Diarrhea and malabsorption syndrome Flashcards

1
Q

what are the two types of diarrhea

A

acute < 14 days
chronic > 28 days

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2
Q

what are the etiologies of acute diarrhea

A

infections
- viral
- bacterial
- parasitic

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3
Q

which vira are involved in acute diarrhea ?

A

Rotavirus
norovirus
adenovirus
Astrovirus
coronarvirus

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4
Q

which bacteria are invovled in acute diarrhea

A
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Escherichia coli
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
  • Clotridium difficile
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5
Q

which parasites are involved in acute diarrhea ?

A
  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • Giardia lamblia
  • Cryptosporidium
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6
Q

When do symptoms of Clostridium difficile infection typically occur?

A

Usually after antibiotic treatments.

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7
Q

How does antibiotic use contribute to Clostridium difficile colonization?

A

Reduction of saprophytic (beneficial) flora allows for colonization of the colon with other, non-saprophytic bacteria, including Clostridium difficile.

widespread in europe - mostly in hospitals

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8
Q

What survival mechanism does Clostridium difficile possess?

A

The bacteria can form spores that survive for months, making it difficult to eradicate and contributing to recurrence.

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9
Q

What is the first-line treatment for Clostridium difficile infection (CDI)?

A

Oral Vancomycin or Fidaxomicin.

10 days of treatment

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10
Q

What is an alternative antibiotic that can be used for CDI if Vancomycin or Fidaxomicin are not available or appropriate?

A

Metronidazole.

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11
Q

What is the most important measure to prevent Clostridium difficile infection (CDI)?

A

Careful prescription of antibiotics - only when necessary.

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12
Q

Do recent AGA guidelines recommend probiotics for CDI prevention?

A

No, they do not recommend probiotics due to lack of efficiency.

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13
Q

How do proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) affect the risk of CDI?

A

Administration of PPIs reduces gastric acidity, which can make it easier for Clostridium difficile bacteria to survive and colonize the gut.

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14
Q

Provide an example of a situation where the benefit of antibiotics and other interventions might outweigh the risk of CDI.

A

In a patient with severe COPD (GOLD IV) and bacterial pneumonia, administration of antibiotics, corticosteroids, and PPIs may be necessary despite the increased risk of CDI due to the life-threatening nature of the pulmonary pathology.

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15
Q

What type of sample is used for Clostridium difficile testing?

A

Stool sample.

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16
Q

What toxins are detected in stool tests for Clostridium difficile infection (CDI)?

A

Toxins A and B.

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17
Q

What is GDH, and what is its role in CDI testing?

A

GDH stands for glutamate dehydrogenase.

It is an enzyme produced by Clostridium difficile bacteria.

It is not a toxin itself but is used as a marker for the presence of the bacteria.

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18
Q

Can GDH be used alone to diagnose CDI?

A

No, a positive GDH test alone is not sufficient for diagnosis. It must be correlated with clinical symptoms.

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19
Q

What is the risk of recurrence after an episode of Clostridium difficile infection (CDI)?

A

The risk of recurrence is high, up to 6 months after an event.

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20
Q

What is fecal matter transplant (FMT)?

A

FMT involves transplanting stool from a healthy donor into the patient’s colon to restore the normal gut microbiota.

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21
Q

When is FMT typically considered for CDI?

A

It is often considered a last-resort measure for recurrent or refractory CDI.

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22
Q

What are some challenges associated with FMT?

A

Legal and organizational difficulties, such as donor screening, stool processing, and ethical considerations.

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23
Q

In which age group are most cases of Giardia infection seen?

A

children

50% are asymptomatic of i nfected people

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24
Q

What is the main symptom of Giardia infection?

A

diarrhea

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25
Q

What are some other symptoms of Giardia infection?

A

Abdominal pain, changes in stool aspect (e.g., greasy, foul-smelling stools), and potential weight loss.

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26
Q

What is the main diagnostic test for Giardia infection?

A

Coproprasitological examination of stool.

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27
Q

How should the stool sample be collected for Giardia testing?

A

The sample should be taken from the altered-looking area of the stool, as this is where the parasites are most likely to be concentrated.

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28
Q

What is the primary treatment for Giardia infection?

A

Metronidazole

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29
Q

Chronic diaarhea etiology

A
  • Chronic infectious diarrhea – untreated Giardia, Clostridium difficile
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Irritable bowel syndrome (functional)
  • Malabsorption
  • Drug induced diarrhea - laxatives or side-effects
  • Bile acid abnormalities
  • Bacterial overpopulation
  • Effect of other diseases – endocrine (hypothyroidism), after radiation
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30
Q

What are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis.

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31
Q

What is the most common symptom of IBD?

A

Diarrhea, sometimes with rectal bleeding.

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32
Q

What causes the inflammation in IBD?

A

The inflammation is caused by an abnormal immune response, even in the absence of an infection.

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33
Q

How is IBD diagnosed?

A

Inflammatory markers (erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein, fecal calprotectin)
Colonoscopy
Histopathological examination (biopsy)

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34
Q

What is the main treatment for IBD?

A

nti-inflammatory medications.

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35
Q

What type of disease is Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)?

A

A functional disease, meaning there’s no visible damage or inflammation in the digestive tract.

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36
Q

What are the Rome IV criteria for diagnosing IBS?

A

Recurrent abdominal pain on average at least 1 day/week in the last 3 months

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37
Q

Rome IV Criteria (Part 2)
associated with two or more of the following criteria:

A

Related to defecation
Associated with a change in frequency of stool
Associated with a change in form (appearance) of stool

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38
Q

What type of reaction does gluten trigger in people with celiac disease?

A

An immune reaction, leading to inflammation in the small intestine.

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39
Q

Celiac disease symptoms are ?

A
  • Chronic watery diarrhea
  • Weight loss
  • Bloating
  • Dyspepsia
  • Herpetiform dermatitis (rare)
  • Edema (protein malabsorption)
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40
Q

what are the malabsorption in celiac disease?

A

Iron malabsorption

Calcium and vitamin D3 malabsorption

Vitamin K malabsorption

Protein malabsorption

Iron deficiency anemia

Osteoporosis

Coagulation deficit

Hypoalbuminemia, hypoproteinemia

41
Q

What are the two main categories of tests used to diagnose Celiac Disease?

A

Serum tests and Genetic tests.

42
Q

Name three types of serum tests used in Celiac Disease diagnosis.

A

Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies (IgA), Total IgA, and Antigliadinic antibodies.

43
Q

Why is it important to measure Total IgA in Celiac Disease diagnosis?

A

due to false negative

44
Q

What genetic markers are tested for in Celiac Disease diagnosis?

A

HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

45
Q

What procedure is used to visually examine the duodenum in Celiac Disease diagnosis?

A

upper digestive endoscopy

46
Q

What is a typical visual finding in the duodenum during an endoscopy for Celiac Disease?

A

A smooth aspect of the second part of the duodenum.

47
Q

What cellular finding in a duodenal biopsy is indicative of Celiac Disease?

A

Intraepithelial lymphocytes.

48
Q

What structural change in the duodenal lining is seen in Celiac Disease?

A

Atrophy of the villi.

49
Q

what is the testing for carb intolorence ?

A

hydrogen breath test

50
Q

What is the main consequence of exocrine pancreatic failure?

A

Inability of the pancreas to secrete pancreatic enzymes.

51
Q

Name three conditions that can lead to exocrine pancreatic failure.

A

Chronic pancreatitis, Post pancreatic resection, and Cystic Fibrosis.

52
Q

What is the primary digestive issue caused by exocrine pancreatic failure?

A

Fat malabsorption.

53
Q

What is a common stool test used to diagnose exocrine pancreatic failure?

A

Stool elastase test.

54
Q

What is another method to detect fat malabsorption in exocrine pancreatic failure?

A

Fat in stool test (microscopic examination).

55
Q

Which diagnostic test for exocrine pancreatic failure is usually performed in specialized centers?

A

Secretin test.

56
Q

What are the two main approaches to treating Exocrine Pancreatic Failure?

A

Diet and Medicine.

57
Q

What dietary modification is recommended for patients with Exocrine Pancreatic Failure?

A

Reduced fat intake.

58
Q

What type of medication is used to supplement enzyme deficiency in Exocrine Pancreatic Failure?

A

Pancreatic enzymes.

59
Q

What is the typical dosage of pancreatic enzymes taken per meal for Exocrine Pancreatic Failure?

A

30,000 - 50,000 U/meal.

60
Q

Drug induced diarrhea

A
  • Enteral nutrition
  • Proton pump inhibitors
  • Chemotherapy
  • Antibiotics
  • Colchicine
  • Metformin
  • NSAID
  • Mesalamine
61
Q

What are the two main approaches to treating Exocrine Pancreatic Failure?

A

Diet and Medicine.

62
Q

What dietary modification is recommended for patients with Exocrine Pancreatic Failure?

A

reduced fat intake

63
Q

What type of medication is used to supplement enzyme deficiency in Exocrine Pancreatic Failure?

A

Pancreatic enzymes.

64
Q

What are the two main mechanisms that can lead to bile acid induced diarrhea?

A

Malabsorption of bile acids at the terminal ileum and overproduction in the liver.

65
Q

Where does bile acid malabsorption occur in bile acid induced diarrhea?

A

The terminal ileum.

66
Q

How does overproduction of bile acids in the liver lead to diarrhea?

A

As a result of negative feedback mechanism malfunction.

67
Q

What is the primary cause of symptoms in Bile Acid Induced Diarrhea?

A

The excessive effect of bile acids on the colon wall.

68
Q

Besides diarrhea, what other abdominal symptoms are common in Bile Acid Induced Diarrhea?

A

Abdominal pain and Bloating.

69
Q

What substance is used in the 75SeHCAT test?

A

Bile with a marked isotope (Selenium-75).

70
Q

What type of test is the C4 test?

A

Serum test.

71
Q

What is the primary dietary recommendation for treating Bile Acid Induced Diarrhea?

A

Low fat diet.

72
Q

What class of medications is used to bind and remove excess bile acids in the treatment of Bile Acid Induced Diarrhea?

A

Bile removal agents.

73
Q

Name two common bile removal agents used to treat Bile Acid Induced Diarrhea

A

Colestiramine and Colestipol

74
Q

What is a common challenge in the treatment of Bile Acid Induced Diarrhea?

A

Low treatment compliance.

75
Q

What is the defining characteristic of Bacterial Overpopulation Syndrome?

A

Excessive number of bacteria in the small intestine.

76
Q

What is the primary diagnostic test mentioned for Bacterial Overpopulation Syndrome?

A

Glucose breath test respirator.

exhaled hydrogen

77
Q

What are the sensitivity values mentioned for the glucose breath test using glucose and lactulose?

A

62% (glucose) / 56% (lactulose).

78
Q

What is the preferred treatment for Bacterial Overpopulation Syndrome?

A

Antibiotics, preferably rifaximin.

79
Q

What type of disease is Microscopic Colitis?

A

Inflammatory bowel disease.

80
Q

What is a key characteristic of the symptoms of Microscopic Colitis?

A

Recurrent symptoms.

81
Q

What is a common finding during a colonoscopy in patients with Microscopic Colitis?

A

Normal colonoscopy.

82
Q

What is essential for diagnosing Microscopic Colitis?

A

Hystopathology (histopathology) - typical aspect.

83
Q

What are the two main subtypes of Microscopic Colitis?

A

Collagenous colitis and Lymphocytic colitis.

84
Q

risk factors microscopic colitis

A
  • Smoking and previous smoking (ex-smokers = lower incidence)
  • More frequently in women
  • Chronic use of:
  • Proton pump inhibitors
    • NSAIDs
    • SSRIs
85
Q

What type of examination is crucial for diagnosing Microscopic Colitis?

A

Histopathological examination using Hematoxylin-eosin coloration.

86
Q

What is the defining histological characteristic of Collagenous Colitis?

A

A sub-epithelial collagen band of over 10 µm.

87
Q

What other histological finding is present in Collagenous Colitis?

A

Inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria.

88
Q

What is the defining histological characteristic of Lymphocytic Colitis?

A

Intraepithelial lymphocytes of over 20 per 100 cells.

89
Q

What other histological finding is present in Lymphocytic Colitis?

A

Inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria.

90
Q

What is the first-line medication for inducing remission in Microscopic Colitis?

A

Oral budesonide.

91
Q

What are the two phases of treatment where oral budesonide is used?

A

Induction and Remission.

92
Q

What medications are considered if budesonide treatment fails in Microscopic Colitis?

A

Thiopurine, antiTNF, and vedolizumab.

93
Q

What is one general category of mechanisms that can lead to malabsorption syndrome?

A

Deficiency of enzymes with roles in digestion.

94
Q

Give an example of a specific protein deficiency that can cause malabsorption.

A

Castle factor (leading to Vitamin B12 deficiency).

95
Q

How can a deficiency in the absorption membrane cause malabsorption?

A

Insufficient permeability.

96
Q

How can surgical resection lead to malabsorption?

A

Decrease of total absorption surface.

97
Q

What types of transport abnormalities can cause malabsorption?

A

Lymphatic or vascular obstruction.

98
Q

Malabsorption syndrome etiology

A
  • Celiac disease
  • Protein or carbohydrate intolerance
  • Chronic pancreatitis
  • Post surgical resection of pancreas or intestines
  • Inflammatory or infectious bowel disease, including bacterial overpopulation syndrome
  • Atrophic gastritis
  • Bile acid abnormalities
  • Autoimmune diseases
99
Q

Malabsorption syndrome - Treatment

A

Depends on each individual etiology