion in an electrostatic
field
▪ A single tactile input is one touch at a time

Answer 520

A

▪ Can process two or more contact points simultaneously

Answer 521

A

▪ Uses liquid crystal where the properties can change with the application
of voltage

Answer 522

A

▪ Individual point on a screen inside of a display
▪ A thin-film transistor (TFT) is referred to as an LCD panel

Answer 523

A

▪ Contains crystals that twist or untwist in response to the voltage being
applied or removed
▪ TN supports fast response time in comparison to other TFT technologies
and displays

Answer 524

A

▪ Uses crystals that rotate to be able to deliver color
▪ IPS panels can support 178° horizontal and vertical viewing angles

Answer 525

A

▪ Crystals are tilted to be able to deliver color
▪ A VA display has a contrast ratio of two to three times better than a
standard IPS display

Answer 526

A

▪ Lamp that sits behind the display and lights up the liquid crystal display to
show the colors and images properly on the screen
▪ CCFL requires AC voltage

Answer 527

A

▪ Newer form of light that uses direct current (DC)
▪ The use of LEDs uses less power, leading to longer battery life and better
performance

Answer 528

A

o Organic LED (OLED)
▪ Each pixel has its own separate LED that provides the light
▪ OLEDs can be made from plastic
▪ OLEDs can be folded, rolled up, or manipulated to create different shapes
and sizes of displays

Answer 529

A

o Digitizer
▪ Layer sandwiched between a layer of protective glass and the display
panel inside of a touchscreen display
▪ Haptic feedback provides a form of touch responsiveness from the
display back to the end-user

Answer 530

A

▪ Combination device that uses hardware and software to measure the
velocity, rotation, and shaking of a mobile device
▪ The accelerometer works when dealing with the X (horizontal) and Y
(vertical) axis

Answer 531

A

▪ An improved version of the basic accelerometer
● Detects pitch (Y), roll (X), and yaw (Z)
● Performs actions
● Stabilizes images

Answer 532

A

▪ Device that can be used to manipulate the cursor on the screen

Answer 533

A

▪ Large format touch device attached as a peripheral to a laptop,
smartphone, or tablet
▪ A drawing pad uses a touch pen

Answer 534

A

▪ Any device used to record audio or capture voice when making a phone
call

Answer 535

A

▪ Allows to hear things that are coming out from devices, such as music or
videos

Answer 536

A

▪ Combines both the microphone and speaker into one device

Answer 537

A

▪ Provides the ability to capture a live image in a still format

Answer 538

A

▪ Comes in different types of Wi-Fi, including wireless a, b, g, n, ac, and ax
▪ Wireless connectivity on smaller devices is slower than it is on larger
devices
▪ Larger antennas pick up signals with more strength and faster speeds

Answer 539

A

▪ Network that allows to connect to the Internet using cellular radio inside
the handset and connect to a network service provider

Answer 540

A

▪ Cellular technology that takes the voice during a call and converts it into a
digital format

Answer 541

A

▪ Cellular technology that uses code division to split up the channel
▪ CDMA is a more powerful and flexible technology than GSM
● W-CDMA
o Wideband CDMA
● UMTS
o Universal Mobile Telecommunications System
▪ An electronic SIM is a cheaper way of getting a data service when
overseas

Answer 542

A

▪ Contains all the information about different cellular towers
▪ Restrictions vary from model to model and depends on the device’s
country of origin

Answer 543

A

▪ Used as a short-range point-to-point network connection between a
mobile device and an accessory

Answer 544

A

▪ Allows a device to receive and send information in the NFC format
▪ The pairing process can be done automatically by using NFC connection

Answer 545

A

▪ Proprietary cable that is only used by Apple devices

Answer 546

A

▪ Modern version of USB that operates at USB 3.0 speeds and can provide
data

Answer 547

A

▪ D-shaped connector with 9 pins that is used to connect external serial
devices like modems

Answer 548

A

▪ Device that allows to connect to a device and get information from it

Answer 549

A

▪ Uses the exact same features as a laptop
▪ Port replicator makes life easier by providing easier access to all the ports

Answer 550

A

▪ Advanced type of port replicator that provides all the capabilities and
features of a laptop
● Port Replicator
o Port mirror
● Docking Station
o Additional ports

Answer 551

A

Used to provide different features and functionality to a mobile device

Answer 552

A

▪ Offers an open-source code base

Answer 553

A

▪ Developed by Apple for use on iPhones and iPads
▪ iOS relies on closed-source code

Answer 554

A

▪ The software and the original source code are available to download,
modify, and redistribute
▪ Android OS has a lower cost of services by using an open-source platform
as a code base

Answer 555

A

▪ Proprietary software that is licensed under the exclusive legal rights of
the copyright holder
● Open-Source Software
o Creativity and change
● Closed-Source Software
o Change is not allowed

Answer 556

A

▪ Application on an iOS device to access a store to purchase and download
applications
● iOS Application
o Swift and Xcode
● Android Application
o Java and Android Studio

Answer 557

A

▪ Provides the ability to have office productivity software and a large
amount of storage space in the cloud (OneDrive)

Answer 558

A

▪ Act of copying data back and forth between different devices

Answer 559

A

Record inside of an address book that contains fields of names,
addresses, emails, phone numbers, notes, etc.

Answer 560

A

▪ Standard format and is widely supported by most address books and
software applications

Answer 561

A

▪ Any record with fields for appointments or tasks with their corresponding
subject, date, location, and attendees
▪ Cloud-based service is easier and more synchronized

Answer 562

A

▪ Oldest format and does not support the synchronization across devices

Answer 563

A

manage the state of an email

Answer 564

A

consider what apps are supported on which devices

Answer 565

A

the ability to generate strong, random
passwords when signing up for a new account

Answer 566

A

▪ Provides the access to the cloud from all devices and becomes the central
repository of all data
▪ Encrypted data that is stored in the cloud is relatively safe
▪ Synchronization to the cloud requires a large amount of data

Answer 567

A

▪ Synchronizes directly to the desktop or laptop using a USB or Bluetooth
connection
▪ Install the iTunes app on the Windows PC to transfer the data from the
iPhone

Answer 568

A

▪ Class of software designed to apply security policies for use on mobile
devices

Answer 569

A

▪ Sets device-level policies for authentication, feature use, and conductivity
▪ MDM is a type of software that allows to control the device

Answer 570

A

▪ Sets forth policies for apps that can process corporate data and prevent
data transfer to personal apps

Answer 571

A

▪ Configures an enterprise-managed container or workspace where the
company’s data is stored

Answer 572

A

Detects when data is being taken from a device, ensuring it’s only being
used in the proper way

Answer 573

A

▪ MAM suite that allows applications from a private repository to devices
that are part of the corporate network

Answer 574

A

▪ Managed version of the Google Play store that contains apps that are
distributed to employees’ devices

Answer 575

A

▪ Simplest form of authentication and refers to something you know

Answer 576

A

▪ Refers to something you have

Answer 577

A

▪ Refers to something you are

Answer 578

A

▪ Refers as something you do
▪ Voice recognition systems are not looking at what is said, but at how it is
said

Answer 579

A

▪ Refers to somewhere you are

Answer 580

A

▪ Application that serves as a possession factor inside of a mobile device

Answer 581

A

two or more factors

Answer 582

A

▪ Oldest method of positioning using mobile phones

Answer 583

A

▪ Space-based radio navigation system, consisting of satellites and
networks of ground stations

Answer 584

A

Allows a device to be used indoors to figure out the location

Answer 585

A

as a privacy aspect

Answer 586

A

▪ Tracking of a location for a given amount of time
▪ Disable GPS and IPS to block geo-tracking
▪ Geotagging is the GPS coordinates inside photos

Answer 587

A

when connecting to the email servers

Answer 588

A

▪ Receiving email/Inbound mail

Answer 589

A

▪ Sending/Outbound mail
▪ Major providers like Gmail, Outlook, or Yahoo use auto configuration
▪ Small or medium-sized businesses use their own institutional email server

Answer 590

A

▪ New and advanced secure version of encryption

Answer 591

A

Allows users to create a template of a feature of the laptop’s body
(fingerprint, facial scan, or voice recognition)

Answer 592

A

▪ Used to pair peripheral devices to a smartphone or tablet

Answer 593

A

▪ Small port on the side of a laptop that able to connect a metal braided
cable to lock

Answer 594

A

o Entire keyboard
o Particular key
o Touch pad
o When replacing the keyboard or touch pad, use one from the manufacturer

Answer 595

A

instructions before starting the process

Answer 596

A

▪ Printhead
● Inkjet printer
▪ Drum and toner cartridges
● Laser printer

Answer 597

A

condensation and moisture inside the printer

Answer 598

A

should be well-ventilated

Answer 599

A

▪ Print queuing system
▪ Print authentication system

Answer 600

A

▪ Found in a home environment
▪ Windows has the ability to detect a printer using plug and play

Answer 601

A

▪ Network cable that uses an RJ45 port
▪ A printer with Ethernet capability supports DHCP

Answer 602

A

▪ Comes with either Wi-Fi or Bluetooth
● Infrastructure Mode
o Printer is connected to the access point
● Wi-Fi Direct Mode
o Allows the printer to act as an access point

Answer 603

A

▪ Uses a wireless point-to-point connection from the printer
to the computer

Answer 604

A

▪ Program that controls physical printers

Answer 605

A

▪ Integrated into a printer
▪ You must have administrative rights to install print drivers

Answer 606

A

▪ Start > Settings > Bluetooth & devices > Printers & scanners

Answer 607

A

▪ Start > Settings > Devices > Printers & scanners

Answer 608

A

▪ Settings > Printers & scanners

Answer 609

A

▪ Used to create a raster file from the print commands that are sent by a
software application

Answer 610

A

▪ Capable of being resized to any size

Answer 611

A

▪ Size can be changed before printing
● Bitmap
o Distorted
● Vector
o Clear
● Additive
o Display
● Subtractive
o Printer

Answer 612

A

▪ Developed by HP and is closely tied to the features of different printer
models

Answer 613

A

Created by Adobe and is designed to be a device-independent PDL

Answer 614

A

Microsoft’s page description language (PDL)

Answer 615

A

▪ Created by Adobe which keeps a file’s original look when viewed or
printed on different systems
▪ PDF is larger in size than XPS format files
1. When installing a printer, also install the appropriate driver
2. Two generic formats: PCL and Postscript
3. Virtual printers: XPS and PDF

Answer 616

A

▪ Software application or hardware device that manages print requests and
printer queue status information
▪ Centralized print server allows to control, to configure, and to
troubleshoot the devices remotely from a network
▪ Print servers are suitable for small and home offices with up to fifty
servers
▪ Embedded print servers support one printer

Answer 617

A

▪ Allows to share network printers and centralize the print server from the
centralized window server

Answer 618

A

▪ Allows to connect a printer using Bluetooth or USB

Answer 619

A

▪ Service built into the Windows OS and exists to help print jobs

Answer 620

A

▪ Sets permissions for the printer that require a log in with a username or
password

Answer 621

A

▪ Record of jobs that have been sent and printed on a particular device

Answer 622

A

▪ Device held on the printer until the user’s authentication

Answer 623

A

▪ Allows the printer to be used as a copy machine or a scanner

Answer 624

A

▪ Digital imaging device

Answer 625

A

▪ Convert scanned text into digital documents that can be manipulated
using a word processing program

Answer 626

A

▪ Creates an entire page at one time during the printing process

Answer 627

A

Main component that creates the image to be applied to the paper

Answer 628

A

▪ Heats up and melts the toner onto the page to adhere properly to the
page

Answer 629

A

▪ Used to transfer the image from the image drum and become fused

Answer 630

A

▪ Used to pick up the paper from the feed tray and feed it through the
system

Answer 631

A

▪ Helps the pickup rollers to ensure they only pick up a single piece of
paper at a time

Answer 632

A

▪ Moves the paper from the front to the back

Answer 633

A

a plastic housing that contains toner powder

Answer 634

A

last longer than the toner

Answer 635

A

▪ The OS uses a print driver to translate what’s on the screen to print

Answer 636

A

memory upgrading using a SODIMM module

Answer 637

A

▪ The imaging drum is conditioned with the primary charge roller

Answer 638

A

▪ The surface coding of the photosensitive imaging drum is losing its charge
when exposed to light

Answer 639

A

▪ The laser printer takes the toner and applies it to a developer roller

Answer 640

A

Moving the toner from the imaging drum into the print media

Answer 641

A

▪ The fuser squeezes the paper between a hot roller and a pressure roller

Answer 642

A

▪ The photosensitive drum needed to be cleaned and get all the remaining
toner particles cleaned off

Answer 643

A

-600 VDC (negative 600 volts DC)

Answer 644

A

a duplexing assembly installed

Answer 645

A

and allow it to cool down

Answer 646

A

Buy laser paper that is rated for the type of printer
▪ Store the paper in a nice dry area that does not have high humidity or
excessive dust

Answer 647

A

▪ Standard toner cartridge has 2500 pages
▪ High-yield cartridge has 6000 pages

Answer 648

A

▪ Feed rollers pull up one sheet at a time and feed it through the system
▪ Transfer rollers are used to take the toner off the imaging drum and
apply it to the paper
▪ Fuser unit is responsible for heating up the toner and making it bond to
the page
▪ Page count indicates when to change the feed roller, transfer roller, or
the fuse unit

Answer 649

A

▪ Process by which the printer determines the print density or color
balance to use

Answer 650

A

▪ If toner gets on the skin, wash it with cold water
▪ Do not use compressed air
▪ Some printers with filters must be kept free from dust and dirt

Answer 651

A

a nozzle or jet on a print
head onto the paper

Answer 652

A

seven different cartridges

Answer 653

A

▪ Device that takes the droplets of ink and directs into the paper

Answer 654

A

▪ Uses a nozzle that reacts to changes in voltage

Answer 655

A

▪ Used by HP, Canon, and Lexmark printers, and relies on heating up the
ink in the nozzle of the printhead

Answer 656

A

replacing
the ink cartridge

Answer 657

A

to replace the printhead when replacing
the ink cartridge

Answer 658

A

▪ Responsible for advancing the paper through the inkjet printer

Answer 659

A

▪ Allows multiple pieces of paper in a tray to be selected one piece of
paper at a time and passes it to the roller

Answer 660

A

▪ Allows an inkjet printer to print on both sides of a piece of paper

Answer 661

A

▪ Allows the printhead to move back and forth across the page

Answer 662

A

▪ Printhead will only apply ink from left to right

Answer 663

A

▪ Apply ink from left to right and from right to left

Answer 664

A

▪ Type of printer that uses a heating element to create an image

Answer 665

A

high-speed environments

Answer 666

A

(CMYK) and is used to create the heat
transfer

Answer 667

A

▪ Laser Printer
● 300 - 600 dpi
▪ Thermal Printer
● 100 - 300 dpi

Answer 668

A

▪ Uses thermal ribbon to create images

Answer 669

A

▪ Open the printer case
▪ Insert the role (shiny part facing outward)
▪ Place the end of the paper by the printhead and close again

Answer 670

A

▪ Use isopropyl alcohol with cotton swab to clean the printhead

Answer 671

A

▪ Unplug the thermal printer
▪ Take out the paper role
▪ Clean the feed mechanism

Answer 672

A

the quality of the dots

Answer 673

A

▪ Series of holes going down the side of the paper with a perforation
between the regular paper and tracks

Answer 674

A

▪ Device that has a series of pins that make up the dot matrix that forms
the image

Answer 675

A

▪ Fabric or material held within a plastic housing in front of the printhead

Answer 676

A

▪ Exists on both sides of the printer and pulls the paper through the printer
using tractor fed paper

Answer 677

A

cool down for 30 to 60 minutes

Answer 678

A

▪ Type of printer that creates images in three dimensions (height, width,
and depth)

Answer 679

A

of the overall 3D model

Answer 680

A

▪ Flat plate where the material will be extruded and built

Answer 681

A

▪ Sheet placed on top of the base plate that hold the object into position
while printing

Answer 682

A

▪ Printhead for 3D printers

Answer 683

A

Helps to cool down the melted filament to retain the consistency

Answer 684

A

Ink for 3D printers (1.75 mm or 3 mm)

Answer 685

A

Identify the problem
Establish a theory of probable cause
Test the theory to determine the cause
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution
Verify full system functionality
Document the findings, actions, and outcome

Answer 686

A

o What happened?
o What was the status before?
o What is the status after that?
o Are there any changes in the system?

Answer 687

A

▪ Different possible causes that may have happened

Answer 688

A

▪ Damaged processor or motherboard components

Answer 689

A

▪ Hard drive

Answer 690

A

▪ Power issue or broken fan

Answer 691

A

o Theory is confirmed
o Theory is not confirmed
o Lack skills or authority
o Unable to solve
o Escalate when there is an issue

Answer 692

A

o Repair
o Replace
o Workaround
o How many are the resources
o How much time does it take
o How much is the cost
o Impact on the users and system
o A change of plan needs to get the authorization again

Answer 693

A

o Identify the problem
o Establish a theory
o Test the theory
o Establish a plan of action
o Verify system functionality
o Check that the problem has been solved
o Inspect the other components to ensure nothing else is damaged, broken, or
disconnected
o Check the logs and diagnostic tools to confirm everything is working the way
they should
o Verify system functionality
o Implement preventative measures

Answer 694

A

Documentation
▪ Document the findings, actions, and outcomes
o The trouble ticketing system allows to do the trend analysis
o The trouble ticketing system can document the amount of work

Answer 695

A

o Power button is not connected properly to the motherboard

Answer 696

A

▪ Use a multimeter or voltmeter to test the power outlet
● 110-120V/60Hz
US or Canada
● 220-240V/50Hz
Europe or Asia

Answer 697

A

▪ Positive pin
▪ Negative pin
▪ Grounding pin

Answer 698

A

▪ 12V DC
▪ 5V DC
▪ 3.3V DC
▪ A power supply tester has a small variation or tolerance
● Bottom
Largest connector
● Top
4,6,8 Pin connectors/SATA/Molex

Answer 699

A

▪ When testing detachable cables, check each pin on each side of the cable
to verify full continuity

Answer 700

A

● Power Issues

Answer 701

A

▪ Diagnostic program inside the system firmware
▪ POST beep codes are specific to the motherboard’s manufacturer
▪ POST-test expansion card identifies which component on the
motherboard is faulty and needs to be replaced

Answer 702

A

▪ Displays an error whenever the operating system has issue

Answer 703

A

o Blue Screen of Death (BSOD)
▪ Indicates that there is a problem with the
underlying hardware that Windows cannot solve
● CRITICAL_PROCESS_DIED
● SYSTEM_THREAD_EXCEPTION_NOT_HANDLED
● IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL
● VIDEO_TDR_TIMEOUT_DETECTED
● PAGE_FAULT_IN_NONPAGED_AREA
● SYSTEM_SERVICE_EXCEPTION
● DPC_WATCHDOG_VIOLATION

Answer 704

A

o Pinwheel of Death
▪ macOS (OS X)
● Made by Apple and it runs on Apple
hardware (desktops and laptops)

Answer 705

A

o Kernel Panic
▪ In kernel panic, the system display gives an exit
code

Answer 706

A

all the components are generating heat that
builds up a thermal load

Answer 707

A

Shut down the system
Boot into the UEFI or BIOS

Answer 708

A

look at the temperature sensors inside of the system

Answer 709

A

intermittent shutdowns or continual rebooting

Answer 710

A

can cause permanent damage

Answer 711

A

wearing out, and pins getting bent or
damaged

Answer 712

A

a blown or burst capacitor

Answer 713

A

it loses the ability to
regulate electricity

Answer 714

A

overheating

Answer 715

A

reboot or shut down

Answer 716

A

● Performance Issues

Answer 717

A

the real-time clock (RTC) in sync

Answer 718

A

▪ Complementary Metal–Oxide–Semiconductor (CMOS)
● Non-volatile type of memory that stores the BIOS settings and is
built into the motherboard
▪ Non-Volatile RAM (NVRAM)
● Stores data without being constantly refreshed
o CMOS
o Real-time clock

Answer 719

A

o SSD/Hard drive
o Removable media
o Network

Answer 720

A

▪ Legacy method of providing the boot information
▪ A partition on a storage device is the logical part of an entire drive
● Windows
Single partition
● Linux
Multiple partitions
● Boot Configuration Data (BCD)
Windows
● GRUB/LILO
Linux

Answer 721

A

▪ Specialized boot scheme with modern advantages
▪ Inability to find a bootable device indicates a problem with MBR or GPT
● Bootable device not found
● Operating system not found
● Invalid drive specification
▪ The UEFI and BIOS set prioritized boot order based on their configurations
▪ Check if the internal storage device is working properly by looking, listening, and feeling

Answer 722

A

▪ Older storage devices that spin and move the read/write head across the
platter
▪ Low-cost, slower speed

Answer 723

A

▪ Non-volatile memory that stores data and can access data from the
device
▪ High cost, less storage, faster speed
▪ Solid-state devices have a limit on the amount of time to read and write
data

Answer 724

A

are signs of a hard disk drive mechanical
problem

Answer 725

A

▪ The LED activity light is constantly blinking

Answer 726

A

being used as a swap file or page
file

Answer 727

A

if the device is detected

Answer 728

A

▪ Allows to read and write on the hard drive by identifying the sector
▪ Use disk utility to identify which sectors are bad and try to recover them
● Sectors
Windows/Linux
● Blocks
Solid-state device

Answer 729

A

have a good backup drive

Answer 730

A

▪ Self-diagnostic program that alerts the OS if there is a failure

Answer 731

A

● Read Error Rate
● Spin-Up Time
● Reallocated Sector Count
● Seek Error Rate
● Power-On Hours
● Temperature

Answer 732

A

● A hard disk drive has a lower IOPS than a solid-state device
● Cloud can measure performance by using IOPS
● Low IOPS can be an issue with the hardware or the software

Answer 733

A

● Deleting and rewriting causes fragmentation

Answer 734

A

the risk of data loss

Answer 735

A

▪ If a RAID loses a disk, it will continue to operate as normal but at a slower
speed
▪ RAID rebuild is the utility used to rebuild the RAID

Answer 736

A

▪ Entire array or volume stops working
▪ When the RAID fails, restore from backup, reconfigure, and rebuild using
new disks

Answer 737

A

▪ HDMI
▪ DisplayPort
▪ Thunderbolt
▪ DVI-D
▪ DVI-I

Answer 738

A

▪ Check both ends of the cable are properly connected

Answer 739

A

▪ Use high-speed rated HDMI cable that supports higher bandwidth
▪ HDMI, DisplayPort, and Thunderbolt carry audio
▪ VGA or DVI cables do not carry sound

Answer 740

A

▪ Protects the audio and video signals between the systems over HDMI and
DisplayPort
▪ Upgrade the quality of the HDMI cable

Answer 741

A

o Broken cable
o Incorrect data source selected
o HDMI device issue

Answer 742

A

o Dim images
o No images
o Shut down or restart
o Burned-out bulb is when the projector bulb has no light and cannot send an
image
o Projector bulb has a lifespan of about 500-2000 hours
o Use gloves to protect the life of the bulb
o Cool down the projector for 15 to 30 minutes before removing the bulb
o The projector without the source input will shut down

Answer 743

A

▪ Dim image occurs when there is no brightness or color contrast control
set for displays

Answer 744

A

▪ Fuzzy image occurs when the output resolution from the computer is
lower

Answer 745

A

▪ Flashing screen means the cable is not properly connected

Answer 746

A

▪ There is no fix for a dead pixel

Answer 747

A

▪ Burn-in occurs when the same static picture is displayed on a screen for a
long time
▪ Animated screensaver
▪ Turn on inactivity

Answer 748

A

▪ Actual number of colors displayed
● 8-bit color palette
o (256 color variations)
● 16-bit color palette
o (32,768 color variations)
● 24-bit color palette
o (True color display)
o (16,777,216 color variations)
● 32-bit color palette
o (Deep color display)
o (1B color variations)
● Adobe RGB
● sRGB IEC
● Display P3

Answer 749

A

o Physical connection
o Cable length
o Interference
o Port flapping
o The link light shows a valid link
o A repeater is used to increase the connectivity signal
o The network cables near power lines use fiber optic connections

Answer 750

A

▪ 10 Mbps (Off)
▪ 100 Mbps (Orange)
▪ 1000 Mbps (Green)

Answer 751

A

▪ Power lines
▪ Fluorescent lighting
▪ Motors
▪ Generators

Answer 752

A

▪ Caused by an intermittent connectivity issue between the client and the
network switch
▪ Port flapping status is from upstate to downstate

Answer 753

A

▪ Manifesting the slowdown of network

Answer 754

A

▪ Network that sends or receives information
▪ Half duplex is the standard in hubs and network

Answer 755

A

▪ Network that sends or receives information at the same time
▪ Network interface cards are set to auto negotiation

Answer 756

A

Mismatch in the duplex setting
Mismatch in the speed setting
Network adapter drivers are out of date
Malware infection

Answer 757

A

o Intermittent wireless connectivity
o Signal interference
o Low signal strength
o Signal interference is causing signal issues
o Channels 1, 6, and 11 spread out the network and avoid interference
o Wireless a, n, ac, and ax are less prone to signal interference
o What frequency is being used?
o What is the maximum speed of that frequency?
o Which versions of wireless networking are being used?
o Configure the wireless access points to support the modern versions of the
protocols

Answer 758

A

▪ Intermittent Wireless Connectivity
Connected or disconnected network
▪ Intermittent Wired Connectivity
Upstate to a downstate of switch port

Answer 759

A

▪ Used to measure the signal strength based on an index level and gives a
value in decibels (dB)

Answer 760

A

▪ Increase the power of transmission
▪ Increase the antenna size
▪ Move closer to the source
▪ Wireless a, n, ac, and ax
5 GHz
▪ Wireless b, g, or n
2.4 GHz

Answer 761

A

▪ Set of protocols that are used to send streaming voice and video in real
time

Answer 762

A

▪ Time it takes for a signal to reach the intended client
▪ Keep latency under 50 to 100 milliseconds

Answer 763

A

▪ Measurement of the variation in delay over time
▪ When latency increases by up to 30-50 milliseconds, it starts to have jitter
▪ Increase network performance
▪ Implement quality of service

Answer 764

A

o The set settings for quality of service only affect things inside the network
o Setting the quality of service (QoS) allows prioritization of voice traffic

Answer 765

A

▪ Specialized message to receive within the operating system
1. Affects one network client
2. VLAN is properly configured

Answer 766

A

▪ IP address
▪ Subnet
▪ Default gateway
▪ DNS server IPs

Answer 767

A

o Poor battery health
o Charging issues
o Swollen batteries
o As batteries age, the maximum charge they can hold decreases
o Swollen batteries are caused by overcharging

Answer 768

A

▪ Any device that’s unable to properly cool itself down

Answer 769

A

▪ Dry off excess liquid
▪ Power off the device
▪ Disassemble the device
▪ Clean the circuit boards and contacts
▪ Replace the battery

Answer 770

A

▪ To fix the damaged port is to remove the port and replace it

Answer 771

A

▪ Glass
▪ Digitizer
▪ Screen
▪ Backlight

Answer 772

A

▪ Backlight
▪ Inverter

Answer 773

A

▪ Digitizer
● Device underneath the glass that responds to the input of the user
▪ The digitizers fail because of shock damage from dropping or liquid
damage

Answer 774

A

▪ When troubleshooting a cursor issue, check the touch pad sensitivity and
observe the user

Answer 775

A

▪ Connected to the right SSID
▪ Connected using the right password
▪ Move closer to the wireless access point
▪ Put the higher gain antenna on
▪ Operate 30 to 50 meters away from the wireless access point to maintain
a good connection

Answer 776

A

▪ Bluetooth enabled
▪ Properly paired
▪ Adequate battery
▪ Right range
▪ Bluetooth is a personal area network and used at up to 10 meters
▪ The wireless NIC is properly connected to the antennas

Answer 777

A

o Antivirus or anti-malware solution
o Excessive power drain
o Significant data transmission
o Camera and microphone
o Asking for additional permissions
o Back up the data
o Format the device and re-install the base operating system

Answer 778

A

o Locally connected printer
o Printer not found
o Printer has an online or offline status
o Assign the printer a valid IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS server
o Use the right SSID and password to ensure the printer joins the correct network
o To bring the printer back online, turn off the printer, wait ten seconds, and
power it on again
o Power Cycling
▪ Printer is turned on and off to release printing memory
● Local connections
● Wired connections
● Wireless connections

Answer 779

A

o Paper jam
o Grinding noise
o Check the printer for debris and paper tracks
o Inkjet and dot matrix printers are easier to detect a jam
o Paper feed issue is when the printer selects more than one piece of paper
through the printer
▪ Thin Paper - Low weight
▪ Thick Paper - High weight
o The pickup rollers are designed to pick up one piece of paper at a time
o Carriage mechanism brings the printhead across the page in an inkjet or impact
printer
▪ Toner cartridge
▪ Fuser
▪ Gears and rollers

Answer 780

A

▪ Draft output mode uses less ink and toner
▪ Faded printout is caused by the running out of ink inside of a printer ink
cartridge or toner

Answer 781

A

▪ Blank page is caused by a software issue

Answer 782

A

▪ White stripes in laser printers are caused by an issue with the toner
cartridge or the drum
▪ The uniform white stripe on the page indicates a problem with the drum

Answer 783

A

▪ Indicates the primary charge roller is dirty or damaged, or the high
voltage power supply to the developer unit is malfunctioning
▪ To fix the black stripes issue, troubleshoot the corona wire
or replace the drum and the toner cartridge

Answer 784

A

▪ Clean the printer using an approved toner vacuum

Answer 785

A

▪ The vertical or horizontal line is caused by dirty feed rollers
▪ Dirty photosensitive drum can create vertical or horizontal lines

Answer 786

A

▪ Check the voltage of the fuser and get the proper input voltage

Answer 787

A

▪ A double/echo/ghost/shadow image indicates a drum issue

Answer 788

A

▪ Software or printer driver issue could be causing the incorrect color

Answer 789

A

▪ Use rubbing alcohol to clean the contacts between the printer and the
cartridge
▪ Consistent white line indicates a blocked or clogged inkjet nozzle
▪ Replace the printhead and this will replace the dots inside of it
▪ Platen adjusts the gap between the paper and the printhead
to different paper sizes

Answer 790

A

o Incorrect page sizes
o Incorrect page orientations
o Issues with stapling
o Issues with hole punching
o Use the right paper size to print
o Word processor sets portrait as the default
o Slide presentation sets landscape as the default
o To solve staple jams, remove the staple cartridge and replace it

Answer 791

A

▪ Software program used to transmit the print job and provide status
information
▪ Print monitors look at toner and ink cartridge levels and notify when they
get low

Answer 792

A

▪ Software that collects all the print jobs and manages them

Answer 793

A

▪ Manages the paper printing jobs sent from a computer or a printer server
● Print Queue
Pending
● Print Spooler
Active

Answer 794

A

▪ Garbled Print Job
● Any output that is scrambled or encrypted
● Garbled printouts are a driver issue
● A font can cause a garbled printout

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