Clinical Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

What is cancer staging? Why is it used? What are the key factors involved in staging?

A
  • Describes the severity of a patient’s cancer based on the size and/or extent (reach) or the original (primary) tumour and whether or not cancer has spread in the body
  • Helps to plan the appropriate treatment
  • Can be used to determine prognosis
  • Helps veterinarians and researchers exchange information about patients
  • Elements of staging
    • Site of primary tumour and the cell type
    • Tumour size and/or extent
    • Lymph node involvement
    • Presence of metastasis
    • Tumour grading
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2
Q

Describe the TNM staging system for oncology.

A
  • T- size and invasiveness of primary tumour
    • Size, shape, consistency
    • Should be measured with calipers
    • Imaging
    • Cytological/histological diagnosis
    • Biopsy procedure can be used
  • N-status of regional lymph node metastasis
    • Palpation
    • Size, consistency
    • Biopsy
    • Care in interpretation
    • Grade
      • NX: Regional lymph nodes cannot be evaluated
      • N0: No regional lymph node involvement
      • N1, N2, N3: Degree of regional lymph node involvement
  • M- Status of distant metastasis
    • Clinical examination
    • Clinical imaging
    • Biopsy
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3
Q

What is cancer screening? How is it done?

A
  • Cancer Screening
    • a means of detecting disease early in asymptomatic individuals
    • Positive results are usually not diagnostic but identify an individual at increased risk for the presence of cancer who warrant further evaluation
    • Diagnosis is confirmation of disease by biopsy or tissue examination in the work-up following positive screening tests
  • Types
    • Physical screening
      • Annual checkups
    • Chemical screening
      • None available for dogs at the moment
    • Genetic screening
      • Through the canine genome project, for example
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4
Q

What is positron emission tomography (PET)?

A
  • A nuclear medicine, functional imaging technique that produces a three-dimensional image of functional processes in the body
  • A PET scan uses a small amount of radioactive material (tracer). The tracer is given through a vein (IV), travels through your blood and collects in organs and tissues.
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5
Q

How are oncolgy biopsies to be preserved/stored.

A
  • Samples should be stored in formalin with tumour margins and body orientation marked
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6
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypercalcaemia? What type of cancer would cause hypercalcaemia?

A
  • Clinical signs of hypercalcaemia
    • Polyuria/Polydipsia (PU/PD)
    • Vomiting, constipation
    • Depression, weakness
    • Hypertension, bradycardia
  • Hyperparathyroid, with an excess production of PTH, would cause hypercalcaemia
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7
Q

What are bisphosphonates?

A
  • Analogue of pyrophosphates
  • Inhibit osteoclasts through interrupted metabolism (perhaps osteoclast apoptosis)
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8
Q

What neoplasic conditon causes hyperglycemia?

A
  • Insulinoma: Islet β cell malignancy
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9
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

An abnormally increased concentration of haemoglobin in the blood, either through reduction of plasma volume or increase in red cell numbers. It may be a primary disease of unknown cause, or a secondary condition linked to respiratory or circulatory disorder or cancer.

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10
Q

Define the possible intents of tumour surgery.

A
  • Prophylactic surgery
    • Surgery that results in a reduction of future tumours, rate of recurrence of neoplastic disease
  • Palliative surgery
    • Surgery aims to improve quality of life (QOL)
    • Generally performed without intent for long term survival
  • Cytoreductive surgery
    • Performed where definitive intent surgery not possible
    • Improves utility of radiation therapy and/or chemotherapy as reduces # of malignant cells remaining
    • Must be aware of scar orientation- should be longitudinal to avoid subsequent lymphatic radiation
  • Definitive intent
    • Goal is for surgery to be the sole treatment without need for adjunct therapy
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11
Q

What is the definition of the radiation dose? What are the units of radiation dosage?

A

Amount of radiation absorbed by the patient. Measured in Gray= Gy= 1 joule/kg

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12
Q

Describe acute toxicity in radiation therapy.

A
  • Occurs during or shortly after therapy
  • Generally are ‘reversible’ changes
  • Severity increases with increased dose, dose rate, and dose per fraction
  • Onset of clinical signs is dose independent
  • Discomfort and pan are expected short term
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13
Q

Describe late toxicity of radiation therapy.

A
  • Occurs >=3-6 months after radiation therapy (RT)
  • Dose limiting
  • Severity dependent on dose per fraction
  • Bigger doses are more likely to cause toxicity
  • Secondary to vascular damage, fibrosis, and/or loss of parenchymal cells
  • Progressive and irreparable
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14
Q

Describe definitive radiation therapy.

A
  • Generally large # of fractions but low dose/fraction
  • Intent is long term control
  • Acute side effects are expected
  • Goal to limit late toxicity
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15
Q

Describe palliative (course fraction) radiation therapy.

A
  • Fewer # of fractions but higher dose/fraction
  • Palliative- improve quality of life (QOL) or function, decrease pain
  • Few acute side effects
  • Higher risk of clinically significant late toxicity
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16
Q

What is the maximum tolerated dose (MTD)? How can this be calculated?

A

Highest possible dose with acceptable toxicity. Often based on body surface area

17
Q

What is tumour cell recruitment?

A

The tumour cells remaining after a partial excision moving from G0 to the cell cycle.

18
Q

What is the Tumour Cell Kill Hypothesis?

A

Cytoxic drugs kill tumour cells according to first order kinetics rather than a fixed number of cells (zero order kinetics)

19
Q

What are the main reasonss for chemotherapy use in small animal practice?

A
  • Curing intent
  • Attain long-term remission
  • Disease palliation
  • Part of multi-modality theray
20
Q

What is an alkylating agent?

A

Cause cross-linking and breaking of DNA molecules, interfering with DNA replication and RNA transcription

21
Q

What are the mitotic spindle inhibitors?

A

Chemotherapy drugs which bind to cytoplasmic microtubular proteins and arrest mitosis in metaphase

22
Q

What are anti-metabolites?

A

Chemotherapy drugs which mimic normal substances for nucleic acid synthesis and inhibit cellular enzymes of cause production of non-functional molecules

23
Q

What are antitumour antibiotics?

A

Chemotherapeutic agents which bind to DNA and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis through various mechanisms.

24
Q

How are glucocorticoids used for treating a tumour?

A

Glucocorticoids are cytolytic for lymphoid tissues