Dialysis Flashcards

1
Q

What is diffusion in dialysis?

A

Movement of solutes from a high to low concentration

Gradient will equalize to form an equilibrium

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2
Q

What is dialysis used for?

A

Allows removal of toxins that build up in CKD:
Urea
Potassium
Sodium
Allows the infusion of bicarbonate and calcium

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3
Q

What blood flow rate is needed for haemodialysis?

A

300-350 mls/min

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4
Q

What is commonly included in dialysate?

A
Pure water
Na 138
HCO3 38
K 2-4
Glucose 5
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5
Q

What is convection?

A

Movement of water and all solutes dissolved in it across a semi-permeable membrane in response to a pressure gradient

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6
Q

What is adsorption concerned with?

A

Plasma proteins and any solutes bound to them
Plasma proteins stick to the membrane surface and are removed by membrane binding
High flux membranes adsorb protein-bound solutes better than low flux membranes

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7
Q

What mechanisms does hemodiafiltration rely on?

A

Increasingly convective
The greater the convective force, the greater will be the generated volume of pressure-driven ultrafiltrate
Large volumes of ultrafiltrate add to solute drag

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8
Q

What affects the convective transport of a molecule across a membrane?

A
Water flux (rate and volume) 
Membrane pore size (big or little holes)
Pressure difference (hydrostatic pressure) 
Viscosity of hte fluid 
Size, shape and electrical charge
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9
Q

What is the difference between haemodialysis and hemodiafiltration?

A

Replacement of extra-convective ultrafiltrate throughout the dialysis period (minus any intended ultrafiltration volume)
As this replacement fluid must be given back directly to the patients circulation, the composition and purity of this fluid is pivotal

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10
Q

What restrictions does dialysis put on the patient?

A

Fluid - if anurinc needs to be 1litre per day (including food based fluid)
Salt - low salt diet to reduce thirst and help fluid balance
Low potassium diet
Low phosphate diet

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11
Q

What foods contain high levels of potassium?

A

Banana
Chocolate
Potato
Avocado

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12
Q

Where is a tunneled venous catheter commonly inserted into?

A

Internal jugular vein

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13
Q

What will commonly infect lines?

A

Staph aureus

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14
Q

Where can s. aureau seed?

A

Endocarditis
Discitis
Death

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15
Q

What is the treatment for line infections?

A

Vancomycin +/- gentamicin

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16
Q

What is the gold standard for dialysis vascular access?

A

Fistula - artery and vein surgically connected - venous part will develop to create an enlarged, thick walled vessel called an arteriovenous fistula

17
Q

Where are common sites for fistulas?

A

Radio-cephalic
Brachio-cephalic
Brachio-basilic transposition

18
Q

What can go wrong with dialysis?

A
Hypotension
Haemorrhage
Loss of vascular access
Arrhythmia
Cardiac arrest
19
Q

How does peritoneal dialysis work?

A

Solute removal via diffusion of solutes across the peritoneal membrane
Water removal via osmosis driven by a high glucose concentration in dialysate fluid

20
Q

What infections can complicated peritoneal dialysis?

A

Peritonitis or exit site infection
Contamination: staphylococci, streptococci, diphtheroids
Gut bacteria translocation: e.coli, klebsiella

21
Q

What is the management of peritoneal dialysis?

A

Culture PD fluid
Intra-peritoneal antibiotics (gram positive, gram negative)
May need catheter removal

22
Q

What is peritoneal membrane failure?

A

Inability to remove enough water - fluid overloaded
Inability to remove solutes
Requires switch to HD

23
Q

When should dialysis be started?

A

Resistant hyperkalaemia
eGFR <7 ml/min
Urea >40 mmol/L
Unresponsive metabolic acidosis

24
Q

What symptoms should prompt you to start dialysis?

A
Nausea
Anorexia
Vomiting
Profound fatigue
Itch
Unresponsive fluid overload
25
Q

How is dialysis started?

A

1st session 90-120 in

Subsequent sessions up to 4 hours

26
Q

What can occur with a too rapid correction of uraemic toxin levels?

A

Disequilibrium syndrome: cerebral oedema, confusion, seizures and death

27
Q

Why will dialysis be drawn from a patient?

A

Haemodynamic instability
Progressive dementia
Inability to remain on therapy for full duration
CV event
Terminal cancer
Increasing fragility and inability to cope at home