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Fourth Year > Diagnostic Imaging End Session > Flashcards

Diagnostic Imaging End Session Flashcards

1
Q

Number of canine cervical vertebrae

A

C1-C7

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2
Q

Number of canine thoracic vertebrae

A

T1-T13

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3
Q

Canine lumbar vertebrae

A

L1-L7

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4
Q

Canine sacral vertebrae

A

S1-S3

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5
Q

Caudal vertebrae number

A

Varies from 6-20

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6
Q

What is the atlas? What is the structure?

A

C1 -> no dorsal spinous process, large transverse processes commonly called wings

Articulation with skull forms atlanto-occipital joint allowing “yes” movement of head

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7
Q

What is the axis? What is its structure and function?

A

C2
Large dorsal spinous processes and partially overlaps C1
Dens projects along ventral vertebral canal onto floor of C1
C2 articulates with C1 to form atlantoaxial joint allowing “no” movement of head

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8
Q

Which cervical body is the shortest?

A

C3

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9
Q

Which cervical vertebrae has large TP’s that go ventrally?

A

C6

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10
Q

Which two intervertbral joint spaces are normally shorter?

A

C2/3

C7/T1

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11
Q

Which is the anticlinal vertebrae?

A

T11 -> the transitional segment of the thoracolumbar spine

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12
Q

Where do the ribs articulate with vertebrae?

A

Each pair of ribs articulates with the cranial aspect of the same numbered thoracic vertebra

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13
Q

Which vertebrae are sites for diaphragm attachments?

A

L3 and L4
The ventral margins are slightly irregular and less distinct

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14
Q

Which lumbar vertebra is the shortest?

A

L7

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15
Q

Structure of the sacral vertebrae

A

3 fused vertebrae without intervertbral spaces

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16
Q

What are haemal arches?

A

Small well defined Y shaped bony structures located ventrally to the first few caudal vertebrae

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17
Q

What is the intervertebral foramen?

A

Exit point for spinal nerves shaped like a horse head with nose pointing cranially

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18
Q

Where are intervertebral discs located?

A

Between every vertebral body except for C1-2 and in the sacrum

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19
Q

Where does the dorsal longitudinal ligament go?

A

Between vertebral bodies along the floor of vertebral canal from dens of C2 to the caudal vertebrae.

Thicker in cervical region and thinner in thoracolumbar

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20
Q

Where does ventral longitudinal ligament run?

A

Along ventral aspect of vertebrae attaching to each body from C2 to S1

Thickest in caudal thoracic and lumbar regions

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21
Q

Where does the spinal cord start and end?

A

Foramen magnum to around L6

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22
Q

What are the layers surround the spinal cord from central outwards?

A

Spinal cord -> Pia mater -> subarachnoid space -> arachnoid membrane -> subdural space -> Dura mater -> epidural space

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23
Q

Which space contains cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Subarachnoid space

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24
Q

What are the pedicles and lamina?

A

Pedicles form lateral boundaries of the vertebral canal joined dorsally by the lamina, which is a bony shelf forming the roof of the canal

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25
Q

Which centering points are needed for a view of the whole spine?

A

C2,C7,T4,T13,L3 and L7

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26
Q

What is needed for thickness above 10cm?

A

Centre, collimate and grid

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27
Q

Standard views of the cervical spine

A

Lateral and VD

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28
Q

Supplementary views of the cervical spine

A

Oblique lateral or VD -> LeVRtDO and RtVLeDO

Extended or flexed laterolateral

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29
Q

How many physis do vertebrae have?

A

Each has 2 but C2 also has a dens physis

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30
Q

Which 4 diseases have no radiographic signs even with contrast?

A
  1. Fibrocartilagenous thromboemboli
  2. Degenerative myelopathy
  3. Congenital cord malformations such a syringomyelia and hydromyelia
  4. Inflammatory diseases of the spinal cord
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31
Q

What is the site for contrast injection?

A

L5/L6 is preferred (the only one where needle goes through spinal cord, bevel cranial)

or high cervical (atlanto-occipital cisterna magna) - bevel caudal

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32
Q

What should be done before injecting contrast?

A

CSF sample in plain sterile and EDTA tube

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33
Q

What is the contrast and dose rate used?

A

Iohexal -> 240mg/ml or 300mg/ml

A non-ionic water soluble contrast

0.25ml/kg -> total volume depends on length of canal to be examined

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34
Q

Cervical myelogram process

A
  1. Point bevel caudally
  2. Afer csf collected inject entire dose into subarachnoid space of cisterna magna
  3. Remove needle
  4. Elevate head 2-4 minutes
  5. Take VD adn lat radiographs + obliques
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35
Q

What can occur after a myelogram?

A

Seizures - most common sign of neurotoxicity
Higher chance after cervical injection than lumbar

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36
Q

Features of extradural lesions

A

Compression of spinal cord and subarachnoid space, spinal cord appears narrow on one radiograph and wide on orthogonal

Intervertebral disc protrusion or extrusion

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37
Q

Features of intradural extramedullary lesions

A

Located in subarachnoid space

lesion causes widened filling defect (golf Tee) + cord appears widened on orthogonal rad

caused by tumour in subarachnoid space

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38
Q

Features of intramedullary lesion

A

Occurs in spinal cord causing swelling of cord

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39
Q

What is CT good for?

A

Conditions at lumbosacral junction
Protruded discs without need for contrast
Developmental lesions and malformations

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40
Q

What is CT not so good for?

A

Does not show oedema, masses or malacia well in the spinal cord

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41
Q

What is MRI good for?

A

Soft tissue contrast
Disc degeneration before protrusion or extrusion occurs
Peripheral nerves

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42
Q

Spinal congenital abnormalities

A

Spina Bifida
Hemivertebrae
Block vertebrae
Transitional vertebrae

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43
Q

What is spina bifida and where does it occur?

A

Incomplete development of dorsal aspect of the vertebra due to developmental failure of lateral arches to fuse dorsally

Most common in thoracic and lumbar regions

Screw tail dog breeds mostly -> pug, bulldog

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44
Q

Spina bifida clinical signs

A

Often non, but can be ataxia, paresis, faecal and urinary incontinence, perineal analgesia and poor anal tone

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45
Q

Radiographic findings of spina bifida

A

Unfused spinous processes (radiolucent line), cleft SP, or lack of SP or lamina

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46
Q

What is spina bifida occulta?

A

No clinical signs
MRI used to differentiate from manifesta

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47
Q

What is spina bifida manifesta?

A

Sac containing neural tissue protrudes through bone defect

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48
Q

What is block vertebra?

A

Partial or complete of fusion of adjacent vertebrae from birth
Partial or absent intervertrbal disc space

Rarely causes signs - maybe increased risk of intervertebral disk protrusion at ends of block vertebra

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49
Q

What is hemivertebra?

A

Abnormal fusion of different parts of vertebrae
Screw tail breeds

May see wedge shape or butterfly anomaly

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50
Q

What is transitional vertebrae?

A

Vertebra has characteristics of adjacent ones
T13 may look like lumbar -> lumbarisation

L1 can also have thoracarisation

If C7 has ribs then it is thoracarisation

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51
Q

What breed is transitional vertebrae seen commonly?

A

German Shep

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52
Q

What is atlanto-axial subluxation and who does it occur in?

A

Miniature and toy breeds and young dogs

Hypoplasia OR Aplasia (lack) of the dens -> cord compression caused by abnormal rotation of C2 into vertebral canal

May see widening and malalignment of C1 and C2 on flexion or dorsal displacement of C2

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53
Q

What is cervical spondylomyelopathy and the two types?

A

Narrowing of vertebral canal leading to compression of spinal cord

2 types -> osseous and disc associated

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54
Q

What is osseous caudal cervical sponylomyelopathy?

A

Common in young large breeds

Changes to bones in neck during development lead to compression of spinal cord

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55
Q

What is disc associated caudal cervical sponylomyelopathy?

A

Seen in older large breed dogs - dobermans

Combination of changes to bones in neck and protrusion of one or more intervertebral discs leading to compression of spinal cord

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56
Q

Radiographic findings of cervical spondylomyelopathy (wobblers syndrome)

A

Malformed vertebrae
Coning or stenosis of canal
Dorsal tipping of vertebrae
Facet proliferation

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57
Q

What is wobblers syndrome?

A

Cervical spondylomyelopathy

Young large breeds

Ataxia, weakness, tetra paresis and paralysis

Deformity of ventral bodies, vertebral instability and malarticulation

C4-C7 most common

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58
Q

Wobblers syndrome myelography findings

A

Lesion dynamic -> compression worsens with hyperextension and improves with ventroflexion or traction

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59
Q

What is cauda equina syndrome called? What is it?

A

degenerative lumbosacral stenosis - can result from a variety of causes

LS malarticulation and instability

Reported in lots of breeds, particularly GSD (predisposed) and cats

Stenosis = abnormal narrowing

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60
Q

Clinical signs of cauda equina syndrome (degenerative lumbosacral stenosis)

A

Hindlimb weakness, paresis, incontinence issues

Tail movement affected

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61
Q

Causes of cauda equina syndrome

A

Hypertrophy of dorsal longitudinal ligament and/or annulus fibrosis

Disc protrusion/extrusion

Subluxation in LS joint (L7-S1)

Congenital stenosis of the vertebral canal

LS malalignment and instability

Spondylosis

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62
Q

Radiographic findings of cauda equina syndrome - what modes are best and which does not work?

A

CT or MRI best - myelogram wont show as subarachnoid space doesnt go far enough

Spondylosis and endplate sclerosis at the lumbosacral junction

Narrowing and wedging of the LS disk space

Ventral displacement of the sacrum relative to L7

Stenosis of the canal from proliferative changes on the facets or from congenital stenosis

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63
Q

2 types of intervertebral disc disease and what happens.

A

Hansen type 1 herniation -> chondrodystrophoid breeds. Chondroid metaplasia and disc degeneration. Degeneration and rupture of dorsal annulus, more acute and severe.

Hansen type 2 herniation -> Nonchondrodystrophoid breeds. Fibroid metaplasia and disc degeneration. No complete rupture of annulus - points up dorsally and puts pressure on cord without disc material breaking through. more gradual.

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64
Q

What is intervertebral disk degeneration?

A

Part of intervertebral disc disease -> Mineralised disk material in the disc space.

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65
Q

What is a parallax fault?

A

pseudonarrowing of disc spaces
As beam widens this occurs - if discs are same size they will look narrower on the periphery of the image. So we need series of rads

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66
Q

Radiographic findings of intervertebral disc protrusion

A

Narrowed or wedged IVD space
Decreased size of IV foramen
Increased opacity of IV foramen
Narrowed articular facet space
Endplate sclerosis and spondylosis

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67
Q

What is discospondylitis?

A

Infection of the intervertebral disk with extension to the regional vertebral bodies -> often not adjacent and may skip some so need lots of images

Haematogenous spread mostly, can be migrating foreign bodies

L7-S1 most common

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68
Q

What clinical signs would discospondylitis have?

A

fever, anorexia, pain, stiffness, spinal hyperesthesia, secondary cord compression may result in neurologic abnormalities

Depends on severity and location

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69
Q

Radiographic findings of discospondylitis

A

Endplate lysis, or bony sclerosis and proliferation of adjacent vertebrae endplates

Widening or collapse of disc space

Active with poorly defined margins

Potential for vertebral fusion with healing

Signs may persist for 3-9 weeks following clinical resolution

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70
Q

What can happen secondarily to discospondylitis?

A

Spondylosis deformans - osteophyte formation on the vertebral bodies

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71
Q

What is a Schmorl’s node?

A

Herniations of the intervertbral disc through the vertebral end-plate

Well marginated smooth radiolucency in the endplate

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72
Q

What is vertebral body spondylitis? What causes it?

A

An infection of the ventral vertebral bodies, generally a bacterial infection (e.g. with migrating grass awns) or parasitic migration as of Spirocerca lupi (africa)

Direct expansion from infected adjacent soft tissues, migrating foreign bodies, external wounds, neoplastic invasion from regional soft tissues

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73
Q

Radiographic findings of vertebral body spondylitis

A

Smooth, irregular or spiculated periosteal reaction (filling ventral concavity of vertebral body)

Possible retroperitoneal swelling or regional mass

DDx metastatic carcinoma

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74
Q

What is spondylosis deformans and what type is the worst?

A

Degenerative change related to instability - may be secondary to many things

Type 1-4 -> Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis is the worst and seen in boxers. Ankylosing spondylosis

Usually older animals, rarely clinically significant (expect in wobbler and cauda equina syndrome)

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75
Q

Radiographic findings of spondylosis deformans

A

New solid bone proliferation formed between ventral ends of adjacent vertebral bodies

Varies from small incompletely bridging spurs to completely bridging bone over several vertebral bodies

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76
Q

What can spondylosis deformans occur from in cats?

A

Mucopolysaccharidosis and hypervitaminosis A

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77
Q

What is diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis

A

Ossifying condition with bony hyperostosis at tendon and ligamentous attachments along spine.

“flowing” mineralization and ossification (Type 4 spondylosis) along ventral and lateral aspects of 3 or more vertebrae
* IV disc space appears normal

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78
Q

What is spondyloarthropathy?

A

Most common in cervical and lumbar spinal area - Pain and reduced range of motion

Periarticular bone formation and subchondral bone sclerosis in chronic cases - may impinge on spinal cord/nerves due to narrowing of vertebral canal

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79
Q

What is ossifying pachymeningitis?

A

Dural ossification - dura mater ossifies and becomes mineralised and buldges dorsally

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80
Q

How are vetebral fractures classified?

A

Dorsal, middle and ventral compartment

81
Q

What makes up the middle compartment?

A

dorsal longitudinal ligament, dorsal aspect of the annulus
fibrosus of the IVD, dorsal part of the vertebral bod

82
Q

What makes up the dorsal compartment?

A

Articular processes, laminae, pedicles, spinous processes, and supporting soft-tissue structures

83
Q

What makes up the ventral compartment?

A

Rest of the vertebral body, lateral and ventral annulus fibrosus, nucleus pulposus, ventral longitudinal ligament.

84
Q

When is a vertebral fracture considered unstable?

A

If 2 out of 3 compartments are damaged

85
Q

What is a spinal arachnoid diverticulum? Where does it occur?

A

Localised enlargment of the subarachnoid space - free comms between the CSF and abnormal cavity

Mostly at C1-C5 and T3-L3, puts pressure on spinal cord

86
Q

Signs of spinal arachnoid diverticulum and who it affects

A

Ataxia
Hypermetria
UMN faecal and urinary incont.
No appreciable spinal hyperesthesia

Male dogs over-represented, likely congenital

4-14 months of age

87
Q

Primary bone tumours affecting the spine

A

Osteosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma

Aggressive lysis and proliferation

Monostotic

88
Q

Metastatic and multicentric tumours affecting the spine

A

Urogenital tumours and carcinomas

Multiple myeloma - punched out look

Variable aggressive lysis and proliferation

89
Q

categories of neural canal to evaluate soft tissue in myelography

A

Extradural sign
Intradural/extramedullary sign
Intramedullary sign

90
Q

Extradural sign

A

Displaces subarachnoid space away from lesion causing attenuation and displacement of contrast columns within the subarachnoid space

Spinal cord displaced

Kinked hose

91
Q

Intradural/extramedullary sign

A

Lesions located in subarachnoid space that attenuate contrast medium proximally and produce golf tee sign at each end of lesion

92
Q

Intramedullary sign

A

Cord swelling with usually symmetrical displacement of the dura and meninges

Attenuation of contrast in SA space in stretched around the swollen spinal cord

Visible from any angle and not projection dependent

93
Q

Hoof prep for horses

A

Shoe on for LM view
Shoe removal essential for most except in cases of laminitis

Clean and trim hoof and sole - prevent air artifacts

For upright views (D65PrPaDO) pack sulci with substance same opacity of the horn

94
Q

Standard projections of the hoof

A

LM
DPa
D65Pr-PaDiO (upright pedal, upright navicular)
PaPr-PaDiO

95
Q

What is the correct position of the navicular?

A

Superimposed over the distal aspect of P2 but not over the coffin joint

96
Q

What is the upright navicular view?

A

DPr-PaDiO

Heel elevated and taken 90 degrees to dorsal hoof aspect through to the heel

97
Q

What is the skyline navicular view?

A

PaPr-PaDiO

Can do 55-65 degrees or 35-45 degrees to the horizontal plane

98
Q

2 oblique views of the hoof

A

D 45degreeL PaMO

D 45degreeM PaLO

99
Q

Proximal and middle phalanges (Pastern region) views

A

LM
DPa
DLPaMO
DMPaLO

each includes distal and proximal interphalangeal joints + distal half of proximal phalanx

100
Q

Oblique views of the pastern

A

DPr-PaDiO
D45LPaMO
D45MPaLO

101
Q

Standard and oblique views of the fetlock (metacarpo/metatarso-phalangeal joint)

A

LM
DPa
DLPaMO
DMPaLO
Flexed LM

102
Q

How to take a DP of the fetlock (considering sesamoids)

A

D10Pr-PaDO

Shoot from above (10 degrees) down towards plate to get proximal sesamoids out of joint space

Anne happy to call this DP as well

103
Q

Standard views of the carpus of horse

A

LM
DPa
DLPaMO
DMPaLO
Flexed LM
DPrDDiO (skyline)

104
Q

Which carpal bone is bigger in horses, radial or ulnar?

A

Radial = medial

105
Q

Standard projections of the elbow in horses

A

ML
CrCd

106
Q

Standard projections of the shoulder in horses

A

ML
CrMCdLO

107
Q

Standard projections of the tarsus in horses

A

LM
DPl
Obliques = DLPlMO, DMPlLO

108
Q

Additional views of tarsus in horses

A

Flexed LM
CdPrPlDiO
DPrPlDiO

109
Q

Standard projections of Stifle in horses

A

LM
CdCr (actually Cd15degreePrCrDiO)
Flexed LM
Cd60degreeL-CrMO

110
Q

Additional stifle projections

A

CrPrCrDiO (patella skyline)
CLCdMO

111
Q

When is osteophytes visible?

A

> 3wks

112
Q

How long does it take for incomplete or fissure fractures to be visible?

A

Up to 2 weeks

113
Q

Reasons for both general and localised bone destruction

A

General -> Pregnancy, metabolic
Localised -> disuse atrophy

114
Q

Reasons for focal new bone formation

A

Osteophytes, periarticular osteophutes, enthesophytes

115
Q

Reasons for periosteal or endosteal new bone

A

Inflammation from fractures, trauma, infection, tumour, abnormal stress at soft tissue attachment

116
Q

Reasons for sclerosis

A

Stress - subchondral stress in DJD
Attempt to wall off infection - osteomyelitis
Support weak area - osseous cysts

117
Q

8 equine MS diseases

A

Fractures
Infection - abscess, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis
DJD - osteophytes, enthesophytes
OCD
Stress related bone injury
Laminitis
Navicular disease
Angular limb deformities

118
Q

What can be used to detect non-radiographic fractures?

A

Nuclear scintigraphy

119
Q

Amount and quality of callus depends on:

A

Stability
infection
age of horse - metabolic status
site of fracture

120
Q

Which bones heal by fibrous union in the horse?

A

Proximal and distal sesamoids
Accessory carpal
Navicular
P3

121
Q

Healing time of fractures in horses

A

6-12wks

122
Q

When is delayed union?

A

fracture line at >6 months

123
Q

When is nonunion?

A

> 12 months
rare in horses

124
Q

Fractures of the fetlock

A

Distal MC (MT) condylar fractures
TBs, SBs, QHs

may need multiple oblique views

stress related

125
Q

Proximal sesamoid fracture types

A

I. Apex fracture
II. Midbody fracture
III. Base fracture
IV. Abaxial fracture
V. Axial fracture
VI. Comminuted fracture

Forelimb and medial sesamoid more commonly affected

126
Q

Fractures of distal phalanx types

A

I. Abaxial without joint involvement
II. Abaxial with joint
III. Axial/saggital and perisaggital fracture
IV. Fractures of extensor process (hyperextension injuries)
V. Multifragment (comminuted)
VI. Solar margin fractures

These heal by fibrous healing not callus formation

127
Q

Common fracture of carpal bone

A

Slab fracture of third carpal -> do a flexed LM to see if it reduces itself

Radiocarpal also common

Be careful -> ulna has normal ossification centre so can see radiolucent circle

128
Q

What are fractures of MC II and IV associated with?

A

Often suspensory desmitis or external trauma

129
Q

Where is MC III normally affected by a fracture?

A

Middle of the dorsal surface - stress fracture

Can also get thickened dorsal cortex due to young racehorses trained hard on hard surfaces

130
Q

Where is the most common location for a fracture in the tarsus?

A

Lateral malleolus

Also see medial malleolus, trochlear ridges, calcaneous

Distal tarsals -> Young horses dorsal disaplacement and collapse

131
Q

Firth classification of infection of bone

A

Type P - begins in physis - extneds to epiphysis and metaphysis

Type E - begins in epiphysis

Type S - begins in synovium

Type T - Distal tibial physis and or tarsocrural joint

Type C - localised to carpal bone

132
Q

What is the pedal osteitis complex a result of?

A

Trauma or inflammation in adjacent soft tissue

or aseptic: Flat footed, thin sole, worked on hard surfaces

lysis of margins of distal phalanx, can get pathological fractures and gas accumulation

133
Q

What is infectious pedal osteitis usually a result of?

A

Common in adult horses at a single site as a result of penetrating wound

134
Q

What can be a sequelum to foot abscess?

A

Septic pedal osteitis - abscess causes pressure and demineralisation of pedal bone - can go into pedal bone and cause septic arthritis

Will have irregular margins with this, whereas a kerotoma would have sharp edges

135
Q

What does osteomyelitis in distal phalanx, skull and navicular bone cause?

A

Destruction with little to no evidence of new bone formation - this is different to usual osteomyelitis presentation

Usually osteomyelitis is infection of bone with varying degrees of lysis and new bone formation - can have periosteal new bone formation and if it continues, a sequestrum and involucrum

136
Q

3 types of DJD in horses

A

Arthritis -> inflammation of joint - synovial distension, soft tissue or joint involved

Osteoarthritis -> bone involved with inflammatory soft tissue component

Osteoarthrosis - bone involved with no inflammatory soft tissue component

137
Q

Explain tarsal DJD

A

Low motion joints can cause pain, ankylosis:
1. Distal intertarsal + tarsometatarsal most common
2. Proximal intertarsal less common

High motion joint - tarsocrural joint:
1. significant, long term lameness and pain. If this gets OA then it is serious

138
Q

Most common joints for OCD

A

Stifle
Tarsi
Fetlocks

Others -> elbow, cervical spine, proximal humerus

139
Q

What are osseous cyst like lesions?

A

Solitary circular lucent areas in a bone with possible sclerotic margin

True bone cysts, part of DOD syndrome, traumatic in origin and cause vascular abnormalities at weight bearing surfaces - usually in fast growing horses

Some resolve spontaneously, some migrate as bone grows

Lameness if near articular surface

140
Q

Locations for osseous cyst like lesions

A

Stifle -> medial femoral condyle
Elbow
Hock
Carpus
Fetlock
P3

Usually in fast growing horses

141
Q

Most common OCD lesion location in stifle

A

Lateral trochlea ridge of femur

Usually bilateral

Less commonly patella articular surface or medial trochlea ridge

142
Q

Most common OCD lesion in tarsus

A

Distal intermediate ridge tibia (DIRT)

Need to radiograph both sides as often bilateral

143
Q

DDx for P3 osseous cyst like lesions

A

Epidermoid cyst
Keratoma
Infectious osteitis

144
Q

Progressive changes of laminitis

A

Dorsal hoof wall thickens
Alignment of P3 unchanged
Thin sole
Soft tissue buldge at coronary band
Rotation of P3 - separates from wall, can penetrate sole

Gas between dermal and epidermal laminae - gas coming from coronary is worst prognosis, and gas via vacuum in the middle of the toe is the best prognosis

145
Q

Chronic changes of laminitis

A

Ski tipped remodeling of dorso-distal P3
Pedal osteitis changes
P3 sinks and causes ridge above coronary band - all of laminae gone for this to happen

Chronic as soon as p3 moves relative to the hoof wall

146
Q

5 radiographic measurements for laminitis

A

Coronary extensor distance
Horn lamellar distance
Sole depth
Digital breakover
Palmar angle

147
Q

Radiographic changes in navicular disease

A

Distal border - increased size + number of synovial invaginations
Cyst like lucencies
Enthesophytes - collateral ligaments (proximal border) + impar ligament (distal border)

Sclerosis
Flexor surface erosions - flattened saggital ridge + thinned flexor surface

148
Q

Causes of angular limb deformities

A

Congenital and perinatal factors: Premature birth, twins, placentitis, perinatal soft tissue trauma, flaccid soft tissues around joints

Developmental factors: unbalanced nutrition, excess exercise, trauma to physis

149
Q

How are angular limb deformities diagnosed?

A

Determine site and cuase for deviation

Lines down centre of long bones, determine pivot point (varus or valgus)

Distal radial metaphysis, physis, epiphysis or cuboidal bones may be site of deviation

Mildly affected foals recover spontaneously

150
Q

What needs to be determined/differentiated in angular limb deformities?

A

If it is incomplete ossification of carpal bones - rest and bandage/cast

Or due to distal radius epiphyseal uneven growth - surgery

Lax ligaments - controlled exercise

151
Q

What is physitis?

A

Invovles distal extremities of radius, tibia, third metacarpal or metatarsal and proximal P1

Flaring at level of growth plate giving boxy appearance to joint

152
Q

What is villonodular synovitis?

A

Synovial pad hyperplasia

Swelling dorsal of joint
Bone erosion at dorsoproximal joint capsule
Periarticular enthesophytes
Supracondylar lysis

153
Q

Why do accessory carpal verticle fractures occur?

A

Hyperextension of metacarpus putting accessory under tensile stress

154
Q

Where do umbilical infections end up?

A

Distal metaphysis of long bones - blood flow slows and bacteria can lodge

155
Q

Which intercondylar eminence is larger?

A

medial

156
Q

What is proximal sesamoiditis?

A

usually not septic - if heat and lysis, pyrexia present then it is

Seen as increased size of vascular channels into sesamoid bone

Can be avulsion fractures from pull of suspensory and lysis

157
Q

Common location of DOD in fetlock (metacarpo-phalangeal joint)

A

Dorsoproximal P1

Or palmar process of P1 - could be fracture or OCD lesion

158
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Infection in bone with cortex and medulla - pedal bone does not have this

sequestrum and involucrum formation

Can go to patella - from abscess

159
Q

Signs of DJD

A

Osteophytes
Enthesophytes
Sclerosis or lysis
Soft tissue swelling
Narrowing/widening joint space

160
Q

Where are the malleolus (x2) located?

A

Lateral and medial distal tibia

161
Q

Indications for dental conditions

A

Facial / mandibular focal swelling or draining sinus tract

Dysphagia, nasal discharge, quidding

Chronic weight loss, bitting problems, head shaking

162
Q

Views of the cranium

A

VD, Lateral
Oblique

163
Q

Views for the frontal and maxillary sinuses + maxilla

A

VD
Lateral
RtDLeVO, LeDRtVO

164
Q

Intraoral oblique views for the incisors/canines

A

Ro60 degree DCdVO (maxillary)

Ro60VCdDO (mandibular)

DV

165
Q

Views for the upper far cheek teeth

A

L30D-LVO or LL

166
Q

Views for lower near cheek teeth

A

L40D-LVO
Lateral (incisors/canines)

167
Q

Views for upper near cheek teeth

A

L30V-LDO

168
Q

Views for lower far cheek teeth

A

L45V-LDO

169
Q

Open mouth lateral oblique view

A

L15D-LVO
L15V-LDO

170
Q

What is an offset DV?

A

DV with mandible moved to one side and then the other

171
Q

How can we locate affected tooth?

A

Use a wire marker into draining tract to locate affected tooth with radiographs
Positive contrast - water soluble iodine injected into tract

“fistulogram”

172
Q

What is sinusography?

A

Positive Contrast into sinus

173
Q

What is the clinical crown and reserve crown?

A

Crown visible in the mouth and the unerupted portion

174
Q

What is the apical area?

A

The portion of the reserve crown where the roots develop

175
Q

What is the cranial and caudal part of the tooth called?

A

Mesial surface and distal surface

176
Q

What is the slim area between adjoining teeth?

A

Interproximal space

177
Q

What is the vestibular and lingual surfaces?

A

Surfaces facing the lips - vestibular AKA labial/buccal

Surfaces facing the tongue - lingual

178
Q

quadrant 1,2,3,4

A

1 -> right maxilla
2 -> left maxilla
3 -> left mandible
4 -> right mandible

179
Q

Triadan numbers

A

first digit is the quadrant, 2 and 3 are the tooth

Incisors are 01-03
Canine 04
Premolars 05-08
Molars 09-11

180
Q

Eruption of permanent incisors

A

i1: 2.5, make contact at 3
i2: 3.5, make contact at 4
i3: 4.5, make contact at 5

181
Q

eruption of canine

A

5 years

182
Q

Permanent premolars eruptions

A

pm1: 6 months (wolf tooth)
PM2: 2.5 years
PM3: 3 years
PM4: 4 years

183
Q

Deciduous incisors eruption time

A

6 days
6 weeks
6 months

184
Q

Molars eruption

A

M1: 9-12 months
M2: 2 years
M3: 3.5-4 years

185
Q

What is an eruption cyst?

A

A normal radiolucency around the apex from large pulp cavity as dentine has not filled in yet

in young horses

186
Q

Which tooth does not continually erupy?

A

PM1 wolf tooth

186
Q

Changes to tooth as horse ages

A

Tooth becomes more opaque (more dentin)
Roots become longer
Pulp cavity narrower
Root apex narrower
Tooth gets shorter

186
Q

What is attrition and abrasion?

A

Attrition -> natural wear (aging)
Abrasion -> unnatural wear

187
Q

What are signs of periapical/apical infection?

A

Loss of lamina dura detail
Lysis of periapical bone
Bone sclerosis
Apex destruction
Widening of pulp cavity
Sinusitis

188
Q

Fractures of the maxilla/manidible classifications

A

Incisival
Diastema

189
Q

Equine odontoclastic tooth resorption and hypercementosis

A

Painful disorder of incisor and canine teeth
Variably causes periodontitis
Resorptive or proliferative changes of the calcified dental tissues

190
Q

What is the calvarium?

A

The top part of the skull

191
Q

3 conditions of the calvarium

A

Fractures (frontal bone, non-displaced basisphenoid fracture)

Neoplasia

Temporal teratoma with dentigerous cyst (ectopic tooth in temporal part of skull)

192
Q

3 conditions of paranasal sinuses

A

Sinusitis - from dental pathology
Neoplasia
Ethmoid haematoma
Cysts

193
Q

3 conditions of the mandible

A

Fractures - displaced mandibular diastema fracture, horizontal/vertical ramus
Neoplasia
Teeth

194
Q

Where are ethmoid haematomas found?

A

Rostral to ethmoidal labyrinth in nasal passage
In maxillary sinus
In frontal sinus

Often have narrowing/obliteration of common nasal meatus as seen on the DV

195
Q

4 conditions of paranasal sinuses

A

Nasal polyps
Maxillary cysts or max. sinus cysts
Neoplasia

196
Q

What is a sialolith?

A

calcified lump in parotid salivary duct

197
Q
A

Fourth Year (8 decks)

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