DI II Final Flashcards

1
Q

List the three presentations/types of osteoporosis.

A

Generalized – age related, post-menopausal, steroid induced, heparin induced, multiple myeloma, metastasis, hyperparathyroidism, scurvy, osteomalacia, rickets, sickle cell, osteogenesis imperfecta

Regional – disuse/immobilization, RSD

Localized – infection, inflammatory arthritis, neoplasm

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2
Q

What is the most common cause of generalized osteoporosis?

A

Old age - post-menopausal

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3
Q

What is the standard modality to quantify bone mineral density?

A

Dual Energy Xray Absorptiometry (DXA)

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4
Q

What causes rickets?

A

Systemic skeletal disorder due to deficiency in Vit D from:

  • lack of dietary intake
  • lack of natural light exposure
  • renal osteodystophy (renal rickets) - chronic kidney dz
  • renal tubular defect - failure to resorb phosphate
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5
Q

What causes osteomalacia?

A

Lack of osteoid mineralization leading to generalized bone softening

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6
Q

What causes rickets? What are the classic radiographic features?

A

Generalized osteopenia due to primary vit D deficiency

Coarse trabecular changes
Widened growth plates
Rachitic (costal) rosary
Absent zone of provisional calcification
Frayed 'paintbrush' and cupped metaphyses
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7
Q

What causes scurvy?

A

AKA “Barlow’s Disease”
Caused by Vit C deficiency
depresses intrercellular substance formation, especially in CT, cartilage, and bone

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8
Q

What are the classic radiographic features of scurvy?

A

Combination of abnormalities occuring at the growing ends of long bones

  • osteoporosis
  • dense zones of provisional - calcification (white line of frankel)
  • Ring epiphysis (Wimberger’s sign)
  • Pelken’s spurs
  • Scorbutic zone (trummerfeld zone)
  • Superperiosteal hemorrhage
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9
Q

What are the classic radiographic features of hyperparathyroidism in the spine, skull, and hand?

A

Spin - osteopenia, trabecular accentuation, end plate concavities, ‘rugger jersey’ spine, widened SIJs

Skull - ‘salt and pepper’ resorption of lamina dura

Hand - subperiosteal resorption, radial margins of the proximal and middle phalanges of the 2nd/3rd digits with acroosteolyisis

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10
Q

What are the face, skull, and foot changes seen with acromegaly?

A

Face - prominent forehead, thickened tongue

Skull - sella tursica enlargement (pituitary neoplasm), sinus overgrowth, malocclusion, widened mandibular angle

Hand - widened shafts, bony protuberances, enlarged distal tufts (‘spade-like’) and widened joint spaces (cartilage overgrowth), widened heal pad

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11
Q

What osseous changed might long term corticosteroid use cause?

A

Osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis) - rapid bone turnover

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12
Q

“H” shaped vertebra is classical seen in what condition?

A

Sickle Cell Anemia
(caused by osteoporosis of vertebral bodies – deformed at end plates with central depression due to hypoplasia of central portion of vertebrae)

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13
Q

What are some complications to the skeleton secondary to sickle cell anemia?

A

Bone changes are due to marrow hyperplasia, ischemia, and necrosis

  • generalized osteoporisis
  • thin cortices
  • coarse trabeculae
  • large vascular channels
  • widened medullary cavity
  • growth deformities
  • epiphyseal ischemic necrosis
  • medullary infarcts
  • secondary salmonella osteomyelitis
  • vertebral body collapse
  • posterior mediastinal extramedullary hematopoiesis
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14
Q

Which anemia tends to result in ‘honeycomb’ trabecular patterns?

A

Thalassemia

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15
Q

Hemophilic arthropathy typically occurs in which joints?

A

Knee (enlarged epiphysis, widened intercondylar notch, and scquared inferior patella)
Ankle (tibiotalar slant deformity)
Elbow
Also, Pseudotumors – destructive intraosseous hemorrhages – most commonly occur in femur and pelvis

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16
Q

What is a common DDX when encountering hemophilic arthropathy of the knee?

A

childhood RA

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17
Q

List some common sites for AVN/osteonecrosis?

A
Femoral head (leff-calve-perthes)
Knee (SONK)
Carpal lunate (Keinboch's)
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18
Q

List 5 typical causes of AVN/osteonecrosis?

A
Trauma
Hemoglobinopathy
Caison's disease
Corticosteroid use
Radiation
Collagen disease
Alcoholism
Gaucher's disease
Pancreatitis
Gout
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19
Q

Which arthritis demonstrates non-uniform joint space narrowing, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosism and subchondral cysts?

A

DJD - osteoarthritis

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20
Q

Which condition presents with a triangular sclerosis at the iliac portion of the lower SIJ?

A

Osteitis condensans ilii

- predominantly women of childbearing age

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21
Q

Is osteitis condensans ilii more commonly unilateral or bilateral?

A

Bilateral

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22
Q

IS osteitis condensans ilii more common in males or females?

A

Females (childbearing age)

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23
Q

Osteitis pubis is commonly associated with which medical procedure?

A

surgery near pubic symphysis

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24
Q

What is the difference between marginal and non-marginal syndesmophytes?

A

Marginal syndesmophytes (intervertebral bony bony bridges) are delicate and symmetric, more commonly seen in ankylosing spondylitis.

Non-marginal syndesmophytes are bulky and discontinuous, more commonly in reactive arthritis and DISH.

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25
Q

Which spinal arthritides have marginal vs. non-marginal syndesmophytes?

A

Marginal – (thin) ankylosing spondylitis

Non-marginal – (coarse) psoriatic/reactive arthritis, Reiter’s syndrome

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26
Q

What systemic condition is commonly found in patients with diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis?

A

Diabetes

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27
Q

Dysphagia is common in which arthritis condition? Why?

A

Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperosteosis (DISH)

Decreased lordosis and increased kyphosis

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28
Q

What part of the spine is DISH most commonly found?

A

Thoracisc spine, lower cervical, upper lumbar, superior SIJ

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29
Q

List the radiographic findings of neurotrophic arthropathy.

A
6 "D"s
Distended joint
Density increased
Debris
Dislocation
Disorganization
Destruction
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30
Q

Which conditions may result in neurotrophic arthropathy?

A
diabetes
alcoolism
tabes dorsalis
paralysis
syringomyelia
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31
Q

What is synoviochondrometaplasia?

A

aka synovial chondromatosis or osteochrondromatosis
metaplastic changes in synovium produce cartilaginous bodies that may or may not calcify/ossify and may or may not be free within joint capsule

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32
Q

Name the common sites of involvement of RA in the hand and wrist.

A
HAND
Boutonniere - DIP extension/PIP flexion
Swan neck - DIP flexion/PIP extension
Ulnar deviation at MCP joint
Radial deviation of carpals
'Zig-Zag' deformity (ulnar/radial deviation)
WRIST
earlier and more severe than hand changes
ulnar styloid erosion
uniform loss of radiocarpal joint
erosion of triquetrum/pisiform
'spotty carpal' sign
pancarpal involvement
scaphoid/lunate dislocation
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33
Q

What is a marginal erosion and what category of arthritis is it seen with?

A

Irregular erosion with no sclerotic margin

Associated with RA

34
Q

What is the significance of widening of the atlantodental interspace?

A

May create direct compression of the brainstem or cause neuro damage by excessive kyphosis
C1-C2 instability
Ligament may widen and rupture with inflammatory arthropathisees like RA, psoriatic arthritis, reiter’s syndrome, and ankylosing spondylitis

35
Q

Which conditions demonstrate laxity of the transverse ligament?

A

SLE, Downs syndrome, possibly RA (uncommon)

36
Q

Is SI involvement common in RA?

37
Q

Describe radiographic differences between RA and psoriatic arthritis in the hand and wrist

A

Psoriatic – ray pattern – involvement of all 3 joints of a single digit (MCP, PIP, and DIP)

RA – just MCPs and PIPs (no DIPs)

38
Q

What is the gender incidence of RA?

A

F:M 3:1 until age 40, then 1:1

39
Q

What is the first site of involvement of ankylosing spondylitists?

A

SI joint or thoracolumbar

40
Q

What is the second site of involvement with ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Spine - discovertebral joint erodes, sclerosis, and ossifies

Also apophyseal joints, interspinous ligamentsossification, costovertebral joints, and c-spine

41
Q

Is SI involvement in ankylosing spondylitis usually unilateral or bilateral?

42
Q

What is gender incidence of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

M:F - 9:1

Usually onset at 15-35yrs

43
Q

Which condition demonstrates squaring of the vertebral body?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

44
Q

What is the shiny corner sign?

A

Seen in ankylosing spondylitis

Erosion of outer fibers of annulus and ossification of vertebral body edge

45
Q

What is a carrot stick fracture?

A

Complication of ankylosing spondylitis

fracture of an alkylosed segment often causing paralysis

46
Q

Which condition demonstrates similar SIJ and vertebral findings to AS?

A

Enteropathic arthropathy – secondary to UC, crohn’s, whipples, salmonella, shigella, Yersinia

47
Q

Which 2 seronegative spondyloarthropathies demonstrate non-marginal syndesmophytes and peripheral arthritis?

A

Psoriatic and Reiter’s

48
Q

Reversible deformities of the hand are seen in which condition?

A

SLE

  • ulnar deviation, but pt can overcome this with muscle contraction or pushing down on the table
  • ligaments are lax, but joints are not destroyed
49
Q

What is acro-osteolysis and which conditions demonstrate this finding?

A

Reabsorption of extremities

Seen in scleroderma, psoriatic arthritis, and SLE, and hyperparathyroid

50
Q

What is the overhanging margin sign and which condition is this seen in?

A

C-shaped erosion

Seen in Gout

51
Q

What structures are primarily involved in CPPD?

A

Knee - Most common site for radiographic and clinical findings, Suspect with isolated patellofemoral or tricompartmental involvement

Wrist - triangular fibrocartilagae distal to ulnar styloid - Arthropathy at radiocarpal joint, Scapholunate dissociation, SLAC wrist

Pubic symphysis

52
Q

What structures are primarily involved in HADD?

A

Shoulder and hip
Usually single site of involvement
Causes calcific tendinitis

53
Q

What is the most common source of osteoblastic metastatic carcinoma in adult females?

A

Breast (prostate, lung, kidney)

54
Q

List the three common causes of solitary sclerotic vertebral body/ivory vertebra.

A

IHOP
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Paget’s disease

55
Q

Is it common to find a tumor involving a joint?

56
Q

Is multiple myeloma more common in vertebral body or neural arch?

A

Vertebral body

57
Q

What malignancy demonstrates a cold bone scan?

A

Multiple myeloma

58
Q

Which is the most dense primary malignant bone tumor?

A

Osteosarcoma (2nd most common bone neoplasm)

59
Q

What is the common age range of primary osteosarcoma?

A

10-25 yrs

in older pts, likely due to malignant degeneration of benign tumor

60
Q

What is the difference between sunburst and onion skin appearance?

A

Sunburst – lytic lesion of hemangioma in brain
Onion skin – layered or laminated periosteal reaction created by several parallel concentric layers or lamellae of periosteal new bone – implies aggressive process
seen in Ewings and osteosarcoma

61
Q

Which part of the long bone is commonly involved in osteosarcoma?

A

Metaphysis

62
Q

What is codman’s triangle?

A

Triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when a lesion, often a tumour, raises the periosteum away from the bone- seen with osteosarcomas

63
Q

Why is Ewing’s sarcoma commonly found in the diaphysis of long bone?

A

It’s a marrow cell tumor – “round cell”

64
Q

What is a geographic lytic appearance and does it suggest more benign or aggressive neoplasms?

A

Geographic = Well defined margin; non-aggressive lesion

65
Q

What are the other two lytic appearances of tumors?

A

Geographic
Motheaten
Permeativ

66
Q

Which condition presents as a solitary exostosis that points away from the nearest joint?

A

Osteochondroma – most common benign bone tumor, usually asx but could impinge on things

67
Q

Compared the incidence of malignant transformation in osteochondroma and hereditary multiple exostosis.

A

Osteochondroma – malignant in 1%

Hereditary multiple exostosis – malignant in 20%

68
Q

What is a “corduroy vertebra”?

A

Lytic lesion with coarse vertical striations – seen in hemangioma

69
Q

Is spinal hemangioma commonly solitary or polyostotic?

70
Q

Which is the most common benign bone tumor of the spine?

A

Hemangioma – mostly seen after age 40, mainly asx

71
Q

Is a bone island symptomatic?

A

No – cortical bone inside where medullary bone should be – does not happen in skull

72
Q

Which benign tumor classically demonstrates as pain worst at night and easily relieved by aspirin?

A

Osteoid osteoma

73
Q

Which part of the bone is usually involved with osteoid osteoma?

A

Cortical bone - usually proximal femur

74
Q

What is the appearance of the tumor matrix in enchondroma?

A
- second most common benign tumor, most common in hands and feet
Geographic lytic
Expansile
Thinned  cortex,  endosteal  scalloping
Metaphyseal-diaphyseal
Most  central
Calcification  in  50%
No periosteal reaction; no soft tissue mass
- look like chondrosarcoma, but painless
75
Q

What is multiple enchondromatosis called?

A

Ollier’s disease – higher chance of malignancy

76
Q

What is the most common location of fibrous cortical defect?

A

lower extremity (90% in tibia or fibula) and humerus; ribs, ilium

77
Q

What is a fallen fragment sign associated with?

A

Simple bone cyst – sign seen with fracture – associated with pathological fractures
- piece of cortex breaks off

78
Q

Which benign bone tumor is named according to its appearance rather than its histological composition?

A

Aneurysmal bone cyst – young age, painful, look aggressive but benign – most common posterior arch

79
Q

Described the radiographic difference between an enchondroma, simple bone cyst, aneurysmal bone cyst and osteochondroma.

A
Enchondroma
•	Geographic lytic
•	Expansile
•	Thinned  cortex,  endosteal  scalloping
•	Metaphyseal-diaphyseal
•	Most  central
•	Calcification  in  50%
•	No periosteal reaction; no soft tissue mass

Simple bone cyst
• Geographic; lytic; maybe loculated
• Broad based at physis, narrows toward diaphysis
• Bone expansion, but not beyond physis diameter
• “Fallen fragment” sign with fracture

Aneurysmal bone cyst
•	Expansile
•	Lytic,  septated
•	Eccentric
•	Markedly  thinned  cortex
•	Metaphyseal,  may extend to epiphysis  (only  benign  tumor  to  cross  growth  plate)
•	Periosteal  response  more  common
Osteochondroma
•	Bony  exostosis:  cortex  continuous  with  host  bone;  normal  trabeculae 
•	Cartilaginous  cap  may  calcify
•	Project  away  from  joint
•	Sessile produces asymmetric widening
80
Q
  1. Is giant cell tumor painful? Is it malignant?
A

Intermittent aching pain, usually around knee

“quasimalignant” – 20%

81
Q
  1. Is Paget’s disease monostotic or polyostotic?
A

Usually polyostotic

Most commonly seen in older pts, >55

82
Q
  1. List the radiographic features of Paget’s disease in a long bone such as the femur or tibia.
A

Blade of grass or candle flame appearance – V lesion

Thickened bones