Diagnostic Imaging Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the distance:inverse square law of radiology.

A

If the distance from the primary source is doubled, the intensity will decrease by a factor of four

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2
Q

What is the kVp?

A
  • The potential difference between the cathode and the anode of the x-ray machine
  • A higher potential difference leads to a faster acceleration of electrons, increases the number of x-ray photons produced, and increases the penetrating power of the photons
  • Low values provide image contrast
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3
Q

What is mA

A
  • Miliamperes
  • Increasing the mA increase the number of electrons being produced at the filament
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4
Q

What is the focal spot?

A

The focal spot is the region of the target struck by electrons and is the site of x-ray production. The smaller the focal spot,the better the detail on the radiograph. A practical example of this principle is the sharpness of a shadow cast by a large versus a small light source. A shadow of an object cast by a small light source will be sharper than the shadow cast by a large light source. Therefore, radiographs produced using a small focal spot will have more detail than radiographs produced with a large focal spot. Angling the anode is one way to make the focal spot appear smaller than it really is, creating an effective focal spot, while at the same time maintaining a larger area being struck by electrons to facilitate heat distribution

Some x-ray machines allow the operator to select the size of the filament from which the electrons emanate. Use of the smaller filament will lead to a smaller effective focal spot. This is illustrated in the right side of Figure 1-14, where the width of the electron path from the filament has been reduced by 50% by using a smaller filament. As a result, the size of the effective focal spot would also be reduced. Reducing focal spot size is useful theoretically when enhanced image detail is necessary, as for radiographing a small bird or reptile, but most of the time only the large focal spot (large filament) is used. A disadvantage of using the small filament is that lower mA values must be used to prevent the filament from overheating and burning out.

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5
Q

What is mAs?

A

mAs is the product of mA and time in seconds. A variety of combinations of milliamperage and time can be used to produce the same mAs value and thus the same number of x-rays

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6
Q

What is X-ray transmission?

A

X-ray passing through matter without interaction

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7
Q

What is the photoelectric effect?

A
  • Ionization occuring as a photoelectron is removed from its shell in the patient.
  • An x-ray from the x-ray tube ejects an electron, usually from an inner shell (K shell) of a tissue atom. The incoming x-ray is absorbed completely in the atom. The ejected electron, the photoelectron, has sufficient energy to create additional ionizations in tissue.
  • The photoelectric effect occurring in the patient should not be confused with collisional x-ray production in the x-ray tube. A characteristic x-ray is produced in both instances because an electron is ejected from an atom in each processand the void created by the ejected electron is filled by another electron leading to characteristic x-ray production. However, the photoelectric effect a photon ejects an electron from an atom in tissue, while in collisional x-ray production it is a high-energy electron that ejects the electron from an atom in the target of the x-ray tube. When the vacancy filled by the electron ejection is filled, a characteristic x-ray is emitted in both processes. In the case of the photoelectric effect this has has very low energy because of the low binding energy inner shell electrons in tissue versus collisional x-ray production where the characteristic x-ray is of much higher energy because of the much higher inner shell binding energy elections in tungsten, the target material in an x-ray tube.
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8
Q

What is the Compton effect?

A

Incoming photon ejects free outer shell electron from the tissue atom and the photon is scattered. The scattered photon has lower energy but may produce more ionizations, fog the film and is a radiation safety hazard

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9
Q

How should the use of the x-ray grid be compensated for?

A

Requires increased exposure by a factor of 2 to 3 to compensate for the portion of the primary x-ray beam absorbed by the grid

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10
Q

Describe the layers of the x-ray film.

A
  • Protective coating
  • silver halide emulsion
    • Upon radiographing, the electron in the silver halide (silver bromide) is released by light energy which forms a silver atom at the sensitivity speck with a trapped electron to create the latent image. A developer will provide electrons to exposed crystals and allow the radiographic image to be seen. The resulting black colour on the film is the exposed silver crystals
  • Polymer base
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11
Q

Describe computed radiography. What are the advantages and disadvantages of this radiographic method?

A
  • Filmless, no chemistry, no darkroom required
  • Image is captured in cassettes containing phosphor storage layer
  • Laser beam in developer stimulates phosphor crystal to released stored light energy
  • Cassette is put into laser film reader
  • Computer generates digital image in DICOM format
  • Image is sent and stored in server with PACS
  • Advantages
    • Time efficient, robust, provides good quality image
    • Lower radiation does can be used
    • Cost effective
  • Disadvantages
    • Laser reader is sensitive to dust
    • Maintenance of moving parts
    • Manual labour still required
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12
Q

Describe direct digital radiography.

A

X-ray photon strikes a selenium plate which creates an encoded charge that is transmitted to the computer for image reconstruction.

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13
Q

Describe indirect digital radiography.

A

X-ray photons strike a flat panel detector that creates visible light. Light photons stimulate a photocathode which is encoded as electrical energy and transmitted to the computer for image reconstruction

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14
Q

Describe the levels of radiopacities.

A
  • Gas
  • Fat
  • Soft tissue or fluid
  • Mineral
  • Metallic
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15
Q

What is border effacement?

A

Two structures of the same radiopacity which are in contact will not be able to have their margins identified (their borders are effaced).

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16
Q

What are the Rotgen signs?

A
  • Size
  • Shape
  • Opacity
    • Decrease opacity of bone is indicative of bone destruction
  • Location
  • Number
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17
Q

What is the Focal spot-film distance (FFD)?

A
  • The distance from the x-ray tube to the film
  • As the FFD increases, film blackness decreases because the intensity of x-rays in the x-ray beam (x-rays/unit area) decreases
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18
Q

What is the Object-focus distance (OFD)?

A

The further away the to be imaged object is from the film, the more magnification there is, which is undesirable. Therefore we place patients as close to the cassette as possible.

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19
Q

What are the groups of contrast medium?

A
  • Barium sulfate
  • Iodinated compounds
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20
Q

Describe the use of Barium Sulfate as a contrast medium. What are the cautions for its use?

A
  • Applications
    • Oral for upper gastrointestinal study
    • Rectal for barium enema study
  • Outlines wall and lumen of GI tract
  • Coats mucosa and provides mucosal detail
  • Biologically inert, not hypertonic, metabolized or absorbed
  • Provides a muco-protective coating
  • Cautions for use
    • Can cause granuloma or adhesions in peritoneal cavity
    • Can be aspirated
    • Dangerous if infiltrates a lesion in the GI tract- likely to cause a neoplasia
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21
Q

What are the types of iodinated compounds used for contrast media? What are the key features of each?

A
  • Ionic
    • Dissociate into cations and anions (hyperosmolar)
    • Dangerous to inject into patients that are dehydrated
    • Cheap
  • Non-ionic
    • Do not dissociate into cations and anions
    • Relatively expensive
22
Q

Describe the used of iodinated compounds as contrast media in radiology.

A
  • Abdominal applications
    • Intravenous urogram
    • Positive contrast crystography
    • Retrograde urethrogram
    • Retrograde vaginogram
    • Angiography
    • Portography
    • Gastrogram, duodenogram
  • Excretion
    • Over 90% is excreted via glomerular filtration
    • Alternative biliary and GI excretion in case of renal failure
23
Q

What is used as a contrast medium in Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)? How does it work?

A

Paramagnetic substances such as rare earth metals (Gadolinium- toxic in chelate form) used which increases local magnetic field strength and exerts an effect on nearby spinning protons to and enhances magnetic properties of neighboring molecules (shortens T1 relaxation).

24
Q

What is used as a contrast medium in ultrasonography?

A
  • Agitated saline
    • Simple and cheap
    • Potential risk of Bubbles bursting in lung capillaries
  • Encapsulated microbubbles
      • Expensive
    • Bubbles oscillate to create harmonic wave
25
Q

What is the most common cause of extradural compression?

A

Intervertebral Disk Disease (IVDD)

26
Q

What is Nuclear scintigraphy?

A
  • A branch of nuclear medicine which allows imaging of the extent of a disease based on cellular function and physiology
  • Images are formed by the detection of gamma radiation gamma camera
27
Q

Describe osteophytosis.

A
  • Osteophytosis is the presence of one or more osteophytes in response to insult. These are bony growths that develop on bone extremities, particularly frequent in osteoarthritis, a degenerative disease of joint cartilage.
  • Related to joint surfaces
  • Increased stability to an unstable joint
28
Q

Enthesophytosis

A
  • New bone fomation in response to trauma
  • Related to increased strength of ligament/tendon attachments
  • Can be an indication of soft tissue disease
  • Includes spondylosis deformans
29
Q

What is spondylosis deformans?

A

The anulus fibrosus buldging against the Sharpey’s fibers stretching them resulting in traction on the bony attachment of the vertebrae causing osteophyte formation on the anterior and lateral sides of the vertebral body.

30
Q

What is the periosteal reaction?

A
  • New bone formation resulting from stimulation of the periosteum due to
    • Trauma
    • Chronic irritation
    • Bone healing
    • Infection
    • Neoplasia
  • Typically takes 7-10 days to form
  • Can indicate the aggression of the disease process
31
Q

What is hyperostosis?

A
  • Idiopathic excessive growth of bone
  • Can cause vertebrae to fuse
32
Q

What is osteosclerosis? What can cause this condition?

A
  • Increase in bone density without a change in shape
  • Leads to increased radiopacity (more white) on a radiograph
  • Can be a result of ‘Wolff’s Law” where the bone of a healthy person or animal will adapt to the loads under which it is placed
    • Adaptive response to increased loading
33
Q

What is pathological osteolysis? How is the agressive form characterized?

A
  • Overgrowth of bone in response to infection, neoplasia, or chronic inflammation
  • Aggressive lytic lesions are characterizied (differentiated from non-aggressive lytic lesions) using
    • Zone of transition
      • Zone over which bone turns from lesion to normal
    • Evidence of cortical destruction
    • Associated periosteal reaction
    • Location
    • Rate of progression
34
Q

What is Osteopenia? How does this condition appear on a bone radiograph?

A
  • A reduction in bone mineral density
  • Leads to reduced opacity on a bone radiograph
35
Q

What is a Salter-Harris fracture?

A

Fracture that involves the epiphyseal plate or growth plate of a bone

36
Q

What are the sequelae of bone healing?

A
  • Haematoma formation
    • Bleeding contained within periosteum
    • Inflammatory response and demolition
    • Phagocytosis of necrotic bone and debris
    • Osteoclasts scavenge bone fragments (demolition)
  • Granulation phase
    • Mesenchymal proliferation and capillary ingrowths
    • Connective tissue-type cell proliferating and angiogenesis
  • Callus phase
    • Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts
    • Osteoblasts form osteoid which turns into woven bone
    • Woven bone unites the bone ends (callus)
    • Bridges gaps, encircles the fracture site, and stabilises fracture
  • Lamellar bone phase
    • Substitution of the woven bone with lamellar bone
    • Cartilage matrix invaded by blood vessels and osteoblasts
    • Woven bone in callus removed by osteoclasts
    • Osteoblasts lay down new osteoid in concentric lamella around blood vessels
  • Bone remodelling phase
    • New bone remodelled and internal reaction reduced to allow the marrow cavity to reform
    • Joints above and below the fracture site should be immobilized
37
Q

What factors are investigated to assess bone fracture healing?

A
  • Reduction
  • Alignment
  • Implants
  • Soft tissues
  • Bone healing
  • Activity
38
Q

How does the ultrasound transducer work?

A
  • The transducer uses piezoelectic crystals which deform when voltage is applied, producing a soundwave and produce an electric signal when encounter the reflected soundwave
39
Q

How is the depth button used on the ultrasound machine?

A

Should be adjusted so that the organ under investigation takes up roughly 3/4 of the depth of the screen image

40
Q

How do fluids show up on ultrasound?

A

Anechoic (black)

41
Q

How do mineralized structures show up on ultrasound?

A

Hyperechoic (white)

42
Q

What is doppler ultrasonography? How does it work?

A
  • Used to detect blood flow within vessels
  • Can evaluate the direction, speed, volume and nature of blood flow
  • When an ultrasound wave hits a moving target, the frequency of the retuning beam is different from that of the incident beam. The Doppler shift is used to calculate the velocity of the flow
43
Q

Describe the M and the B modes of ultrasound.

A
  • Brightness mode (B mode) ultrasound
    • Can scan through any plane by altering the angle that the probe is applied to the patient
    • The strength of echoes returning from any point is represented by the brightness of that point on the screen
    • Commonly used in abdominal and cardiac imaging
    • Images are composed of a collection of dots that correspond to the amplitude or strength of the returning echo. These dots are displayed on a black background, and the brightness or gray scale of the dot is highest (whitest) for the strongest returning echoes. The depth of the structure returning the echoes determines the position of the dots relative to the transducer. Multiple thin scan lines make up a complete image so that the B-mode images look like a slice of tissue
  • Motion mode (M mode)
    • Records a thin section of an ultrasound image over time.
    • On the display, the left side of the screen in cranial and the top of the screen is dorsal for longitudinal images
    • A line is selected from which information is displayed
    • Shows movement at different depths on a selected ultrasound line
    • Used for echocardiography
44
Q

When using ultrasound, what is overall gain and time gain compensation?

A
  • Overall gain button
    • Amplified returning echoes
    • Increasing makes image whiter at all depths
  • Time gain compensation
    • Can increase the amplitude of the signal returning from different depths
45
Q

What is and ultrasound acoustic shadow artifact?

A
  • Regions of decreased echogenicity distal to structures of high reflectivity where the primary sound beam is completely reflected or absorbed
  • Appears as an anechoic band, deep to mineralized (bone or other minerals) or gas-containing structures as there is no sound wave transmitted beyond the interface
  • “Dirty” shadows arise at soft tissue-gas interfaces with reverberation echoes
46
Q

What is ultrasound acoustic enhancement?

A

Region of increased echogenicity behind structures of low attention

47
Q

What is an ultrasound edge shadow artefact?

A

Occurs deep to the edge of curved surfaces of round or oval structures caused by beam refraction

48
Q

What is an ultrasound slice thickness artefact?

A
  • Caused by the finite thickness of the sound beam perpendicular to the scan plane
  • While scanning a structure with curved walls, echoes from the wall may be displayed in the anechoic content
  • Can be reduced by scanning in different planes
49
Q

What is an ultrasound side lobe artifact?

A
  • Secondary sound beams that emanate in a different direction than the primary sound beam
  • Tend to be seen only in the bladder
  • Side lobes are normal weak sound beams, directed to the side of the central beam which can produce echoes when they come into contact with a highly reflective or curved surface
  • Can be reduced by scanning in different planes
50
Q

What is an ultrasound reverberation artifacts?

A

Occur when the sound waves reflect multiple times between two strong reflectors

51
Q

Why is hydrogen used for MRI?

A

It is abundant in all body parts and has a strong dipole moment

52
Q

Describe the T1 and T2 image formation of MRI.

A
  • Time 1 (T1)
    • Time constant, characterizing at which rate excited nuclei flip back to the original orientation (T1 relaxation)
    • Different tissues dissipate differently which produces the image contrast
    • Signal is collected at a time point when these differences are maximal
    • Fluid appears dark
    • In the brain, white matter is brighter than grey matter
  • Time 2 (T2)
    • Time constant, characterizing at which rate excited energy dissipates due to spin-spin interaction
    • Signal is collected at a time point when these differences are maximal to produce maximal image contrast
    • Fluid is bright
    • In the brain, white matter is darker than grey matter